2013年11月30日星期六

HP certification HP0-J38 exam training programs

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Exam Code: HP0-J38
Exam Name: HP (Designing and Implementing HP Enterprise Backup Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 85 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 To protect against data loss, companies must develop and follow backup and restore
strategies. Which questions can be used to determine the approporiate backup strategy?
(Select three.)
A.What is the size of the restore window?
B.Where is the data located?
C.Which type of tape device is used?
D.Is full or partial backup required?
E.Which type of storage is used?
F.Is the data image based or file based?
Answer: A, D, F

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NO.2 You are proposing a disaster tolerant solution to your customer. Which factors should you consider
when estimating the cost of data loss? (Select three.)
A.size of the backup and restore window
B.type of backup, image based or file based
C.cost of downtime while recreating data
D.ability to recreate the data
E.effect on customer and supplier satisfaction
F.average amount of lost data
Answer: C, D, E

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NO.3 What is the difference between a normal full backup and a copy full backup?
A.A normal full backup backs up files and resets the archive bit. A copy full backup does not.
B.A normal full backup always uses the last access time to determine if the file needs backing up. The
copy full backup uses the archive bit.
C.A copy full backup is a replica of a normal full backup.
D.A copy full backup is image based. A normal full backup is file based.
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the expected growth rate of the Storage Media Operations database?
A.100MB for every 2000 tapes
B.100MB for every 10,000 tapes
C.1GB for every 1000 tapes
D.2GB for every 10,000 tapes
Answer: B

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NO.5 You are implementing an ESL E-Series tape library. What is the maximum number of drives supported
per drive cluster?
A.2
B.4
C.8
D.16
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP2-E14
Exam Name: HP (HP Service Sales Professional)
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Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 What is the correct sequence for a successful HP Care Pack Services sales process?
A. Introduce services, illustrate cost of downtime, relate value to customer objectives, compare
cost of service to cost of downtime, and reinforce credibility
B. Introduce services, relate value to customer objectives, reinforce credibility, illustrate cost of
downtime, and compare cost of service to cost of downtime
C. Introduce services, reinforce credibility, relate value to customer objectives, illustrate cost of
downtime, and compare cost of service to cost of downtime
D. Introduce services, illustrate cost of downtime, compare cost of service to cost of downtime,
reinforce credibility, and relate value to customer objectives
Answer: C

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NO.2 According to research, approximately what percentage of all helpdesk calls are related to
commercial printers?
A. less than 10%
B. more than 50%
C. more than 75%
D. between 10% and 20%
Answer: B

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NO.3 Why is it important to introduce services early in the sales cycle for an HP Integrity solution?
(Select three.)
A. You can provide higher services discounts early in the sales cycle.
B. if you do not, the competition might step in to provide the service solution
C. Your value proposition is stronger with services included from the beginning
D. The customer's budget may not be stretched later on to accommodate additional services.
E. The standard warranty, that provides basic protection against downtime and services, is an
important component to provide a complete solution
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.4 What is the typical percentage profit margin for HP Care Pack Support Services compared with
HP products?
A. bigger
B. similar
C. smaller
D. depends on which HP Care Pack
Answer: A

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NO.5 Can you improve your margin by including services at the point of product sales?
A. Yes. if you offer the right service.
B. No, if the customer does not ask for services, you must sell them at cost, so no margin is left
and the order margin percentage decreases.
C. No, because offering services together with the product means that you are not selling a
qualitative product and there is a risk of losing the total sale
D. Yes. the increased order value (extra 15% to 30%) has a positive impact on the total margin,
and a typical sen/ice margin is even higher than the product margin
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP0-J43
Exam Name: HP (SAN Infrastructure and Solutions -v10.21)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 57 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which functionality is added to the B-Series DCFM GUI with the Enterprise Edition?
A.connectivity map
B.minimap
C.toolbox
D.utilization legend
Answer: D

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NO.2 A SAN extension using FCIP with Continuous Access EVA is being implemented. Best practices dictate
using separate switches for host and replication fabrics. A high availability, no single point of failure design
is specified, however the customer only has a single ISL available between sites. Which SAN
configuration meets these requirements?
A.4-fabric
B.3-fabric
C.6-fabric
D.5-fabric
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which task included in HP Enhanced Implementation Service for SANs is performed by the project
manager.?
A.coordinates service deployment on third-party-maintained hardware and software
B.develops tests to validate the presence of the installed storage switches
C.develops the project plan, which defines the scope of the services to be delivered
D.conducts the customer orientation session
Answer: C

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NO.4 To ensure correct device discovery while implementing a simple SAN, what is the HP recommended
timing for powering up the online storage?
A.before the SAN Switches
B.before the tape library
C.after the router
D.after the servers
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which technologies or products are covered by the HP Enhanced Implementation Service for SANs?
(Select three.)
A.HP StorageWorks EVA 8400
B.fabric-based encryption
C.P4000 G2 scale-out cluster
D.HP StorageWorks ESL e-Series Library
E.HP BladeSystem FC or Serial Attached SCSI (SAS) switches
F.Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE)
Answer: BEF

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NO.6 What must you do to enable NPIV on QLogic HBAs on systems running VMware ESX 4.0?
A.Use the RBSU to enable NPIV on the HBA.
B.Replace the HBA with a Brocade HBA.
C.Update to VMware ESX 4.1.
D.No action is required because the supplied QLogic driver has NPIV enabled by default.
Answer: D

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NO.7 How do you verify a successfully completed firmware upgrade done through DCFM?
A.Right-click on the switch in the Connectivity Map and select Verify.
B.Check the heartbeat LED on the switch.
C.Select the verify action from the DCFM Firmware Management page.
D.Open Web Tools for the switch and review the event log.
Answer: D

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NO.8 What is a benefit of connecting servers to the SAN one HBA at a time?
A.guarantees the connections are properly documented
B.allows the switch time to balance the load
C.prevents having to reboot the server
D.verifies the HBA logs into the fabric properly
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which management tool ships at no additional charge with each B-Series SAN Switch?
A.Device Manager
B.HAFM
C.DCFM Professional
D.Enterprise Edition Fabric Manager
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which Microsoft command can be used to find an SMTP server IP address when configuring HP SAN
Visibility?
A.netstat
B.netsh
C.nslookup
D.mxquery
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP0-Y39
Exam Name: HP (Managing & Troubleshooting Enterprise Wireless Networks)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 84 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Click the Exhibit button and view both exhibits.
A university media course uses an auditorium that seats 400 students. Wireless access points (APs) are
installed to provide access to the school's video servers. Students running 802.11n clients are not seeing
optimal bandwidth connection data rates. Based on the exhibits, what is a solution to optimize 802.11n
data rates?
A. Disable High Throughput (HT mode) on all radios.
B. Disable RTS/CTS capability on non-802.11n client NICs.
C. Configure Band Steering mode on radio 1 on all APs and radio 2 on AP3 and AP5.
D. Configure Greenfield mode on radio1 on all APs and radio 2 on AP3 and AP5.
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is the risk of applying intrusion prevention to an access point (AP) listed as Indeterminate?
A. RF Manager cannot determine whether the AP follows your Authorized WLAN policy. You might
quarantine your own AP, which could frustrate users.
B. RF Manager has classified the AP as Indeterminate because you authorized it manually, but it does not
follow your Authorized WLAN policy.
Quarantining your own AP could frustrate users.
C. RF Manager has classified the AP as Indeterminate because its signal is so low. Sensors will make
themselves busy in quarantining an AP that is probably too far away to be a risk.
D. RF Manager cannot determine whether the AP is connected to your system. You might quarantine
another company's AP, which is illegal.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Click the Exhibit button and view both exhibits.
A university media course uses an auditorium that seats 400 students. Students are experiencing slow
network performance, and some clients are having difficulty connecting to the wireless network. The IT
staff installed wireless access points (APs) over a year ago. Previous classes, consisting of 200 students
had no problems. Based on the exhibits, what is a solution to optimize performance for all students?
A. Enable radio 1 on all APs.
B. Add service-template1 to all 2.4Ghz radios.
C. Remove service-template1 from all 5Ghz radios.
D. Set cipher-suite to ccmp for service-template1.
Answer: A

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NO.4 You set your country of operation and then apply the default Sensor Configuration Template settings to
all sensors in RF Manager. How do your sensors handle channels that cannot be used legally in your
country?
A. The sensors scan these channels and detect threats, but they do not take action against the threats.
B. The sensors scan these channels, detect threats, and take the action you have specified against any
detected threats.
C. The sensors scan these channels and prevent any authorized access points or clients from operating
on these channels.
D. The sensors do not scan these channels for threats.
Answer: A

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NO.5 What are the requirements for deploying a sensor that is discovered by RF Manager with zero
configuration? (Select two.)
A. The sensor must operate in network detector (ND) mode.
B. The sensor must be installed on the same VLAN as RF Manager.
C. The network must be set up to assign the sensor IP settings through DHCP.
D. The DNS server must map the WiFi-security-server to the RF Manager IP address.
E. RF Manager and the sensor must both be at their default IP settings.
Answer: C,D

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NO.6 RF Manager has determined that a Rogue access point (AP) must be quarantined. The only sensor
within range is listed as busy. What happens?
A. RF Manager reclassifies the new Rogue AP as banned so that it cannot connect on the wired side.
B. RF Manager specifies that a quarantine is pending for the new Rogue AP until the sensor is no longer
busy.
C. The sensor stops quarantining one of the currently quarantined devices and starts quarantining the
new Rogue AP.
D. The sensor splits its time between blocking the currently quarantined devices and the new Rogue AP.
Answer: B

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NO.7 By default, which roles do the RF Manager and its sensors perform in detecting Rogue access points
(APs)?
A. Sensors monitor wireless transmissions and RF Manager monitors wired transmissions. They combine
the data to find APs that use your SSIDs but are not on your network.
B. Sensors monitor wireless transmissions and RF Manager monitors wired transmissions. They combine
the data to find unauthorized APs on your network.
C. Sensors monitor wired and wireless transmissions so RF Manager can find unauthorized APs
connected to your wired network.
D. Sensors detect APs that use your SSIDs but are not on your Authorized AP list.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Click the Exhibit button and view both exhibits.
A university media course uses an auditorium that seats 400 students. Wireless access points (APs) are
installed to provide access to the school's video servers. Some students are experiencing frequent
interruptions to video playback while others have no issues. Based on the exhibits, what is a solution to
optimize performance for all students?
A. Set all radios to maximum power.
B. Set all APs to the same channel.
C. Enable load balancing of clients across APs.
D. Increase the beacon interval.
Answer: C

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NO.9 In sensor only (SO) mode, what does an HP sensor monitor?
A. It monitors only one untagged VLAN as well as wireless signals.
B. It monitors wireless signals, but does not monitor VLANs.
C. It monitors multiple VLANs as well as wireless signals.
D. It monitors multiple VLANs, but does not monitor wireless signals.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Click the Exhibit button.
A customer is experiencing network performance issues with their wireless network. The customer
decides to take corrective actions on their wireless active controller. Based on the exhibit, what will
happen on the wireless network if the customer sent a 1200 byte packet from a wireless client associated
to essid HP_Openaccess? (Select two.)
A. The wireless packet will be fragmented.
B. The wireless packet will trigger RTS/CTS frames to be sent.
C. The wireless packet will not be fragmented.
D. The wireless packet will not trigger RTS/CTS frames to be sent.
E. The access point will send more Beacon frames than if the default configuration had been left
unchanged.
Answer: A,B

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NO.11 What is a potential risk of enabling the RSSI-based classification feature in an Authorized WLAN
policy?
A. RF Manager must rely exclusively on RSSI to detect the locations of harmful devices, instead of
drawing on the findings of network detectors. This might make the prediction less accurate.
B. Sensors might decide that they should not take action against a potentially harmful device because its
RSSI is low and the device might still be a risk.
C. RF Manager might classify your own access points (APs) as Rogue APs because their transmit power
is too high and take action against them.
D. RF Manager might classify legitimate access points (APs) owned by nearby companies as Rogue APs
and take action against them.
Answer: D

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NO.12 Click the Exhibit button and view both exhibits.
A university media course uses an auditorium that seats 400 students. Wireless access points (APs) are
installed to provide access to the school's video servers. All clients show maximum signal strength, but
some students are experiencing frequent interruptions of video playback. Based on the exhibits, what is a
solution to optimize network throughput for all students.?
A. setting maximum power on radio 1 on all APs
B. setting mandatory data rates for 802.11a to 12
C. changing the channel on radio 2 of AP5 to channel 6
D. lowering the RTS threshold on all radios
Answer: C

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NO.13 A customer reports the performance of their HP A-WA2620E access point (AP) is inadequate. While
investigating the report, you determine that the AP is functioning in MIMO 3x2 mode instead of MIMO 3x3
as desired. What is one possible cause of this problem?
A. The AP is powered using 802.3af PoE.
B. The AP is configured to use a 40Mhz channel bandwidth.
C. The AP is not implementing the local switching feature.
D. The AP is powered using 802.3at PoE.
Answer: A

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NO.14 Click the Exhibit button and view the three exhibits.
RF Manager and its sensors have detected an association between an Uncategorized Client and an
access point (AP) that uses these settings:
SSID = Company C
Security = WPA2 with CCMP and 802.1X
The AP is detected while passing the client traffic on VLAN 20 (10.1.20.0/24). WiFi is permitted at this
location. The exhibits show the Authorized SSID Template, other Authorized WLAN Policy settings, and
the Intrusion Prevention Policy for the location.
What does RF Manager have its sensors do?
A. quarantine the AP only
B. quarantine the client only
C. take no action against either device
D. quarantine both the AP and the client
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which action does RF Manager take to quarantine a client?
A. It instructs the client's access point to place the client's traffic in a quarantine VLAN.
B. It instructs a sensor to send a forced disassociation message to the client's access point (AP) so that
the AP forces the client to disconnect.
C. It instructs a sensor to send frames to interfere with the frames sent by the quarantined client.
D. It adds the client's MAC address to the access point's MAC lockout list, thereby blocking the client's
traffic.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP2-Z18
Exam Name: HP (Network Infrastructure AIS 2011)
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Total Q&A: 96 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which security technology requires that you set read/write community names?
A. SFTP
B. SSH
C. SNMP
D. HTTPS
E. SMTP
Answer: C

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NO.2 A customer requires that each management user of HP switches has a unique user name and
password. How can you fulfill this requirement on HP E-Series switches?
A. Add each switch to the customer's Active Directory domain.
B. Use an external RADIUS server for authentication.
C. Enable 802.1X port authentication on each managed switch.
D. Install a Premium License on each managed switch.
Answer: B

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NO.3 You have configured a dynamic LACP four-port trunk connecting two HP E-Series switches. How will
the switches share the load over the trunk?
A. The switch that receives the first packet in each conversation will balance the load by ensuring reply
packets use a different link.
B. Each switch will assign conversations to links independent of the other switch's selection.
C. The switches will exchange LACP BPDUs to negotiate a load-sharing algorithm.
D. The switches will dynamically calculate the path of least congestion for each conversation.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Refer to the exhibit below.
You enter the following command at the switch ¯ s C L I
E5406(vlan-100)# no untag a24
Why does this command fail?
A. Port A24 is not a member of VLAN 100.
B. Port A24 must be a member of at least one VLAN.
C. VLAN 100 must have at least one port member.
D. no untag a24 is an invalid CLI command.
Answer: B

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NO.5 You must update the software on an HP E3500 yl switch. Which devices can be sources for the copy
command? (Select two.)
A. USB flash drive
B. management workstation hard drive
C. TFTP server
D. FTP server
E. Compact Flash card
Answer: A, C

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NO.6 You make configuration changes to the running configuration of your HP E3500 yl switch. Which
command saves these changes to your startup configuration?
A. save running-config
B. copy running-config startup-config
C. write memory
D. write config
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which remote management interface on an E-Series switch can be secured by enabling Secure
Sockets Layer (SSL)?
A. console
B. menu
C. web management
D. Telnet
Answer: C

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NO.8 You must determine whether routing has been enabled on an HP E 5406 zl switch. Which commands
provide this information? (Select two.)
A. show interfaces
B. show running-config
C. show vlans
D. show ip route
E. show ip
Answer: B, D

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NO.9 You are at the manager level prompt in the CLI of an HP E3500 yl switch. Which options are available at
this prompt? (Select two.)
A. assign IP address to VLAN interface
B. enable IP routing
C. restart the switch
D. disable ports
E. update software
Answer: C, E

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NO.10 You must determine whether routing has been enabled on an HP E 5406 zl switch. Which commands
provide this information? (Select two.)
A. show interfaces
B. show running-config
C. show vlans
D. show ip route
E. show ip
Answer: B, E

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NO.11 Port B1 on an HP ProCurve 5406zl switch is an untagged member of VLAN 155 and not a tagged
member of any VLAN. Port C1 is a tagged member of VLAN 155 and an untagged member of VLAN 100.
You issue the following command:
5406.l(config)# no vlan 155
Why do you receive the following prompt?
The following ports will be moved to the default VLAN:
B1
Do you want to continue? [y/n]:
A. The CLI always issues this prompt when deleting a VLAN.
B. The CLI will not allow you to orphan a port.
C. The CLI will not delete a VLAN with any port membership.
D. All ports must be moved to the default VLAN before you can delete the VLAN.
Answer: B

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NO.12 When Spanning Tree Protocol is enabled, which devices receive outbound LLDP advertisements from
an HP E-Series switch?
A. those with interfaces in VLAN 1
B. those that receive the switch's broadcasts
C. those that are directly connected to the switch
D. those in the LLDP multicast group
E. those not blocked by Spanning Tree Protocol
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which command entered at the CLI of an HP E3500 yl switch displays dynamic information about traffic
transmitted and received on each port?
A. E3500 yl# show interface traffic
B. E3500 yl# show interface all
C. E3500 yl# show interface display
D. E3500 yl# show interface dynamic
Answer: C

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NO.14 You must enable Secure HTTP (HTTPS) to encrypt web-based management traffic on an HP E-Series
switch. The switch is at default settings. What must be installed or enabled to apply this solution?
A. web server
B. encryption accelerator
C. digital certificate
D. internal RADIUS server
Answer: A

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NO.15 Ports 1-4 on an HP E3500 yl switch are tagged members of VLAN 44 and untagged members of VLAN
45. What is the effect of the following command?
E3500(config)# trunk 1-4 trk3 lacp
A. trk3 becomes a tagged member of VLAN 44 and an untagged member of VLAN 45.
B. trk3 will have no VLAN memberships until they are configured by an administrator.
C. trk3 becomes an untagged member of VLAN 1 and has no other VLAN memberships.
D. trk3 becomes an untagged member of VLAN 1 and a tagged member of VLAN 44.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP2-Z14
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP S-Series Networking Solutions)
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Total Q&A: 61 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which key security challenges are impacting network security today?
A. consumerization, compliance, convergence, consolidation
B. collaboration, compliance, consumerization, convergence
C. compliance, convergence, consumerization, customization
D. collaboration, customization, consumerization, convergence
Answer: A

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NO.2 Item 1 of 50 Mark item for review Your customer has come to you with a large, complex data center that
requires enhanced security. When deciding which HP networking solution to pitch to the customer, which
data-center specific security needs would be appropriate to consider in your decision?
A. scalable, security requirements
B. extensive deployment time
C. de-centralized security policy management requirements
D. limited virtualization
Answer: A

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NO.3 How do HP Networking security solutions reduce the costs of deploying and managing security systems
in the network? (Select three.)
A. Automated real-time threat mitigation lowers per-incident costs.
B. Higher throughput of data increases reduced time to deployment.
C. Centralized policy management reduces complexity, learning curve, and deployment time.
D. Network-integrated solutions reduce deployment and management costs.
E. Core-to-edge deployment eliminates the need for administrator intervention.
F. Flexibility in deployment options reduces network downtime.
Answer: E,A,C

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NO.4 On your initial sales call with a small startup company, you want to focus on presenting the three
primary benefits of incorporating HP security solutions into their network. You begin your presentation by
discussing how HP solutions reduce risk and reduce costs. What is the third primary benefit?
A. centralized policy management
B. business enablement
C. increased security policies
D. integrated business processes
Answer: B

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NO.5 HP's approach to security and policy enforcement includes the following goals: define once, enforce
everywhere, and provide what kind of responses in real time?
A. automated
B. scalable
C. immediate
D. updated
Answer: A

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NO.6 You have been discussing IPS options with a potential customer. The customer is being hesitant to
deploy an IPS in-line because they are worried that the IPS will block legitimate business traffic that might
occasionally be mislabeled as a threat. What information should be included in your response to the
customer? (Select two.)
A. The only way to catch threats in real-time and block them from your network is by deploying the IPS
appliance in-line.
B. The number of false positives that are blocked are minimal and have no effect on system throughput.
C. TippingPoint is deployed in-line at a far higher rate than the competition, signifying that customers
have trust in the accuracy of our filters, allowing us to provide better automated remediation, and more
effective security with less effort from administrators.
D. A TippingPoint IPS will only block traffic that is designated as risky based on the information provided
by the Digital Vaccine services, and having the IPS in-line will not change this.
E. Our filters are designed to be deployed in-line, and our customers trust our filters.
Answer: A , C

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NO.7 Which statement is true about the HP holistic approach to network security?
A. Different security products working at different locations must work independently to implement the
organizations' desired policies.
B. Similar security solutions have to be deployed at different locations to work well and enforce policies
appropriately.
C. The objective is to define and manage one security policy and coordinate all of your different security
devices across the entire network in a seamless, coordinated fashion.
D. A complete security solution should focus on centralized monitoring and management policies.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which security risks are minimized by utilizing HP Networking security products? (Select three.)
A. security breaches
B. recovery costs
C. system stability
D. system downtime
E. number of attempted attacks
F. data loss
Answer: A,D,F

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NO.9 How does HP ensure that TippingPoint IPS devices achieve high in-line performance? (Select two.)
A. by performing a number of analysis filters in parallel, so we can look for many signatures or problems in
parallel
B. by including granular application access control
C. by deploying multiple IPS appliances with narrow coverage each, thereby increasing throughput
D. by deploying several appliances in parallel and load balancing traffic across them with the core
controller product
Answer: D,A

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NO.10 How do HP Networking solutions enable businesses? (Select three.)
A. They can safely open networks to customers and business partners.
B. They isolate business processes.
C. They create new security positions.
D. They provide auditable results.
E. They provide rapid deployment of security services and policies.
F. They eliminate the need for additional security policies.
Answer: A,D,E

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Exam Code: HP0-M34
Exam Name: HP (HP Server Automation 9.x. Software)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 68 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which type of architecture does the term Multimaster Mesh describe?
A. the core component bundles distributed on multiple servers
B. multiple, coordinated Server Automation cores distributed across the network
C. multiple satellite servers configured to fail over to a single core
D. a core server running on multiple cluster nodes distributed across the network
Answer: B

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NO.2 The agent communications test can only be run from which HP Server Automation component?
A. SA Client
B. SA Web Client
C. Global Shell
D. Core CLI
Answer: B

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NO.3 How do the core and the agent communicate?
A. SA bus
B. Global Shell
C. SSL tunnel
D. SSH tunnel
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which Application Deployment Manager application components require explicit rollback and undeploy
instructions for removal?
A. code components
B. application configurations
C. packages from the Server Automation library
D. Operations Orchestration flows
Answer: D

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
Which user interface is shown in the exhibit?
A. HP Server Automation Web Client
B. HP Server Automation Global Shell Client
C. HP Server Automation Infrastructure Client
D. HP Server Automation Client
Answer: D

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Exam Name: HP (Migrating &Troubleshooting Enterprise Networks)
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NO.1 Click the Exhibit button.
You are replacing a Cisco BGP router with an HP A-Series BGP router. Examine the router's
configurations. Which statements accurately describe the routers' configurations? (Select three.)
A. Both configurations are identical in function.
B. The HP A-Series router will not implement the same BGP functions as the Cisco router.
C. Both BGP routers announce a static route to its BGP neighbor.
D. Both BGP routers announce network 215.34.10.0/22.
E. Neither BGP routers can announce a redistributed static route because no metrics are set.
F. The A-Series router's prefix list is misconfigured.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.2 Which statements are true about DHCP Snooping? (Select two.)
A. DHCP Snooping is a Cisco Proprietary protocol. The standard is not yet ratified.
B. DHCP Snooping prevents end nodes from receiving IP address assignments from an unauthorized
DHCP server.
C. DHCP Snooping is a malicious attack against the DHCP servers.
D. The DHCP Snooping binding table contains information about hosts interconnected with a trusted
interface.
E. DHCP Snooping is when a switch acts as a DHCP server for end nodes that connect to that particular
switch. This way, end nodes always get an IP address.
F. When configuring DHCP Snooping on a switch, you define which ports are trusted to receive DHCP
offers. Typically uplinks of a switch are trusted and Edge ports are untrusted.
Answer: B,F

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NO.3 Click the Exhibit button.
A provider of MPLS services configures MPLS Layer-3 VPN services for two customers. Each customer
has three branch offices that will be interconnected by MPLS Layer-3 VPNs. The following are address
blocks chosen by the customers for each site as shown in the chart:
The provider uses OSPF as its IGP with the Loopback 0 addresses shown as the OSPF router-id and the
MPLS LSR-ID. Customer A uses a default route on each site. Customer B uses eBGP to exchange routes
with the provider. All MPLS layer-3 VPNs are functioning properly. Which configuration change will cause
Customer-A Site 1 to lose access to Customer-A Site 2?
A. [PE-1]
bgp 1
undo import-route static
B. [P-10]
ospf 1
area 0
abr-summary 16.0.0.2 30 cost 1000
C. [PE-1]
int vlan 100
undo mpls ldp
D. [PE-3]
bgp 1
undo peer 16.0.0.1 reflect-client
E. [P-10]
ip route static 10.1.0.0 16 null 0 preference 9
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is a characteristic of load balancing in RRPP?
A. multiple RRPP rings within a domain
B. overlapping RRPP rings
C. multiple RRPP domains with different root priorities
D. It is not possible to load balance with RRPP.
E. multiple RRPP domains sharing the same ring
Answer: E

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NO.5 You want to add HP edge switches to a company's Cisco network. Distribution Cisco switches are set as
the Rapid PVST+ root and secondary root. You connect HP A-Series switches that are running their
factory default configuration to the two Cisco distribution switches. What will happen.?
A. If you connect the edge switch with a redundant link to both distribution switches, you create a loop and
a broadcast storm on the Cisco network.
B. Cisco distribution switches send tagged PVST+ BPDUs to the HP switch. Because 802.1q is not yet
configured on HP switch uplinks, the PVST+ BPDUs are dropped. A loop occurs.
C. Cisco distribution switches send untagged standard BPDUs to the HP switch in VLAN 1, and in
response the HP switch blocks one of the uplinks on all VLANs, preventing a loop.
D. Cisco distribution switches send untagged standard BPDUs to HP switch in VLAN 1, which the HP
switch forwards to the other distribution switch, preventing a loop. The HP switch drops all tagged data
frames.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which statement is true about BGP Route Refresh? (Select two.)
A. Route Refresh is a feature for supported CPU functions with BGP routers that manage high number of
IP Prefixes.
B. Route Refresh is advertised as a BGP capability to BGP neighbors during BGP session
establishment.
C. BGP Route Refresh eliminates the need for a Hard Reset of the BGP connection with a BGP neighbor
when route policies are changed.
D. With Route Refresh, a BGP router stores all BGP prefixes sent by a BGP neighbor.
E. With Route Refresh, a BGP Hard Reset is used to generate inbound updates from a neighbor or to
generate outbound updates to a neighbor.
Answer: B,C

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NO.7 A provider of MPLS services configures MPLS Layer-3 VPN services for three customers. Each
customer has three branch offices that will be interconnected by MPLS Layer-3 VPNs. One customer is
advertising their IP prefixes between sites using BGP. This customer establishes a backup link directly
connecting Site-1 to Site-2. Which BGP attribute can the provider use to prevent routing update loops in
the MPLS network?
A. COO
B. FOO
C. KOO
D. SOO
E. VOO
Answer: D

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NO.8 Click the Exhibit button and view the three exhibits.
When interface Serial 4 of Router 2 fails, traffic from Router 1 destined for network 156.152.0.0/16 leaves
AS 65001 via the Serial 3 interface of Router 1. The administrator prefers that this traffic leaves AS 65001
through interface Serial 5 of Router 2. Which configuration change will achieve the desired results?
A. Router-2#
bgp 100
peer 16.0.0.1 next-hop-local
B. Router-2#
route-policy Policy permit node 10
apply local-preference 500
bgp 100
peer 156.152.5.1 route-policy Policy
C. Router-2#
route-policy Policy permit node 10
apply preferred-value 500
bgp 100
peer 156.152.5.1 route-policy Policy
D. Router-1#
route-policy Policy permit node 10
apply preferred-value 500
bgp 100
peer 16.0.0.2 route-policy Policy
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which statements about BPDU Guard are correct? (Select three.)
A. It is a Cisco proprietary protocol that prevents other switches from sending BDPUs.
B. BPDU Guard filters the standard BDPUs received on the port.
C. BPDU Guard filters the PVST BDPUs received on the port.
D. BPDU Guard generates an alarm when a BPDU is received on the port and may block the port.
E. BPDU Guard is an open standard.
F. BPDU Guard is not a protocol. It must be applied locally and individually on switches.
Answer: B,D,F

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NO.10 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button. In a multihome AS, you are replacing one of the BGP-configured Cisco routers with
a BGP-configured HP A-Series router. You want to reduce the downtime during the migration process.
Place the steps for the migration in the correct order.
Answer:

NO.11 A company's LAN is composed of Cisco switches only. The network runs Rapid PVST+ with the short
pathcost method. Cisco distribution switches are set as root and secondary root in all VLANs. These two
switches connect over an Etherchannel. The company wants to install HP PoE switches at the edge of its
LAN. The customer wants to keep the load-balancing of traffic that is set in PVST+. What are the possible
options? (Select three.)
A. ensure Spanning Tree is disabled on the HP edge switch, and configure loop-protection on edge ports
to avoid local loops
B. if the HP edge switch is an A-Series switch, configure Smart Link with load balancing between
instances
C. if the HP edge switch is an A-Series switch, configure Rapid PVST+ on it
D. configure MSTP on the HP edge switch, but set the cost of its uplink higher than that on the channel
between the distribution switches
E. configure MSTP on the HP edge switch and divide the VLANs into different instances
F. configure MSTP on the HP edge switch and set its uplink port cost to 5
G. configure MSTP on the HP edge switch, but set the cost of its uplink lower than that on the channel
between the distribution switches
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.12 Which protocols are supported on the HP A-Series switch? (Select three.)
A. SSH v1 only
B. SSH v1 and v2
C. RADIUS only
D. TACACS+ and RADIUS
E. TACACS and RADIUS
F. SNMPv2c only
G. SNMPv2c and SNMPv3
Answer: B,D,G

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NO.13 You want to enable RRPP on interface Gigabit Ethernet 1/0/4 of an HP A-Series switch. Which
commands should be configured on this interface? (Select two.)
A. stp disable
B. rrrp ring 1 enable
C. port link-type trunk
D. port link-type rrpp
E. stp enable
Answer: A,C

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NO.14 Click the Exhibit button.
Which statements are true about the BGP configuration of this HP A-Series router? (Select two.)
A. The router announces IP prefix 200.1.0.0/23 to its BGP neighbor if the network is in routing table.
B. The as-path ACL define networks that were last forwarded by AS 200.
C. The configuration includes a filter out to the neighbor 222.222.10.1.
D. The BGP router is in AS 200 and its BGP neighbor is in AS 100.
E. The BGP router will establish a BFD connection with its BGP neighbor 222.222.10.1 if the neighbor is
also configured for BFD
Answer: A,E

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NO.15 Click the Exhibit button.
A provider of MPLS services configures MPLS Layer-3 VPN services for two customers. Each customer
has three branch offices that will be interconnected by MPLS Layer-3 VPNs. The address blocks chosen
by the customers for each site are shown in the following chart:
The provider uses OSPF as its IGP with the Loopback 0 addresses shown as the OSPF router-id and the
MPLS LSR-ID. A traceroute from Cust-A Site #1 to Cust-A Site #2 displays 5 intermediate routers.
Which statements are true? (Select three.)
A. MPLS label TTL expires on P-10.
B. TTL propagation is enabled on PE-1.
C. All but the first trace is processed by PE-2.
D. IP TTL expires on P-20.
E. PE-1 generates ICMP echo replies on behalf of P-10 and P-20.
F. TTL propagation is disabled on PE-1.
Answer: A,B,C

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Exam Code: HP2-B61
Exam Name: HP (HP Imaging and Printing Management and Security Solutions-Technical)
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Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 What are components in the HP Imaging and Printing Security framework? (Select four.)
A. Secure your data.
B. Secure your printing devices.
C. Protect your printed documents.
D. Improve workflow through authenticating network devices.
E. Reduce network traffic.
F. Monitor and manage your printing fleet.
G. Enable print job tracking and accounting.
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.2 Why are job accounting audit trails useful for imaging and printing devices?
A. They restrict the use of color printing as needed.
B. They demonstrate that printers are being used.
C. They demonstrate that regulatory compliance is taking place.
D. They are used in accountant offices during tax season.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which competitive advantages does HP offer for security when combined with printing and imaging
devices? (Select three.)
A. HP approaches security holistically.
B. HP partners with hacker organizations.
C. HP is the undeniable expert in securing and backing up networked data.
D. HP Web Jetadmin is the industry leading utility for managing imaging and printing devices.
E. HP is the undisputed leader in imaging and printing.
F. HP encrypts all printer data before sending it across a network.
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.4 Why must the imaging and printing environment be secure.?
A. Most imaging and printing devices are no longer simple network appliances.
B. Most imaging and printing devices are network appliances and need protection from physical theft.
C. NIST (National Institute of Standards and Technologies) requires it.
D. IEEp2600 standards require it.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Why is job accounting information gathered and utilized for billing and pay-for-use?
(Select three.)
A. to aid in installing, configuring and managing printer fleets remotely
B. to demonstrate that a company is making efforts to protect information
C. to gather data so it can be encrypted for security reasons
D. to track network usage and make network telephony changes
E. to show proof of compliance to regulators
F. to detect abuse of information sharing and digital communication outside the company
G. to create an electronic workflow for archiving hard copies
Answer: C,D,F

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Exam Code: HP2-E41
Exam Name: HP (HP Visual Collaboration-System Administrator)
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Total Q&A: 44 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 What is the recommended volume setting to start with for most speaker phone systems for an HPVC
Room?
A. set microphone 60% and speaker at 60%
B. set microphone 70% and speaker at 70%
C. set microphone 60% and speaker at 70%
D. set microphone 70% and speaker at 60%
E. set microphone and speaker at user preferred settings
Answer: C

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NO.2 The Visual Collaboration architecture revolves around which required components? (Select two.)
A. HPVC Portal
B. HPVC Router
C. HPVC Desktop
D. HPVC Gateway
Answer: C,D

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NO.3 Which type of rooms are public meeting rooms?
A. rooms that do not have an owner
B. rooms any user can use to hold a meeting
C. rooms that do not permit sharing
D. rooms that cannot be deleted or disabled
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which statements are true about Groups.? (Select two.)
A. You can assign users to Groups to manage permissions for large system deployments.
B. A user can only be a part of one Group.
C. Normal users are able to create their own Groups.
D. Groups set common permissions for users.
Answer: B,C

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NO.5 How do you remedy the alarm indicating "High CPU utilization limits quality of conference"?
A. Quit all other running SW applications. If using USB camera, microphone and speaker, make sure
camera is plugged directly to a computer USB port.
B. Quit unused open SW applications. If using a USB camera, microphone and speaker, make sure
camera is plugged into a dock station or USB extension hub.
C. Verify power management settings ensuring it is in power save mode.
D. Run PC system default Disk Defragmentation and Clean-up.
Answer: B

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