2013年10月31日星期四

000-318J questions and answers 「000-318日本語版」

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Exam Code: 000-318J
Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment V8.5 Core Administration (000-318日本語版))
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Total Q&A: 56 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 システム管理者はノードに複製され る 必要があるセルリポ ジ トリに構成変更を行 い ま
した。ノードのノード? エージェントが現在停止状態にあります。
システム管理者はデプ ロ゗メント· マ ネ ー ジャ ー と ノ ー ド を 同 期 させ る た め に 何 を 行 わ なけ
ればなりませんか。
A. デプロ゗メント· マネージャーを再起動する。
B. シンクノードのゕウ トを選択すること によって、管理コンソールから Synchronize 機能 を
実行する
C.commandsyncNode<deploymgr ホスト> <deploymgr ポート> [ オプシ ョン] を実行する。
D. 配備マネージャに接続している wsadmin から NodeSync MBean の 同期オペレーションを呼
び出す。
Answer: C

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NO.2 システム管理者 は、Java サーブレットをゕクセスしようとしたとき、Web サーバープ
プラグ゗ンがエラーを引き起こして正しく設定されていないことを疑っています。
システム管理者は、 バ゗パスとプラグ゗ン、 及びゕプリケーションが機能的であることを保
証するために、どのコンポーネントに直接にゕクセスすることができますか。
A.Web コンテナー
B.HTTP ウェブ? サーバ ー
C. デプロ゗メント· マネ ージャー
D. エンタープラ゗ズ Java Beans (EJB) コンテナ ー
Answer: A

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NO.3 システム管理者 は、 実行時にデータソース? ネーミング例外を見て、 Java トランザクシ
ョン API (JTA ) エンタ ープラ゗ズ Java ビーンズ (EJB ) モジュール 内で使用されるデータ· ソ
ースの JNDI 名を確認 する必要があります。
管理者はどのフゔ゗ルを調べなければなりませんか。
A.web.xml
B.persistence.xml
C.ibm-web-bnd.xmi
D.ibm-ejb-jar-bnd.xmi
Answer: B

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NO.4 両方が同時にログ゗ンする場合、1 人 のユーザによって行な われた変更が別のユー ザ
ーに見られるように、システム管理者は管理コンソールを構成する必要があります。
システム管理者は、 これを達成するためにコンソール優先権でどのセッテゖングを選択しな
ければなりませんか。
A. 同期変更を有効にする
B. ワークスペースの自 動更新を有効にする
C. 同期変更を無効にす る
D. ワークスペースの自動更新を無効にする
Answer: B

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NO.5 システム管理者はモニターされたデ ゖ レクトリ配備機能を 使 用して、すでに配備 さ れ
たゕプリケーションをゕップデートするためにフゔ゗ルを加える必要があります。
システム管理者はどのようにこれを行うべきでしょうか。
A. モニターされたデプロ゗ゕプリ? デゖレクトリのルートにフゔ゗ルを追加する。
B.wsadmin ス クリ プ トを 作 成 して 、 それ を モニ タ ー され た デプ ロ ゗ゕ プ リ? デゖ レ クト リに
追加する。
C. プロパテゖフゔ゗ル を作成し、 それを EAR のデプロ゗メント? プロパテゖ? デゖレクトリに
含める。
D. プロパテゖフゔ゗ルを作成し、 それをモニターされたデプロ゗? ゕプリ/ デプロ゗メント· プ
ロパテゖ· デゖレクトリにコピーする。
Answer: D

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NO.6 WebSphere Application Server 環境で新 しいセキュリ テゖ要件は実行される tobe を 必要
とします。
それが必要とされていない場合、WebSphere Application Server にデ プロ゗されたすべてのゕ
プリケーションはフゔ゗ルシステムに直接ゕクセスすることができません。
システム管理者はこの要件を実施するために何を行わなければなりませんか。
A.Java 2 セキュリテゖ を有効にして、ポリシーフゔ゗ルを変更する。
B.Java SDK デゖレクト リにある JVM ポリシ ーフゔ゗ルを修正する。
C.JVM の起動パラメータに「 - nofs 」オプシ ョンを追加す る。
D.WebSphere Application Server 構成フゔ゗ル に「com.ibm.jvm.filesystemaccess は= 無」パラ メ
ータを追加する。
Answer: A

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NO.7 生産環境で、システム管理者はゕク テ ゖブな接続の中で使 用 されないステートメ ン ト
を キ ャ ッ シ ュ す る こ と に よ っ て 準 備 さ れ た ス テ ー ト メ ン ト お よ び 呼 出 し 可 能 の ス テ ー ト メ
ントの処理を最適化するために、 データソース? ステートメント· キ ャッシュを調整しました。
キャッシュがいっぱいになると、キャッシュ内の古いエントリは廃棄されます。
管理者は、 キャッシュの廃棄を最小化する方法を決定するために、 キャッシュから廃棄され
たステートメントの数に関する統計情報を取得したいと思っています。
システム管理者はどのようにこの情報を得ることが できますか。
A. リクエスト? メトリクスを可能にする。
B.HPEL を構成し、ログ フゔ゗ルを調べる
C.Tivoli パフォーマンス? ビューゕを使用する。
D.IBM サポート? ゕシスタントのデータ? コレクターを使用する。
Answer: C

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NO.8 管理者はリバテゖ· プロフゔ゗ル開発環境から生産ネットワーク配備セルにゕプリケ
ーションを移動する必要があります。
管 理 者 は 生 産 セ ル の 中 で ゕ プ リ ケ ー シ ョ ン を デ プ ロ ゗ す る た め に ど ん な ス テ ッ プ を 取 ら な
ければなりませんか。
A. デプロ゗メント· マネージャーによって、ゕプリケーション EAR フゔ゗ルをデプロ゗し、
server.xml フゔ゗ルで定義されたリソースを定義する。
B. カス タマ ゗ズさ れた 自動化 の wsadmin スクリプ トを 生成 する た めに移 行ツ ール を使 用 す
る。
C. 管理のコンソールで「リリース」機能を使用し、開発リバテゖー? プ ロ フ ゖ ー ル の
theserver.xmlfile にそれ を指示する。
D. リバ テ ゖ· プ ロフ ゔ ゗ル に よ って 使用 さ れるリ ソ ー スが デプ ロ ゗メン ト· マネ ー ジャ ー によ
って使用されるこ とを 保証するリバテゖ? プ ロフゔ゗ルによって生 成された強化された EAR
を使用する。
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-783J
Exam Name: IBM (IBM PureFlex Technical Support V2 (000-783日本語版))
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Total Q&A: 45 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 顧客は p460 ソリ ューションを購入し、 必要に応じて時間にわたって複数のコゕを入手
したいと考えています。 最初に顧客は 16 コ ゕを必要とし、 時間にわたって 32 のコゕに 増加
する必要を要求します。 以下のどれがこのニーズを満たすために購入されなければなりませ
んか。
A. 32 コゕのサーバ、 ま た 16 のコゕを無効にする。 必要に応じてコゕを再ゕクテゖブ化する。
B. 16 コゕ P460、より 多くが必 要とされるときに追加の 16 コゕを追加するには、MES を実
行する。
C. 活発な 16 のコゕを持った 32- コゕ? サーバ 。 時間にわたって求められるより多くのコゕを
活性化するために CUoD を使用する。
D. 活発な 16 のコゕを 持った 32- コゕ? サーバ 。 追加のコゕの必要に応じて、 複数のコゕを有
効にするには CoD を使用する。
Answer: A

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NO.2 技術専門家は、 新しい PureFlex フゔンデーション実装ののリスクを識別し、削減する
必要があります。下記のどれが技術専門家のための IBM の要件ですか。
A. TDA を実行するため に SME に会う
B. 財務計画を調査す るために CFO に会う
C. 実施計画を調査す るために IBM ストレージ? スペシャリストに会う
D. PureFlex 実施計画を調査?? するために IBM クラ゗ゕント? エグゼクテゖブに会う
Answer: A

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NO.3 顧客は PureFlex Express を考慮していま すが、 彼らは自分のラックを使用すると主張し
ます。
下記のどれが PureSystem 技術専門家のための正確なレスポンスですか。
A. PureSystem ノード は RPQ を備えた BladeCenter H で゗ンストールされるかもしれない。
B. シャシーは PureFlex に特有の IBM ラックに゗ンストールする必要がある。
C. シャシーは BladeCenter に特有の IBM ラッ クに゗ンストールされることができる。
D. 顧客は non PureSystem ラックを使用するかもしれないが、それは推奨方法ではない。
Answer: D

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NO.4 見通しは冗長ス ゗ッチと NIC チーミングを必要とします。
見通しは、 デフォルトの IBM PureFlex ラボサービスの実装が何を含んでいるかについて懸念
しています。
NIC チーミングのセットゕップを冗長なス゗ッチで含む最小限の提供は以下のどれですか。
A. Flex システム
B. PureFlex エクスプレ ス
C. PureFlex 標準
D. PureFlex エンタープラ゗ズ
Answer: D

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NO.5 顧客は IBM i5 /OS V5R4 を実行する複数 の IBM POWER5 サーバ ーを持っています。彼ら
は PureFlex p260 計算 ノードの上にこれらのサーバーを統合することを望んいます。変更を
行うことの利点は何でしょうか。
A. OS ゕップグレードは必要とされない
B. VMware の内の IBM i5 /OS を実行する
C. SMT4 はコゕにつき 4 つのスレッドを許す
D. ゕップグレードさ れた IO プロセッサが利用可能である
Answer: C

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NO.6 PureFlex 見通しは、x86 計算ノード上の vMotion の同等である 電源計算ノード機能が何
かを尋ねます。次のどれが同等ですか。
A. Live Partition Mobility
B. Virtual IO Server (VIOS)
C. Live Application Mobility
D. N_Port ID Virtualization (NPIV)
Answer: A

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NO.7 AIX を実行してい るパワー顧客は、彼らが POWER7 750 から PureFlex に AIX オペレーテ
ゖング· システム環境のベゕメタルの移行を実行する方法を尋ねます。 顧客は AIX の現行バー
ジョンの上にいます。下記のどれがこのタスクを達成しますか。
A. mksysb 復元
B. DVD からの BOS ゗ンストール
C. ストレージ? コピー? サービス
D. Tivoli ストレージ? マ ネージ ャー
Answer: A

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NO.1 Which scope should be used if the skin relies specifically on code within the theme or has a
specific function that is only useful in that particular theme?
A. Global
B. Private
C. Static-based
D. Theme-based
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which is a true statement regarding Responsive Web Design (RWD) and IBM WebSphere
Portal?
A. A web application using RWD can be published to all supported appstores.
B. A hybrid or native application is needed in order to be able to support RWD concepts.
C. RWD itself is a practical solution to the shifting landscape of devices and screen sizes.
D. Accessing native features of a device is not possible when using RWD with WebSphere Portal.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which three needs can be met with an IBM Worklight-only application approach? (Choose
three.)
A. offline use
B. app store presence
C. authentication management
D. access to mobile native features
E. use of existing IBM WebSphere Portal environment
F. personalization driven by IBM Web Content Manager content
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.4 Where is the correct place to define a Responsive Web Design breakpoint, for example
@media screen, in order to handle the different device sizes on the devices browser?
A. on the default.jsp of the portal theme
B. in the JavaScript of the web container of the mobile device
C. only in hybrid mobile applications can breakpoints be defined
D. in the CSS of the theme for the IBM WebSphere Portal server
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which event listener is used in an IBM WebSphere Portal theme to detect if a page is loaded
on a mobile device?
A. isWebView
B. isMobileDevice
C. onDeviceReady
D. onMobileDevice
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which API is used to create a REST interface?
A. HTTP
B. JAX-RS
C. JSR 168
D. JSR 286
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which two themes are included in the Multichannel Feature Pack for IBM Web Experience
Factory 8.0? (Choose two.)
A. iOS
B. Tablet
C. Android
D. Portable
E. Smartphone
Answer: B,E

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NO.8 Which two statements are true regarding the IBM Worklight API? (Choose two.)
A. The Worklight API does not allow a developer to pass data from native to web or web to native.
B. Worklight provides a native API to communicate with the Worklight Server from the native page.
C. The Worklight API only allows a developer to pass data from native to web but not web to native.
D. The Worklight API only allows a developer to pass data from web to native but not native to web.
E. The Worklight API allows navigation to native pages and back, including the passing of data back
and forth.
Answer: B,E

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NO.9 Christine has created an IBM Web Experience Factory project and would like to add the
Multichannel Feature Pack for Web Experience Factory 8.0 to her project. How can she accomplish
this?
A. Install the Web Experience Factory 8.0.0.2 Fix Pack.
B. Modify the override.properties file and set the attribute enableMultiChannel="true".
C. Modify the bowstreet.properties file and set the attribute enableMultiChannel="true".
D. Right-click on the Web Experience Factory project and select the Import > Web Experience
Factory Archive command.
Answer: D

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NO.10 How can media queries combine multiple conditions?
A. using the symbol "&"
B. by an iteration with ??by an iteration with ?
C. by nesting with brackets
D. using keywords "and", "or", "not"
Answer: D

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NO.11 What functionality does the IBM Worklight Server provide when Worklight and IBM
WebSphere Portal are used together?
A. The Worklight Server is not used in the architecture.
B. The Worklight Server provides push notifications for the application.
C. The Worklight Server handles all data connections for the application.
D. The Worklight Server must be installed on the same server as WebSphere Portal.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which kind of feed does the REST API accept?
A. XML
B. Web
C. RSS
D. Atom
Answer: D

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NO.13 Mary plans to develop hybrid or native mobile applications with IBM Worklight, specifically for
iOS devices. What will she need to do to accomplish this?
A. She must install IBM Worklight on an iOS device.
B. She must be a part of the iOS developer program, so that the use of Xcode is optional.
C. She must download Xcode, which is an Apple IDE for developing iOS and Mac applications.
D. As long as Xcode is used, iOS applications can be developed on any modern operating system
(Windows, Linux, Mac OS).
Answer: C

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NO.14 What is WebDAV used for in IBM WebSphere Portal?
A. to deploy static resources
B. to register themes and skins
C. to deploy dynamic resources
D. to start the embedded client application
Answer: A

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NO.15 IBM WorkLight Studio is supported and can be installed on which operating systems?
A. Windows
B. Windows, Mac OS, Linux
C. Microsoft Windows, Linux
D. Linux, Mac OS, Windows, Android
Answer: B

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Exam Name: IBM (IBM Endpoint Manager for Mobile Devices V2.1 Implementation)
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Total Q&A: 90 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 What must occur in order to remove an iOS profile from a managed device?
A. The profile must not be encrypted.
B. The profile must contain an administrator password.
C. The profile must have been encrypted at the time of deployment.
D. The profile must have been deployed using IBM Endpoint Manager for Mobile Devices.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Where would a device obtain an APK file during application installation once it has been
imported to the IBM Endpoint Manager for Mobile Devices? (Choose two.)
A. relay
B. App Store
C. Google Play
D. corporate intranet site
E. IBM Endpoint Manager server
Answer: A,E

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NO.3 Apple devices are not receiving commands sent from the iOS Management Extender. Which
log file should be checked to ensure the iOS extender is communicating with the Apple Push
Notification Service?
A. jetty.log
B. apns.log
C. iosmdm.log
D. mdm_tasks.log
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which mobile devices can only be managed using the Management Extender for Microsoft
Exchange?
A. AppleiOS4.xdevices
B. BlackBerry OS 10 devices
C. SAEE enabled Android devices
D. Microsoft Windows Mobile 5.x devices
Answer: B

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NO.5 When creating a Samsung SAFE Capability Profile what are two of the system security'
restrictions that can be set for SAFE compatible mobile devices? (Choose two.)
A. disable Bluetooth
B. disable the microphone
C. enable encryption of internal storage
D. enable encryption of external storage
E. define the required maximum password length
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 What is the recommended maximum number of iOS devices that should report to an iOS
management extender?
A. 500
B. 1000
C. 5000
D. 10000
Answer: C

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NO.7 An Android device cannot be enrolled with a message similar to: Received an invalid server
URL. What should be checked by the IBM Endpoint Manager administrator to identity the problem?
A. confirm the Trusted Service Provider is up and running
B. make sure the provided server name points to the enrollment server
C. make sure the provided URL points to the Trusted Service Provider URL
D. check if the maximum number of device has been reached for the enrollment server
Answer: B

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NO.8 An employee's corporate mobile device managed by IBM Endpoint Manager (IEM) was stolen.
The device is accessing corporate data both using e-mail and VPN profiles. Which action can be
initiated by the EM console operator to protect access to corporate data?
A. run the action of task Device Wipe against the stolen device
B. run the action of task Selectively Wipe Corporate Device against the stolen device
C. run the action of task Selectively Wipe Android Device (Deprovision) against the stolen device
D. run the action of task Selectively Wipe Apple iOS Device (Deprovision) against the stolen device
Answer: A

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NO.9 The Management Extender for iOS devices opens a Command Port to listen for commands
received from the IBM Endpoint Manager server. What is the default port value?
A. 23
B. 443
C. 52311
D. 52315
Answer: D

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NO.10 An IBM Endpoint Manager administrator who is responsible for managing iOS mobile devices
needs to view a list of applications installed on a particular OS device. Where can this be done?
A. Mobile Device dashboard
B. iOS Device View dashboard
C. Single Device View dashboard
D. Enterprise Apps Management dashboard
Answer: C

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Exam Name: HP (HP Integrity Server Multi-OS Installation and Deployment)
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Total Q&A: 147 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which methods of accessing the Offline Diagnostics Environment (ODE) utilities does HP recommend?
(Select two.)
A. from the HP service partition
B. from the EFI Boot Menu
C. from the MP command menu
D. from the operating system disk
E. from the Offline Diagnostic Utility CD
Answer: AE

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NO.2 Which Offline Diagnostics Environment (ODE) utility should you use to test the memory of an Integrity
server?
A. MAPPER
B. SYSDIAG
C. MEMDIAG
D. DIMMDIAG
Answer: C

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NO.3 The system is not responding normally. You have access to the Management Processor (MP). Which
command do you use to cycle the power?
A. ps
B. pc
C. rs
D. co
Answer: B

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NO.4 You want to load new firmware for the Management Processor (MP). Which command do you use to
verify a proper connection to an FTP server?
A. xd
B. bin
C. scp
D. xu
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which command do you use in the EFI Shell to verify that an Integrity rx4640 server has the latest
firmware?
A. openinfo fw
B. info fw
C. ver fw
D. sysrev
Answer: B

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NO.6 The diagnostic panel on an Integrity rx4640 shows a fan failure. What information on the Management
Processor (MP) shows you when the fan failed?
A. MP:CM> PS
B. MP:CM> SS
C. MP> SL --> L - Live Events
D. MP> SL --> E - System Event
Answer: D

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NO.7 What does an amber blinking System LED on an Integrity rx2620 indicate?
A. System is in error state
B. Remote access is enabled
C. A system warning
D. Management Processor is powered off
Answer: C

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NO.8 After you replace a memory module on an Integrity server, how do you clear the entries in the Page
Deallocation Table (PDT)?
A. Interrupt the boot, go to the Service Menu and enter pdt clear.
B. Interrupt the boot, go to the EFI shell, and then enter pdt clear.
C. Interrupt the boot, enter the MP:CM> CL command, and choose PDT.
D. After reboot, the system automatically deletes entries in the PDT without user input.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Where does HP OpenVMS store all error information?
A. /var/adm/syslog/syslog.log
B. SYS$ERRLOG:SYSTEM.LOG
C. SYS$ERRORLOG:ERRLOG.SYS
D. SYS$MANAGER:OPERATOR.LOG
Answer: C

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NO.10 Where is the diagnostic panel on an Integrity rx4640 server located?
A. top
B. front
C. back
D. left side
E. right side
Answer: A

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NO.11 You replaced failed hardware in an HP Integrity server. Which steps should you perform to ensure
that the system is operational?
A. Verify that the replaced hardware is visible in the EFI Shell, and that the Diagnostic LEDs are clear.
B. Verify that the replaced hardware is visible in the EFI Shell and that the correct firmware version is
loaded.
C. From the EFI Shell, boot the system. From within the operating system, confirm that the replaced
hardware is functioning and verify the correct status of the Diagnostic LEDs.
D. Verify that the replaced hardware is visible in the EFI Shell and that the correct firmware version is
loaded. Then boot the system and confirm that the replaced hardware is functioning.
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which Offline Diagnostics Environment (ODE) utility should you use to test an HP Tachyon XL2 Fibre
Channel card?
A. IODIAG
B. FCDIAG
C. PERFVER
D. FCFUPDATE
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which capability does the Management Processor (MP) in the Integrity rx2620 server provide?
A. offline hardware monitoring
B. hardware administration and management
C. remote HP-UX operating system installation
D. remote monitoring of server room conditions
Answer: B

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NO.14 An Integrity rx2620 server with Windows Server 2003 is running terminal services but has stopped
responding. Which MP command do you use to shut down gracefully and power off the server?
A. rs -g
B. pc -g
C. rs -off
D. pc -off
Answer: B

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NO.15 You are managing an Integrity rx2620 server that is located in a remote office. Which Management
Processor (MP) console command do you use to gather the state of the system and LEDs?
A. LED
B. VFP
C. ERRDUMP D. SYSSTAT
Answer: B

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NO.16 From the EFI Boot Manager, how can you get information about the installed memory DIMMs?
A. Go to the EFI Shell and enter: info mem
B. It is not possible to get the information offline.
C. The information displays automatically at the EFI Boot Manager menu.
D. Go to the System Configuration menu and choose Memory Configuration.
Answer: A

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NO.17 How can you determine the firmware version that is running on an HP Integrity system? (Select two.)
A. At the EFI Boot Manager menu, open the EFI shell and enter info fw.
B. At the MP main menu, open the Command Menu (cm) and enter firmware.
C. At the EFI Boot Manager menu, go to the Firmware menu and select Version.
D. At the EFI Boot Manager menu, go to the Firmware Configuration menu and select Version.
E. If you access the EFI Boot Manager menu using iLO, the firmware versions display automatically.
Answer: AE

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NO.18 You just installed an Integrity rx2620 server. How do you set the MP and system times?
A. Use the MP date command to set time and date.
B. The time will be set automatically during system boot.
C. Use the EFI shell command time to set time and date of the MP.
D. Use the MP date command to set the date, and use the MP time command to set the time.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which front panel LEDs on an Integrity rx2620 can indicate an error?
A. Locator LED and System LED
B. Power LED and Diagnostic LEDs
C. System LED and Diagnostic LEDs
D. Diagnostic LEDs and Locator LED
Answer: C

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NO.20 How can you access the UUID on an entry-level HP Integrity server? (Select two.)
A. The UUID is written on the system information label of the server.
B. At the EFI Boot Manager menu, access the EFI Shell; then enter info sys.
C. At the Management Processor (MP) main menu, go to the Command Menu and enter id.
D. At the EFI Boot Manager menu, access the System Configuration menu and select System UUID.
E. If you access the EFI Boot Manager menu using integrated Lights-Out (iLO), the UUID displays
automatically.
Answer: AB

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NO.21 Which command in the iLO 2 controls access permissions for an Integrity rx6600 server?
A. PS
B. SO
C. PC
D. SD
Answer: B

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NO.22 The rx3600 and rx6600 have LEDs which show the FRU Health status. How can you view the state of
these LEDs remotely?
A. From the MP main menu, select VFP
B. From the MP main menu, select SL
C. From the MP main menu, select CM, then LS
D. From the MP main menu, select CM, then DF
Answer: A

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NO.23 You have run an Offline Diagnostics Environment (ODE) utility. What should you do before booting
the operating system or running any non-ODE utility?
A. Reset the system at the MP:CM> prompt.
B. Use the MP:CM> poff command to power off the DC voltage.
C. Reset the system at the EFI shell prompt and disconnect the AC power for one minute.
D. Reset the system at the EFI shell prompt, use the MP:CM> pc command to power off DC voltage, and
disconnect the AC power for one minute.
Answer: A

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NO.24 Which Offline Diagnostics Environment (ODE) utility should you use to test processors on an Integrity
server?
A. WDIAG
B. IA64DIAG
C. CPUDIAG
D. PROCDIAG
Answer: C

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NO.25 You need to perform a maintenance task on a Management Processor module. Which command
displays a list of connected users?
A. who
B. list
C. usmgr
D. show user
Answer: A

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NO.26 Which Management Processor (MP) command displays the physical location information of the
system?
A. SI
B. ID
C. LOC
D. SO
Answer: B

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NO.27 You must back up all your Integrity server NVRAM configurations. Which backup utility is available for
download that can be used in the EFI shell?
A. bcfg
B. getmtc
C. nvrambkp
D. bcknvram
Answer: C

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NO.28 What is the difference between a Machine Check Abort (MCA) and a Transfer of Control (TOC)?
A. An MCA is a software dump; a TOC is a hardware register dump.
B. An MCA is a hardware register dump; a TOC initiates a software dump.
C. An MCA dump is for Windows systems; a TOC is for HP-UX systems.
D. An MCA dump is for HP-UX systems; a TOC is for Windows systems.
Answer: B

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NO.29 In a Linux environment, what is one of the components used to manage highly available solutions
offered by Virtual Server Environment (VSE)?
A. HP Workload Manager
B. HP OpenView Node Manager
C. HP Global Workload Manager
D. Performance Management Pack
Answer: C

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NO.30 You have limited access to the Management Processor (MP), but you have full access to the system
Baseboard Management Console (BMC). Which command do you issue in the BMC Command Line
Interface (CLI) to power off the system hardware?
A. cli> p 0
B. cli> rs 1
C. cli> pc 0
D. cli> loc 0
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP0-S14
Exam Name: HP (Design and Implementation of HP SIM for ISS Solutions)
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Total Q&A: 125 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which function of the command mxquery is new to HP SIM 5.1?
A. The mxquery command can provide output in XML format.
B. The language of the query results depends on the CMS locale.
C. Users with limited configuration rights privileges can execute mxquery.
D. To run mxquery, you no longer need access to the file system where HP SIM is installed.
Answer: A

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NO.2 You find a 'critical' status in the Virtual Machine Management (VMM) column in HP SIM for the host
server running Microsoft Virtual Server 2005. What does this mean?
A. The virtual machine guest is in a state requiring attention.
B. The virtual machine host is licensed but is not currently communicating with VMM.
C. The VMM agent is installed on the virtual machine host but the host is not licensed.
D. The VMM agent is installed on the server but the server is not a virtual machine host.
Answer: B

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NO.3 What happens when HP Storage Essentials integrates with HP SIM? (Select two.)
A. SNMP for storage devices is disabled.
B. Data collection from SMI-S devices in HP SIM is disabled.
C. All storage-related events are forwarded to Storage Essentials.
D. Storage devices get marked as managed by Storage Essentials.
E. A new Storage Essentials user is added to the HP SIM user database.
Answer: BD

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NO.4 What does HP SIM 5.1 require to access management information on an HP ProLiant server running
Microsoft Windows Server 2003?
A. DMI
B. SSH-2
C. WBEM
D. Open SSH
E. WMI Mapper proxy
Answer: E

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NO.5 Which protocols are used in HP SIM to query events from failing devices? (Select two.)
A. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)
B. HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
C. Windows Management Instrumentation (WMI)
D. Web-Based Enterprise Management (WBEM)
E. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
Answer: CE

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NO.6 Click the Exhibit button.
Which MX command generated the output shown in the exhibit?
A. mxtool
B. mxuser
C. mxauth
D. mxtoolbox
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which protocols are used by HP SIM to identify nodes running Linux? (Select three.)
A. DMI
B. WMI
C. SSH
D. HTTP
E. SNMP
F. WBEM
Answer: DEF

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NO.8 Which function regarding virtual machines is new to HP SIM 5.1?
A. discovery of HP virtual machine systems
B. support for Microsoft Virtual Server 2005 remote console through a Mozilla browser
C. use of VMware Management Interface as a stand-alone tool to launch the remote console
D. not necessary to install VMware Remote Console on the system from which you are launching remote
console
Answer: A

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NO.9 When is it necessary to install the WMI Mapper on a Windows-based Central Management Server
(CMS)?
A. when at least one device managed by the CMS is running a Linux operating system
B. when at least one device managed by the CMS is running an HP-UX operating system
C. when at least one device managed by the CMS is running a Windows operating system
D. when at least one device managed by the CMS is running an HP OpenVMS operating system
Answer: C

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NO.10 HP SIM 5.1 features API support to allow dynamic creation of new event types. What does this
support enable you to do?
A. Modify event types without having full configuration rights.
B. Modify event types without manually updating the HP SIM database.
C. Add event types without restarting the HP SIM central management server (CMS).
D. Add event types without manually refreshing any event collections that display in the CMS.
Answer: C

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NO.11 When performing a Virtual to Physical migration (V2P), what are some prerequisites for the source
virtual machine? (Select two.)
A. Stop the HP SIM management agents on the virtual machine guest.
B. Insert the SMP Boot CD into the CD-ROM of the virtual machine guest.
C. Verify that the source virtual machine guest is powered off or suspended.
D. Verify that the source virtual machine host is licensed and managed by VMM.
E. Ensure that all network connections on the virtual machine guest have DHCP IP addresses.
Answer: CD

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NO.12 HP SIM 5.1 removes support for which product?
A. Oracle9i on HP-UX systems
B. HP BladeSystem Integrated Manager
C. PostgreSQL on x64 Linux operating systems
D. Insight Control Management Integrated Installer
Answer: C

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NO.13 You have recently added a ProLiant BL20p G1 to the server blade enclosure monitored by PMP. At the
PMP License Administration page, this new server does not appear in the list of servers. Why?
A. The server does not have a valid serial number.
B. The server is too old and not supported by PMP.
C. The server has not yet been discovered by HP SIM.
D. The operating system running on this server is not supported.
E. The HP Insight Management Agents on this server are not at the required version.
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which HP SIM process determines the associations between a management processor and its server,
a server blade and its enclosure, and an enclosure and its rack?
A. polling
B. discovery
C. identification
D. data collection
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which HP SIM procedure determines the system management protocol of a detected device and its
operating system?
A. polling
B. discovery
C. identification
D. data collection
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which protocol requires a special HP SIM component that configures the managed device to send
alerts to the Central Management Server (CMS) because it does not provide alerting capabilities?
A. DMI
B. WMI
C. HTTP
D. SNMP
E. WBEM
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which types of HP Systems Insight Manager tools can be run on target systems? (Select three.)
A. XML-based type aware
B. all-system aware (ASA)
C. Intel system aware (ISA)
D. web launch aware (WLA)
E. single-system aware (SSA)
F. multiple-system aware (MSA)
Answer: DEF

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NO.18 Which package integrates with HP SIM 5.1 to support monitoring and management of Itanium-based
server blades running HP-UX?
A. HP Integrity Essentials
B. HP ProLiant Essentials
C. HP OpenView Operations
D. HP SmartStart Scripting toolkit
Answer: A

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NO.19 When is system polling initiated?
A. when a system has generated an error condition
B. when a new system is added to the HP SIM database
C. when the HP SIM central management server (CMS) powers on
D. when HP SIM receives an alert from a managed system to determine system status
Answer: D

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NO.20 When a system administrator attempts to update the firmware on a BladeSystem GbE2c interconnect
switch using HP SIM, the update is unsuccessful. What could be the reason?
A. The HP SIM server is running on Linux.
B. The VCA agent on the GbE2c interconnect switch is not active.
C. The GbE2c interconnect switch is not licensed for firmware upgrades.
D. The GbE2c interconnect switch can only be upgraded using the serial connection.
Answer: A

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Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 You must determine if the default settings on ProCurve 5406zl switches will provide adequate QoS for
a multimedia training application. What must you learn about the application in order to make this
determination?
A. if it recognizes IGMP joins from receivers
B. if it uses TCP or UDP as a transport protocol
C. if it inserts Layer 2 or Layer 3 priority markers
D. if it supports Guaranteed Minimum Bandwidth
Answer: C

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NO.2 You enter the following command at the CLI of a ProCurve Switch 3500yl:
3500.l(config)#ip route 22.0.0.0/8 172.16.100.100
However, when you enter show ip route to confirm your entry, no route to 22.0.0.0/8 appears in the route
table. Which
statement explains this condition?
A. The interface connected to 172.16.100.100 is down.
B. The switch has learned another route to 22.0.0.0/8 through OSPF.
C. The route table already includes a default route using 172.16.100.100.
D. The switch has not been configured with an IP address of 172.16.100.100.
Answer:A

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NO.3 You will connect an IP telephone that supports LLDP-MED to port 8 on a ProCurve Switch 3500yl.
Which configuration step will enable the switch to auto-configure the appropriate VLAN for the phone??
A. Enable LLDP-MED in the VLAN 1 configuration context.
B. Configure port 8 as a tagged member of a voice VLAN.
C. Enable LLDP-MED in the configuration context for a voice VLAN.
D. Define port 8 as an LLDP-MED port in the global configuration context.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Why does network congestion often cause more network congestion?
A. RSVP routers allocate more bandwidth to UDP applications.
B. TCP applications request retransmission of dropped packets.
C. QoS settings require switches to retransmit all real-time traffic.
D. 802.1p priorities are ignored after congestion reaches a user-defined threshold.
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is a difference between voice traffic and video traffic?
A. Voice traffic is typically more difficult to route than streaming video traffic.
B. Voice traffic is typically more sensitive to delay than streaming video traffic.
C. Voice traffic is typically less sensitive to jitter than streaming video traffic.
D. Voice traffic is typically more bandwidth-intensive than streaming video traffic.
Answer: B

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NO.6 While analyzing network traffic, you notice that many packets have an 802.1p value of 0. On a
ProCurve switch with default QoS settings, what does this indicate?
A. No prioritization settings are in effect on the network.
B. The traffic will be mapped to the normal priority queue.
C. The network relies on Layer 3 classification technologies
D. The network is not using the default settings on ProCurve switches.
Answer: B

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NO.7 While analyzing network traffic using a port monitor on a ProCurve Switch 8212zl, you notice that
many packets have an 802.1p value of 1. If the switch has default QoS settings, what does this indicate?
A. The 8212zl has marked the traffic for low-priority forwarding.
B. The 8212zl has marked the traffic for high-priority forwarding.
C. Another device has marked the traffic for low-priority forwarding.
D. Another device has marked the traffic for high-priority forwarding.
Answer: C

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NO.8 What is the difference between administrative distance and cost?
A. Administrative distance is applied only to routes learned through OSPF. Cost applies to RIP routes as
well as OSPF routes.
B. Administrative distance indicates the distance to remote networks learned through routing protocols.
Cost applies static routes and directly connected networks.
C. Administrative distance is determined solely through interactions among routers that share a routing
protocol. Cost can be defined by the administrator of each router.
D. Administrative distance is a locally significant value that can be used to break ties between routes
learned from different sources. Cost is a cumulative metric that indicates the number of hops to a remote
network.
Answer: D

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NO.9 You must design an IP addressing scheme for a network that must support 16 different types of users,
each with
different resource and security requirements. What is an advantage of ensuring that the number of
networks assigned to
each type of user is a power of 2?
A. It enables automatic summarization at classful boundaries.
B. It minimizes the number of VLANs required to support each type of user.
C. It ensures that an adequate number of IP addresses will be available for each type of user.
D. It simplifies summarization because all networks for each type of user can be summarized in a single
routing statement.
Answer: D

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NO.10 What is the effect when the following command is entered at the CLI of a ProCurve Switch 5406zl?
5406zl(vlan-111)#qos priority 2
A. Packets entering the switch through VLAN 111 will be forwarded with normal priority.
B. Packets entering the switch through VLAN 111 will be forwarded with lower than normal priority.
C. Packets entering the switch through VLAN 111 will be forwarded with higher than normal priority.
D. Packets entering the switch through VLAN 111 will retain the priority marker set by another device.
Answer: B

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NO.11 By default, what type of route is redistributed in RIP updates by ProCurve ProVision ASIC switches?
A. static
B. default
C. OSPF
D. connected
Answer: D

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NO.12 What are the advantages of implementing IP routing technologies at the network edge? (Select two.)
A. provide per-user QoS
B. decrease the load on network core
C. eliminate the need for routing protocols
D. create smaller, localized broadcast domains
E. enhance support for default gateway redundancy
Answer: BD

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NO.13 When does a router use administrative distance to determine which route to include in its route table?
A. when the router learned about multiple routes with equal-cost paths to the same destination
B. when the router learned about multiple routes to the same destination from different sources using the
same routing protocol
C. when the router learned about multiple routes to the same destination from different routing protocols
or static configuration
D. when the router is configured with static routes to the same destination that specify the same cost but
different next hop router interfaces
Answer: C

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NO.14 What is an advantage of locating routing intelligence at the edge of an enterprise network instead of in
the core?
A. The edge-oriented strategy requires fewer VLANs and networks.
B. The edge-oriented strategy supports VRRP and other protocols for default gateway redundancy.
C. The edge-oriented strategy enables ACLs and other traffic filters to be applied before traffic traverses
any part of the network.
D. The edge-oriented strategy simplifies summarization because each router must support VLANs only
for directly connected users.
Answer: C

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NO.15 When does an LLDP-enabled switch start sending LLDP advertisements?
A. when QoS is enabled
B. when IP multicast is enabled
C. immediately after it has started
D. when it receives an LLDP request from a neighbor
Answer: C

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NO.16 How many priority levels are specified by the IEEE 802.1p standard?
A. 4
B. 7
C. 8 D. 16
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which condition is necessary to enable a group of networks to be auto-summarized by a ProCurve
Switch 3500yl?
A. The address ranges to be summarized must be within different OSPF areas.
B. The address ranges to be summarized must be within a classful network boundary.
C. The address ranges to be summarized must be directly connected to a neighbor router.
D. The address ranges to be summarized must be accessible through a neighbor router interface.
Answer: B

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NO.18 Under what condition does the IEEE 802.1p field provide end-to-end prioritization?
A. All switches can classify traffic based on DSCP.
B. Source and destination hosts are in the same VLAN.
C. The network is experiencing high levels of congestion.
D. All links in the path between source and destination are tagged.
Answer: D

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NO.19 You must configure QoS on a ProCurve Switch 8212zl in the core layer of a network. One interface on
the switch receives traffic that uses only Layer 3 markers to indicate priority. What must you do to enable
the switch to forward this traffic with correct priority?
A. Set the QoS trust level to the appropriate value.
B. Enable the appropriate interpretation of the IP ToS field.
C. Configure port-based priorities for all ports forwarding this traffic.
D. Configure custom IEEE 802.1p maps for all ports forwarding this traffic.
Answer: B

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NO.20 What is the role of an OSPF Area Border Router?
A. to connect multiple non-backbone areas
B. to connect a backbone area to non-backbone areas
C. to connect OSPF domains with domains that use other routing protocols
D. to connect a backbone area to the backbones of other OSPF routing domains
Answer: B

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Exam Name: HP (HP-UX 11i v3 Advanced System Administration)
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Total Q&A: 152 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 The execution scripts for rwhod and xntpd are configured in which configuration file?
A. /etc/rc.config.d/netconf
B. /etc/rc.config.d/mailsvrs
C. /etc/rc.config.d/namesvrs
D. /etc/rc.config.d/netdaemons
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which commands create a file with paths to all files named bob and display the files on the screen as
they are identified? (Select two.)
A. find / -name bob | tee list
B. find / -name bob | tail -f >list
C. find / -name bob | tail list >list
D. find / -name bob &>list tail -f list
E. find / -name bob >list & tail -f list
Answer: AE

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NO.3 Which feature allows the LDAP-UX client to retrieve user information from LDAP Directory Servers that
do not support the posixAccount objectclass (RFC2307)?
A. SASL
B. attribute mapping
C. configuration profile
D. service search descriptors
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which feature allows concurrent access of NFS and CIFS clients on a file without corrupting it?
A. NFS v4
B. Unified File Cache
C. Memory-Mapped Access
D. CIFS File System Module (CFSM)
Answer: D

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NO.5 What is the result of the following command? find / -atime +14 -size +1000c -exec rm -i {} \;
A. Search for all files more than 14 hours old that are larger than 1000 bytes. Prompt the user to delete
each file found that matches the search criteria.
B. Search for all files more than two weeks old that are larger than 10 characters. Prompt the user to
delete each file found that matches the search criteria.
C. Search for all files more than two weeks old that are larger than 1000 bytes. Prompt the user to delete
each file found that matches the search criteria.
D. Search for all files more than two weeks old that are larger than 1000 characters. Prompt the user to
rename each file found that matches the search criteria.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Neighbor discovery is a component of which protocol?
A. IPv6
B. ARP
C. OSPF
D. DHCP
Answer: A

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NO.7 When a connection is established with inetd for a service, inetd runs the appropriate server specified in
the /etc/inetd.conf file and waits for other connections. Which HP-UX application can be used in addition
to inetd to verify whether a host or network can execute a service provided in inetd.conf?
A. IPsec
B. IPfilter
C. TCP wrappers
D. Security Advisor
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which features are supported by the Red Hat Directory Server? (Select three.)
A. ADSI API
B. NTLM authentication
C. multi-master replication
D. replication with Novell eDirectory
E. X.509 certificate based authentication
F. secure communications using SSL/TLS
Answer: CEF

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NO.9 Which command performs formatting of binary data generated by nettl?
A. nroff -e
B. netformat -a
C. nettl -l filename
D. netfmt -f filename
Answer: D

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NO.10 What are the benefits of IPQoS? (Select two.)
A. policy-based bandwidth provisioning
B. automatic configuration of IP interfaces
C. prioritize only inbound network bandwidth
D. prioritize only outbound network bandwidth
E. prioritize both outbound and inbound network bandwidth
Answer: AD

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NO.11 On an HP-UX system, an empty cron.deny file exists but there is not a cron.allow file. Who can use
cron in this situation?
A. nobody
B. only root
C. everybody
D. only system accounts
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which command uses NTP to keep the local system clock in sync with other nodes on the network?
A. /usr/sbin/ntpsync
B. /usr/sbin/ntpdate
C. /usr/sbin/ntpscan
D. /usr/sbin/ntpd.conf
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which command talks directly to the sendmail daemon and other SMTP servers to verify connectivity?
A. telnet host 23
B. telnet host 80
C. telnet host 25
D. telnet host 110
Answer: C

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NO.14 Click the Exhibit button. What is the output after executing this script?
A. Last
B. First
C. Third
D. Second
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which command prints out the network routing table?
A. netstat
B. nwmgr
C. ifconfig
D. lanscan
E. lanadmin
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which variable holds the number of arguments passed into a function inside of a KSH script?
A. $!
B. $?
C. $#
D. $$
E. $0
Answer: C

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NO.17 Click the Exhibit button. The Exhibit shows one possible output of a processor information command.
Which command can be executed to get processor information from an Integrity system running HP-UX?
A. procinfo
B. cpu_info
C. machinfo
D. cpuinfo -v
E. procinfo -v
Answer: C

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NO.18 What is the first step when creating an NIS Master server?
A. nisinit -a
B. update all ASCII source files
C. /sbin/init.d/ypinit start
D. /sbin/init.d/nis.server start
Answer: B

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NO.19 What is the configuration file for the HP CIFS Server product?
A. /etc/opt/samba/smb.conf
B. /etc/opt/samba/cifs.conf
C. /etc/opt/samba/swat.conf
D. /etc/opt/samba/samba.conf
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which program initially starts rpcbind at boot?
A. /sbin/init.d/net
B. /sbin/init.d/named
C. /sbin/init.d/nfs.core
D. /sbin/init.d/rpcbind
Answer: C

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