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Exam Code: P2170-016
Exam Name: IBM (IBM IOC Intelligent Transportation Technical Mastery Test v1 )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 30 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which of the following is one of the key points in the use of the Intelligent Solution?
A.Transforms multi-source traffic data into a standard traffic information model from which
scalable
applications can be created.
B.Discovery of multi-source traffic data
C.Traffic data capturing devices control
D.Focus on the underlying IBM software products contained within the Intelligent
Transportation and their
individual features.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which IOC-IIT v1.0 Middleware Products is used as security reverse proxy?
A.Tivoli Netcool Impact
B.Tivoli Access Manager
C.IBM HHTP Server
D.None of the above
Answer: D

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NO.3 Where do you obtain Customize IT overview?
A.From a URL registration authority
B.From the browser entry field after report testing
C.From the IT administration page
D.There is no URL for a newly created report, you must copy XML definitions into the portlet
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following is part of the use cases supported by Intelligent Transportation?
A.Installations of the Intelligent Operations Center.
B.Manage Events/Incidents .
C.Sharing data between Intelligent Water.
D.Analyze emergency traffic accident response time.
Answer: B

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NO.5 What kind of portlet should you create to hold the Traffic custom reports?
A.A dynamic content portlet
B.A Cognos portlet
C.An integration portlet
D.An iFrame portlet
Answer: B

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Exam Code: C2070-586
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Certified Solution Designer - Case Manager v5.1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 132 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Within the scope of ICM databases created, which statement is true.?
A. The Process Engine database can only run on DB2.
B. The Business Space database can only run on DB2.
C. The Case Analyzer database can co-exist with the CE database.
D. The Process Engine database can co-exist with the CE database.
Answer: D

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NO.2 A customer is looking for assistance in determining a backup strategy. Which
statement is true
regarding backup of the ICM solution?
A. A Hot Backup can be performed if the operating system is AIX.
B. A Hot Backup cannot be performed because Business Space prevents it.
C. A Hot Backup cannot be performed because of the difficulties of ensuring in-flight
transactions.
D. A Hot Backup can be performed because ICM provides additional features to permit this
process.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which program is prohibited to be used with IBM Case Manager as per the licensing
terms?
A. Lotus Widget Factory (of IBM Mashup Center)
B. Case Manager crawler (of IBM Content Analytics)
C. Web chat client (of IBM Lotus Sametime Proxy Server)
D. Rule Execution Server (of IBM WebSphere ILOG JRules)
Answer: A

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NO.4 There are two recommended methods used to copy a solution : Case Manager Builder
and what other
tool?
A. IBM Content Engine API
B. IBM FileNet Workplace XT
C. IBM FileNet Enterprise Manager
D. IBM Case Manager Administration Client
Answer: D

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NO.5 A user in the customer_interactions project area has created two solutions, Sol1 and
Sol2. The user is
transferred to the credit_card_investigations project area. What happens to Sol1 and Sol2?
A. Sol1 and Sol2 are deleted.
B. Sol1 and Sol2 remain in customer_interactions project area.
C. Sol1 and Sol2 are moved to orphaned_solutions project area.
D. Sol1 and Sol2 are moved to credit_card_investigations project area.
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is a reason to use iLog within the context of an ICM Solution?
A. To intelligently assign case workers to tasks.
B. To obtain additional Case Data from an external system.
C. To update a case property field after a step is completed.
D. To obtain a priority from a database call via a stored procedures.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which two components are optional add-on licenses with the IBM Case Manager core
product offering?
(Choose two.)
A. IBM Forms
B. IBM Case Analyzer
C. IBM FileNet eForms
D. Content Search Services
E. WebSphere Process Server
Answer: A,E

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NO.8 When creating a new solution from a template, how long should the new solution
name be?
A. Any length
B. Less than 58 characters
C. Less than 999 characters
D. Greater than 8 characters
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which tool is used to register External Data Services (EDS) with IBM Case Manager?
A. Workplace XT
B. Filenet Enterprise Manager
C. Filenet Deployment Manager
D. IBM Case Manager Administration Client
Answer: D

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NO.10 Business Analyst John Smith has a user ID and valid password configured with IBM
Case Manager
but has not been assigned to a project area. Which statement is true?
A. John Smith cannot login to Case Manager Builder.
B. John Smith can only work in the default project area.
C. John Smith can login to Case Manager Builder, but cannot create a solution.
D. John Smith can login to Case Manager Builder, but cannot deploy a solution.
Answer: C

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NO.11 What tool is used to import a solution package?
A. IBM Case Manager Builder
B. IBM FileNet Process Designer
C. IBM FileNet Enterprise Manager
D. IBM Case Manager Administration Client
Answer: D

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NO.12 What is one reason to use IBM Forms over FileNet eForms within the context of an
ICM Solution?
A. IBM Forms is more tightly integrated with ICM.
B. The ability to use JavaScript to enhance the form.
C. The ability to use multiple Digital Signature methods.
D. The ability to use EDS (Extended Data Services) within ICM.
Answer: C

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NO.13 There are three levels of security when configuring a business space page. There are
View and Edit
access rights. What is the third security level that gives users "special permissions" for things
like
assigning access rights to groups of users.
A. Owner
B. Specialist
C. Super User
D. Administrator
Answer: A

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NO.14 What utility is used to create the run time solution in a development environment?
A. Case Manager Builder
B. FileNet Enterprise Manager
C. FileNet Deployment Manager
D. Case Manager Administrator Client
Answer: A

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NO.15 For IBM Case Manager, where should the database for the content engine target object
store and the
process engine on DB2 be located?
A. On separate databases on the same server
B. On separate databases on different servers
C. On the same database on a server with different userids
D. On the same database on a server with same userid and password
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which two items are always part of a case management solution? (Choose two.)
A. Analytics
B. Content objects
C. Database lookups
D. Process fragments
E. System integrations
Answer: B,D

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NO.17 Which must be installed and configured with IBM Case Manager to enable IBM
Sametime?
A. Only IBM Sametime client and Lotus Domino server
B. Only IBM Sametime proxy server and Lotus Domino server
C. Only Lotus Domino server, IBM Sametime client, and IBM Sametime proxy server
D. Only Lotus Domino server, IBM Sametime community server, and IBM Sametime proxy
server
Answer: D

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NO.18 Where can you find the following collection of data for each solution: solution status,
description,
Process Engine connection definition, and Case Manager Client URL?
A. In the IBM Case Manger Builder.
B. In the Business Space configuration setting.
C. In the IBM Case Manager Solution List page.
D. In the IBM Case Manager Administration Client.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Typically, in a production environment, you do not give users permission to create and
manage spaces
and catalog entries in Business Space. What function is used to hide these features of the
client user
interface?
A. Set the Business Space configuration setting com.ibm.mashups.lockeddown to true.
B. Set the Business Space configuration setting com.ibm.mashups.manageSpaces to false.
C. Use FileNet Enterprise Manager to set LDAP security on the all users who should not
have access.
D. Use the IBM Case Manager Administration Client to configure the security settings for
Production
groups and users.
Answer: A

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NO.20 A case worker would like to send an instant announcement to other case workers in
the IBM Case
Manager environment. How can this be done?
A. By adding a comment to the case.
B. By using the external email system.
C. By using the IBM Sametime integrated feature.
D. By creating a case with the announcement as a property.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: C2180-186
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Business Process Manager Express or Standard Edition V7.5.1 BPM Application Development)
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Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 A BPM application developer needs to determine the Business Object Model (BOM) definition from the
following user story: The user needs the possibility to enter an order with multiple items. The total order
amount should be reachable from the performance database.
Which BOM definition should the developer create?
A. Exhibit A
B. Exhibit B
C. Exhibit C
D. Exhibit D
Answer: A

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NO.2 In the playback session, the process stakeholder notices that vital business data in the process is being
handled correctly for each task. However, there is a concern that the data is not typically accessed
immediately by the process participants. While the custom routing satisfies the requirement to get the task
to the right people and an escalation path helps to mitigate meeting critical SLAs, the stakeholder asks if
more can be implemented in the model to ensure quick access and completion of tasks.
How should the BPM application developer implement the flow data requirement?
A. Create a tw.local variable as a pre assignment to notify the participant end user when an activity will be
ready to be completed.
B. Create a tw.local variable type as a post assignment to notify the participant end user when an activity
is active and ready to be completed.
C. Add a pre assignment to the activity and choose the custom variable to notify the participant end user
when an activity is ready to be completed.
D. Add a post assignment to the activity and choose the custom variable to notify the participant end user
when an activity is active and ready to be completed.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Business executives of a shipping and logistic company who are not involved in the process want the
instant visibility of their business data at task level for high dollar value transactions or high value
customer transactions.
How should the BPM application developer design the system to provide the business visibility?
A. Use tracking groups
B. Use System of Record (SOR)
C. Enable Auto-Tracking
D. Track required variables individually
Answer: B

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NO.4 An order management system BPM analyst needs to know the timing interval and average activity
duration of all the tasks of the order fulfillment to identify the bottlenecks.
How should a BPM application developer quickly provide such visibility to the analyst?
A. SLA Overview scoreboard
B. Process Performance scoreboard
C. My Team Performance scoreboard
D. Custom scoreboard using tracking group
Answer: B

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NO.5 The process owner outlines the business data needed for an applicant's "submit permit application" task
in the Arena Event Permit process. Much of the data is used in other tasks within the process, so a
requirement is to carry the business data from one activity to the next until the process is completed to the
permit resolution.
How should the BPM application developer implement the process data for this requirement? Create a
complex structure type with the following data objects:
A. applicant's name, applicant's contact information, and permit number.
B. applicant's name, applicant's contact information, and date of the event.
C. applicant's name, applicant's contact information, permit number, and date of the event.
D. applicant's name, applicant's contact information, approver's signature, approve/disapprove permit,
assigned permit number, and date of the event.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: A2180-189
Exam Name: IBM (Assessment: Blueworks Live; BPM Exp/Std Ed V7.5.1, BPM Analysis)
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Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 A BPM analyst is designing a process in the Process Diagram View, and realizes the process
must account for a technical exception following an activity. What symbol in the BlueWorks Live
needs to be used for this technical exception?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: B

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NO.2 A BPM analyst needs to make a change to the connections in the following process diagram.
The order of activities needs to be changed so that "Grind Beans" is followed by "Brew Coffee".
"Heat Milk" will come last after "Brew Coffee".
How should the BPM analyst make this change to the connection?
A. Click on the "Brew Coffee" activity and drag it onto the connection between "Grind Beans" and
"Heat Milk"
B. Click on the "Grind Beans" activity and drag it onto the connection between "Heat Milk" and
"Brew Coffee"
C. Click on the connection between "Heat Milk" and "Brew Coffee" and drag the connection arrow
to "Grind Beans"
D. Click on the connection between "Grind Beans" and "Heat Milk" and drag the connection arrow
to "Brew Coffee".
Answer: A

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NO.3 During the Process Discovery phase, the BPM analyst needs to identify who must fully
participate in the Process Improvement and Discovery Workshops (PIDW). Of the many roles in a
BPM project, which roles must fully participate?
A. Process Owner, Subject Matter Expert
B. Technical Consultant, Process Owner, BPM Developer
C. Technical Consultant, Process Owner, Project Manager
D. Project Manager, Process Owner, Subject Matter Expert
Answer: A

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NO.4 A BPM analyst has modeled the following process. However, after the "Extract Data" and
"Send data use case template to client", the client has stated that "Complete data scenarios" should
be done.
How should the BPM analyst adjust the process?
A. Join A and B
B. Insert join before A, and move B after A
C. Insert Join before B, and move A after B
D. Move B before A, and insert a join after A
Answer: B

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NO.5 A BPM analyst is creating a process model for requesting a renovation permit. The BPM
analyst is using the following description of the first activity:
"One of our municipal office clerks receives a paper permit application from the local resident, an
applicant. The clerk first looks up the resident's name and address in our system, then enters the
information from the paper application into the system, and assigns a temporary permit number to
the application. When the application entry is complete, the clerk sends it to a manager to assign it
to an adjudicator."
Which name should the BPM analyst use for the first task that accurately describes the activity and
follows recommended naming conventions?
A. Application Entry
B. Create Application
C. Clerk Receive and Enter Application
D. Lookup name, create application, assign number, and send it to the manager
Answer: B

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NO.6 A company needs to improve their hiring process and hired a BPM analyst to map the current
state. What is the first thing the BPM analyst should do while constructing a discovery map? Identify
the:
A. Value-Add activities.
B. sub processes within the hiring process.
C. start and end points of the hiring process.
D. activity where the maximum problems lie.
Answer: C

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state. During the process discovery session, the team identifies that the process steps to review the
"hiring" request is the same as the process steps to review a "promotion/pay rise" request. What
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Blueworks Live?
A. a sub-process
B. a different color
C. a linked process
D. a separate milestone
Answer: C

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NO.8 A company needs to improve their hiring process and hired a BPM analyst to map the current
state. During the discovery session, the business subject matter experts (SMEs) indicate to the BPM
analyst that the hiring request is reviewed by both the human resource admin and the human
resource manager. How should the BPM analyst document the participant role for this activity?
A. Assign the admin as the participant since the admin is paid less.
B. Assign the manager as the participant since the admin reports to the manager.
C. Break the "Review" task into separate tasks and define who does what.
D. Pick either the admin or the manager and assign the "Review" task to that role.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: M2170-647
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Intelligent Operations Center-Water & Transportation Sales Mastery Test v1)
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Total Q&A: 44 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 The IBM i2 Analysts Notebook could be described as:
A. Analyst s Notebook is a web application designed to provide users with a powerful visualization and
analytical tool. Analyst s Notebook has a set of programmable JAVA based controls.
B. Analyst s Notebook is a standalone desktop product designed to provide users with a powerful
visualization tool. Analyst s Notebook has an API to enable programmatic control of the application via the
Analyst s Notebook SDK.
C. Analyst s Notebook is a standalone desktop product designed to provide users with a powerful
analytical tool. Analyst s Notebook has an API to enable programmatic control of the application via the
Analyst s Notebook SDK.
D. Analyst s Notebook is a standalone desktop product designed to provide users with a powerful
visualization and analytical tool. Analyst s Notebook has an API to enable programmatic control of the
application via the Analyst s Notebook SDK.
Answer: D

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NO.2 How can the IBM i2 suite ensure that investments in existing systems can be preserved and
enhanced to give greater operational benefit to a wider range of users in different geographical locations?
A. Thanks to the IBM i2 Intelligence Analysis Platform s ability to access multiple data sources across
varied geographies via the internet, investigations and analysis can be carried out using the data from
multiple sources
B. Because the IBM i2 Intelligence Analysis Platform has web search capabilities it can access all multiple
data sources across multiple geographies at much lower cost.
C. The IBM i2 Intelligence Analysis Platform s capability to access all legacy data sources from one
location retaining full integrity of their searches for investigations and analysis without the need to replace
existing databases combined with its nodal technology enable the expansion of capability across multiple
geographies.
D. The IBM i2 Intelligence Analysis Platform s nodal capability enables it to operate across multiple
geographies but only if all the data is bought into one database.
Answer: C

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A. Intelligence Analysis Charts can be quickly generated by importing data direct from unstructured
sources which can greatly reduce the time taken to import additional information into a chart.
B. Intelligence Analysis Charts can be quickly generated by dragging and dropping data in the form of
entities, links and attributes onto the chart. Volume data can be easily imported from structured data
which can greatly reduce the time taken to import additional information into a chart.
C. Intelligence Analysis Charts can be quickly generated by dragging and dropping entropies, links, and
attrition rates onto the chart.
D. Intelligence Analysis Charts can be used to perform lookups of internet data and show this in graphical
format.
Answer: B

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manage risk when the required information comes form multiple data sources?
A. The IBM i2 Fraud Intelligence Analysis Platform enables financial organizations to automatically
reconfigure the database schema to match the schemas of the legacy data sets.
B. The IBM i2 Fraud Intelligence Analysis Platform enables financial organizations to automatically
reconfigure internal systems so that legacy systems are redundant.
C. The IBM i2 Fraud Intelligence Analysis Platform enables financial organizations to import, model, and
analyze data within a single application.
D. The IBM i2 Fraud Intelligence Analysis Platform enables financial organizations to automatically
connect to multiple data sets and import all of the data into a single repository via a stochastic web
application.
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is one of the key benefits to an organization of introducing IBM i2 IntelliShare?
A. IBM i2 IntelliShare will auto-connect intra-organization data silos through enterprise access to enriched
data manipulation services.
B. IBM i2 IntelliShare will remove the drawbacks caused by the presence of intra-organization data silos
through enterprise access to a single intelligence agency.
C. IBM i2 IntelliShare will remove the drawbacks caused by the presence of intra-organization data silos
through enterprise access to smart phone apps.
D. IBM i2 IntelliShare will remove the drawbacks caused by the presence of intra-organization data silos
through enterprise access to an enriched single intelligence store.
Answer: D

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Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere Portal 8.0 Deployment and Administration )
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NO.1 Which option best describes the workflows that can be achieved using the IBM WebSphere
Portal Configuration Wizard?
A. Enabling security.
B. Enabling security, transferring the portal database, and connecting to an existing database.
C. Enabling security, and transferring the portal database.
D. Enabling security, transferring the portal database, connecting to an existing database, and
enabling
IBM Lotus Domino integration(collaborative features, directory integration, and so on).
Answer: B

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NO.2 The business units of Mary's company have needs for their own portals. However, the
demand on server resources is not great enough to require parallel installations. In response, Mary's
company selected virtual portals.
Which of the following options are available across each of the virtual portals by default?
A. Portal search
B. Document management
C. Portal property file definitions
D. Anonymous pages per virtual portal
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following statements correctly describes how IBM WebSphere Portal's
functionality is implemented on the IBM WebSphere Application Server?
A. WebSphere Portal is deployed as a stand-alone, Java application using WebSphere Application
Server
client libraries.
B. WebSphere Portal is deployed as an enterprise application on the WebSphere Application Server.
C. WebSphere Portal is a stand-alone web server framework and is not related to WebSphere
Application
Server.
D. WebSphere Portal is deployed as a portlet to WebSphere Application Server's portlet container.
Answer: B

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NO.4 When setting up security for a stand-alone IBM WebSphere Portal profile that will become
part of a cluster, which of the following statements is correct?
A. Security should be set up on the stand-alone node prior to joining the deployment manager cell.
B. Security should be set up on the deployment manager cell after the node is added.
C. It makes no difference whether security is set up before or after the WebSphere Portal node joins
the
deployment manager cell.
D. The IBM WebSphere Integrated Solutions console, not WebSphere Portal security tasks, should
be
used to configure security.
Answer: B

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NO.5 If errors occur during the execution of ConfigEngine tasks, which of the following log files
contain the trace information for diagnosing the configuration issues?
A. ConfigTrace.log
B. ConfigEngine.log
C. SystemOut.log
D. SystemErr.log
Answer: A

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NO.6 Don isdesigning a highly-available, secure, high-traffic, public website for his company. If he
wants to use IBM WebSphere Portal, what components should he consider?
A. Dynamic cache and a stand-alone, WebSphere Portal server with disaster recovery.
B. An authentication and authorization solution, a load-balancing solution, a WebSphere Portal
server
cluster with HTTP servers handling staticcontent, clustered LDAP servers and database servers.
C. A WebSphere Portal server cluster, step-up authentication, and network-attached, storage
devices.
D. An authentication and authorization solution, a business process engine, and a WebSphere Portal
server cluster.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Sunil is designing a portal cluster for production. He is using a 32-bit version of IBM
WebSphere Portal server and has several multiprocessor servers with 16 GB of memory.
What type of cluster configuration should he use?
A. A vertical cluster, because it ensures minimal latency between cluster members.
B. A horizontal cluster, because it provides fault tolerance.
C. A combination of vertical and horizontal clusters to gain the benefits of both configuration types.
D. A multi-production cluster because it meets both high-availability and high-performance criteria.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following tools is not used by an IBM WebSphere Portal administrator for staging
data to a production environment?
A. Managed Pages
B. Syndication
C. Release Builder
D. XMLAccess
Answer: A

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NO.9 Bob is building a site that is displayed using either IBM Web Content Manager or a web server.
It is not using any IBM WebSphere Portal features such as portlets. The content is static and is only
updated periodically.
What delivery mechanism is best suited for this scenario?
A. Servlet delivery
B. Pre-rendered delivery
C. Local, web-content, viewer delivery
D. Remote, web-content, viewer delivery
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of the following direct migration paths to IBM WebSphere Portal 8.0 are supported.?
A. WebSphere Portal 5.1.0.x and 6.1.0.x.
B. WebSphere Portal 6.0.0.x and 7.0.0.x.
C. WebSphere Portal 6.1.5.x and 7.0.0.x.
D. All of the above.
Answer: C

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NO.11 What parameters need to be modified in the Installation Manager response file to change
the default port numbers during a silent installation?
A. -W portBlockInput.startingPortToScan=port number -W portBlockInput.endingPortToScan=port
number
-W portBlockInput.portBlockSize=blocksize
B. <data key='user.wp.admin.port,com.ibm.websphere.PORTAL.SERVER.v80'
value='<port>'/>and<data
key='user.wp.portal.port,com.ibm.websphere.PORTAL.SERVER.v80' value='<port>'/>
C. <port.admin='<port>'/>and<port.wps='<port>'/>
D. IBM WebSphere Portal always scans for active ports at 10000 and ends at 65000 during
installation.
This behavior cannot be affected usingcommand parameters.
Answer: B

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NO.12 IBM has confirmed that a single IBM WebSphere Portal installation can support __________
Virtual Portals.
A. 65
B. 115
C. 300
D. 215
E. All of the above.
Answer: E

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NO.13 At a high level, which of the following options best describes the sequence of steps that one
should take when setting up an IBM WebSphere Portal static cluster?
A. 1.Install and configure WebSphere Portal as a stand-alone node for each cluster node.
2.Federate each portal server node to the WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment cell
using
the addNode command.
3.Create a portal cluster using the ConfigEngine tasks.
4.Configure the cluster members to use the same database and user registry.
B. 1.UseWebSphere Application Server Network Deployment to create a managed node foreach
portal
node in the cluster.
2.Federate each of these nodes into theWebSphere Application Server Network Deployment cell
using
the addNode command.
3.Install and configure WebSphere Portal on each portal server node.
4.Use ConfigEngine tasks to configure the database, user registry, and create the cluster.
C. 1.Install WebSphere Portal on the first node, configure the database, and use the ConfigEngine
tasks
to create a profile template.
2.Prepare the first node to communicateWebSphere Application Server Network Deployment, and
use
addNode and ConfigEngine tasks toconfigure the cluster and user registry.
3.Install WebSphere Portal on additional nodes and use the profile template to configure.
4.Use the addNode and ConfigEngine tasks to federate the additional nodes and complete the
cluster
setup.
D. 1.UseWebSphere Application Server Network Deployment to create a cell and managed node for
each
portal node in the cluster.
2.Use the WebSphere Portal cluster profile template to install WebSphere Portal onto each node.
3.Use the ConfigEngine tasks to configure the nodes to use the same database and user registy.
4.Federate each of these nodes into the cluster by using the addNode and ConfigEngine tasks.
Answer: C

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NO.14 Bob needs to integrate IBM WebSphere Portal to handle tasks from several different backend
systems as a service. Bob can create tasks and specialized workflows using which of the following?
A. Unified Task Portlet
B. IBM Rational Application Developer Edition and Standard Portlet API
C. Unified Task Developer Edition and Collaborative Services API
D. Page Builder and Portlet Wires
Answer: A

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NO.15 George is gathering requirements for an IBM WebSphere Portal implementation. Among the
requirements is that the portal remembers the names of the most recently logged in users from a
particular browser, so that they are not required to log in each time they visit the site. How would
George
best implement this requirement?
A. George has to create a custom login portlet that reads and writes from a cookie that he has to
define.
B. George has to develop a trust association interceptor that bypasses the portal login.
C. George has to implement a third-party authentication mechanism.
D. George can use the built-in Remember Me functionality.
Answer: D

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NO.1 Disk from a fibre-attached V7000 disk subsystem will be used for an IBM i partition. What type
of adapter is required in the IBM i partition?
A. SAS disk adapter
B. Virtual SAS adapter
C. Virtual SCSI adapter
D. Fibre Channel adapter
Answer: C

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NO.2 A client IBM i 7.1 partition is being hosted by dual VIO Server partitions (VIOS-1 & VIOS-2). A
Shared Ethernet Adapter (SEA) has been created in order to provide Ethernet failover capability
for the IBM i partition. The IBM i partition will use the Ethernet resources of the VIO Server
partitions.
How many virtual Ethernet adapters need to be defined on the HMCI in the IBM i client, and VIO
Server partition profiles to support SEA and failover?
A. IBM i Client: 1 adapter:
VIOS-1: 1 adapter
VIOS-2: 1 adapter
B. IBM i Client: 2 adapters
VIOS-1: 1 adapter
VIOS-2: 1 adapter
C. IBM i Client: 1 adapter
VIOS-1: 2 adapters
VIOS-2: 2 adapters
D. IBM i Client: 2 adapters
VIOS-1: 2 adapters
VIOS-2: 2 adapters
Answer: C

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NO.3 A customer has purchased a new BladeCenter H (BCH) and POWER blade to run IBM i. The
POWER blade is configured with two Fibre Channel interlaces for attaching SAN and tape.
They have an IBM TS3500 tape library with a fibre channel connection, and current firmware is
running through a fibre switch to another IBM i system. One port on the existing switch and one
port in the BCH fibre switch has been zoned to provide a connection from the tape library to the
BCH.
After IBM i 7.1 SLIC and base OS are installed on the blade from IBM distribution media, the tape
library does not appear in the device configuration.
What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The existing switch does not support NPIV.
B. NPIV enablement was omitted when configuring the BCH switch.
C. The BCH switch configuration must match the link speed of the TS3500.
D. A switch-to-switch cable is required. A switch to device cable was shipped with the BCH by default.
Answer: A

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NO.4 A customer wants two VIO Servers in the CEO of a proposed Power 720. To provide redundancy
for the IBM V7000 SAN they will utilize to provision disk for his client partitions.
What is the minimum required to make this possible?
A. A 6-disk storage backplane
B. An 8-disk storage backplane
C. A 6-disk storage backplane and the split drive bay feature
D. An 8-disk storage backplane and the split drive bay feature
Answer: C

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NO.5 A customer has multiple POWERS 570 servers. The servers are controlled by multiple HMCs.
The customer is installing an additional Power 770 server in this environment but will retain their
existing HMCs. No updates to FSP or HMC levels have been made since installation of the
POWERS servers.
After reviewing the cover letters for ESP and HMC firmware levels, what updates are required to
support the addition of the new server into the network?
A. Update only the HMCs to the latest version.
B. Update only the FSPs to the latest release available.
C. Update the FSP5 and HMC5 of the existing systems to the minimum level required.
D. Update the POWERS ESPs to the most recent version available for the installed firmware
release. Update the HMCs to the most recent release available.
Answer: C

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NO.6 In addition to Qshell and PASE, what other product needs to be installed on an IBM i partition
in order to remotely run scripts on an HMC?
A. IBM Portable Utilities for i
B. IBM i Integrated Server Support
C. IBM Cryptographic Service Provider
D. IBM Network Authentication Enablement for i
Answer: A

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NO.7 An administrator wants to share a fibre attached TS3100 tape library between multiple IBM i7.1
partitions. The system contains a PC #5774 - 4Gb fibre adapter and uses an IBM fibre switch. All
IBM i partitions are hosted by VIO Server (VIOS).
How could the administrator configure the sharing of the tape library?
A. Configure NPIV within VIOS, then configure each partition to use NPIV to share the tape library.
B. Create a script that can be called after each backup job in a partition finishes, which will move
the fibre adapter to the next partition
C. In the HMC, select the host Power System, then select Operations - Schedule Operations -
New. Create a new Scheduled Dynamic Reconfiguration operation to move the fibre adapter
between partitions.
D. In the HMC, select the VIOS partition, then select Operations - Schedule Operations - Options -
New. Create a new Scheduled Dynamic Reconfiguration operation to move the fibre adapter
between partitions.
Answer: B

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NO.8 A customer needs two client IBM i partitions on a 4-core Power 720, with storage hosted by
VIO Server. What is the least expensive method to manage this environment?
A. HMC
B. Virtual Partition Manager
C. Integrated Virtualization Manager
D. Systems Director Navigator for PowerVM
Answer: C

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Exam Code: C4090-451
Exam Name: IBM (Midrange Storage Technical Support V3)
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Total Q&A: 103 Questions and Answers
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NO.1 A technical specialist is working with a customer that wants to utilize a Storwize V7000 for
iSCSI
connection in their environment. The technician and the customer are drawing up the connectivity
plan for the new installation.
Which of the following is a true statement regarding connectivity for the Storwize V7000?
A. The management and iSCSI ports must share the same VLAN.
B. Port 2 on each node canister is used for the service address.
C. Only one port from either node canister must have connection to the LAN.
D. The same IP address cannot be used for both management and iSCSI host use
Answer: D

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NO.2 From a file sharing perspective, which of the following is a competitive advantage of the
Storwize
V7000 Unified compared to EMC VNX and NetApp in 7-mode?
A. Multipath failover
B. CIFS and NFS support
C. Deduplication of the data
D. Active/Active engines with shareable namespace
Answer: D

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NO.3 The customer is having a problem adding LUNs from a SAN-attached DS5020. The LUNs are
showing up multiple times. The hosts are running Windows 2008 R2 Enterprise.
How can this situation be resolved?
A. Install RDAC for DS5020
B. Check the default HBA settings
C. Install IBM MPIO Device Specific Module (DSM)
D. Install SDDDSM drivers and update HBA firmware
Answer: C

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NO.4 What GUI-based system management tool is used to manage N series storage subsystems and
N
series system objects?
A. OnCommand
B. AutoSupport
C. SnapManager Suite
D. Tivoli Storage Manager
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following is true about volume compression in a SAN Volume Controller?
A. Compressed volumes can be used to create Full, Incremental, and Nocopy flashcopies.
B. If a storage pool contains a compressed volume then every volume in that pool is compressed.
C. Compression should never be used for active live data such as an online transaction
processing database.
D. 25% of the virtual capacity of each compressed volume must be reserved as working space for
re-expansion of compressed data.
Answer: A

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NO.6 A customer just purchased a Storwize V7000 and wants to upgrade their warranty. What is the
best standard warranty available for the customer?
A. 9x5 with 4 hour response
B. 24x7 with 4 hour response
C. 24x7 with 2 hour response
D. 24x7 with 1 hour response
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is the default RAID configuration for a Storwize V7000 using 3 TB drives?
A. RAIDO
B. RAID 5
C. RAID 6
D. RAID 10
Answer: C

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NO.8 A technical specialist has been asked to design a solution to address a video imaging archiving
need. The customer needs to store images on disk for 90 days then keep them on tape for a
period of 7 years. There will be little access to the data once it is written initially, unless it is
needed for legal reasons. There is no need for high performance and the video files are quite large
in size. Initially, there will be 20 TB of data to be archived with an estimated annual growth of 50
percent for the next five years. The customer wants to add the tape system into a 42U rack and
wants to be able to scale the tape system for more cartridge slots and more drives
What solution should the technical specialist recommend to meet these requirements?
A. TS3500 with LTO-5 drives
B. TS3100 with LTO-5 drives
C. TS3310with LTO-5 drives
D. TS3200 with LTO-5 drives
Answer: C

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NO.1 An example of EMC Avamar’s missing features is which of the following?
A. CDP
B. Support large Environments with a single instance
C. Clear integration with other EMC Products
D. All of the above
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which product does NOT belong to the IBM SmartCloud Virtual Storage solution?
A. Tivoli Productivity Center
B. Tivoli Storage Manager
C. SAN Volume Controller
D. Flash Copy Manager
Answer: B

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NO.3 What Common capabilities does a storage Hypervisor provide?
A. Encryption
B. Can increase performance by using the EMC pass through driver
C. Thin provisioning
D. Scheduling
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the follow is IBM's entrance into the "Storage Hypervisor" market?
A. IBM SmartCloud Virtual Storage Center
B. Tivoli Storage Hypervisor Manager
C. Tivoli Smart Storage Manager
D. Flash Copy Manager for Virtual Environments
Answer: A

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NO.5 What will the Storage Hypervisor will provide when pooling resources?
A. Better Utilization of physical servers
B. Allowing use of disk by any system on the network
C. Providing data quickly and easily to Virtual machines
D. All of the above
Answer: C

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NO.6 TSM for Virtual Environments does which of the following?
A. Better utilization across many different types of disk
B. Pooled physical resources are consumed by virtual machines resulting in high asset utilization
C. Allows VMware to backup via the vStorage API
D. Provides a common set of value capabilities and centralized management on Zen
Environments
Answer: C

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NO.7 TSM's new support for z/OS provides which of the following?
A. Direct access to open systems tape
B. Data mobility between zOS and PASE
C. Ability to share mainframe tape with the open systems environment
Answer: A

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NO.8 What did doubling the capacity of the TSM server Database provide?
A. TADDAM support
B. Integration into VMware
C. Allows us to manage more data then any other product on the market
D. Limits the growth of the environment
Answer: C

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NO.9 Server Hypervisor's do NOT provide which of the following?
A. Better utilization across many different types of disk
B. Pooled physical resources are consumed by virtual machines resulting in high asset utilization
C. Virtual machines are mobile giving CIO's their choice of physical server device
D. Acommon set of value capabilities and centralized management are provided for virtual
machines regardless of what physical server they are sitting on
Answer: A

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NO.10 IBM's Storage Hypervisor is named___________.
A. IBM Hypervisor
B. IBM SAN Volume Controller
C. IBMSmartCloud Virtual Storage Center
D. IBM SmartCloud Virtual Storage Manager
Answer: B

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