2014年1月1日星期三

GIAC certification GSSP-JaVa exam targeted exercises

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Exam Code: GSSP-JaVa
Exam Name: GIAC (GIAC Secure Software Programmer – Java)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 275 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-01

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NO.1 Which of the following statements is true?
A. All UTF characters are eight bits long.
B. All UTF characters are all sixteen bits long.
C. All UTF characters are twenty four bits long.
D. All bytecode characters are sixteen bits long.
E. All unicode characters are sixteen bits long.
Answer: E

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NO.2 Which of the following statements correctly describe the features of the singleton pattern?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Singletons are used to control object creation by limiting the number to one but allowing the flexibility to
create more objects if the situation changes.
B. Singletons can only be stateless, providing utility functions that need no more information than their
parameters.
C. A singleton class may disappear if no object holds a reference to the Singleton object, and it will be
reloaded later when the singleton is needed again.
D. The behavior of a singleton can be obtained by static fields and methods such as
java.lang.Math.sin(double).
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.3 Given a code of a class named PrintString that prints a string.
1. public class PrintString{
2. public static void main(String args[]){
3. /*insert code here */
4. /* insert code here */
5. System.out.println(str);
6. }
7. }
Which of the following code fragments can be inserted in the class PrintString to print the output
"4247"?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. StringBuilder str= new StringBuilder("123456789");
str.delete(0,3).replace(1,3,"24").delete(4,6);
B. StringBuffer str= new StringBuffer("123456789");
str.delete(0,3).replace(1,3,"24").delete(4,6);
C. StringBuffer str=new StringBuffer("123456789");
str.substring(3,6).delete(1,2).insert(1,"24");
D. StringBuilder str= new StringBuilder("123456789");
str.deleteCharAt(6).replace(1,3,"24").delete(0,3);
E. String str="123456789";
str=(str-"123").replace(1,3,"24")-"89";
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 You have written the following code snippet.
1. public class Read {
2. protected int ReadText(int x) { return 0; }
3. }
4. class Text extends Read {
5. /*insert code here*/
6. }
Which of the following methods, inserted independently at line 5, will compile?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. private int ReadText(long x) { return 0; }
B. protected long ReadText(int x, int y) { return 0; }
C. protected long ReadText(long x) { return 0; }
D. protected int ReadText(long x) { return 0; }
E. private int ReadText(int x) { return 0; }
F. public int ReadText(int x) { return 0; }
G. protected long ReadText(int x) { return 0; }
Answer: A,B,C,D,F

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NO.5 Mark works as a Programmer for InfoTech Inc. He develops a deployment descriptor code that contains
three valid
<security-constraint> elements.
All of them constraining a Web resource Res1, the
<auth-constraint> sub-element of the <security-constraint>
elements are as follows.
<auth-constraint>Admin</auth-constraint>
<auth-constraint>Manager</auth-constraint>
<auth-constraint/>
Which of the following can access the resource Res1?
A. Only Manager can access the resource.
B. No one can access the resource.
C. Everyone can access the resource.
D. Only Admin can access the resource.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following methods of the EJBContext interface can be called by both the BMT and CMT
beans?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. getCallerPrincipal()
B. getRollbackOnly()
C. getUserTransaction()
D. isCallerInRole()
Answer: A,D

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NO.7 Which of the following statements about programmatic security are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. The bean provider is responsible for writing code for programmatic security.
B. It is also called as instance level security.
C. It is implemented using methods of the EJBContext interface.
D. It is implemented using the methods of the UserTransaction interface.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.8 Which of the following statements are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. An inner class cannot be defined as private.
B. An inner class cannot be defined as protected.
C. An inner class can be defined as private.
D. An inner class can extend another class.
Answer: C,D

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NO.9 Which of the following statements about a JAR file are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It cannot be accessed through a class path, nor they can be used by java and javac.
B. It is used to compress and archive data.
C. It can be moved from one computer to another.
D. It is created by using the jar command.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.10 Mark writes a class Practice.java. This class needs to access the com.bar.Test class that is stored in
the Test.jar file in the directory /practice. How would you compile your code?
A. javac -classpath /practice/Test.jar Practice.java
B. javac -classpath /practice/ Practice.java
C. javac -classpath /practice/Test.jar/com/bar Practice.java
D. javac -classpath /practice Practice.java
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which of the following functions are performed by methods of the
HttpSessionActivationListener interface?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Notifying the object when it is bound to a session.
B. Notifying an attribute that a session has just migrated from one JVM to another.
C. Notifying the object when it is unbound from a session.
D. Notifying an attribute that a session is about to migrate from one JVM to another.
Answer: B,D

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NO.12 John works as a Software Developer for VenTech Inc. He writes the following code using Java.
public class vClass extends Thread
{
public static void main(String args[])
{
vClass vc=new vClass();
vc.run();
}
public void start()
{
for(int k=0;k<20;k++)
{
System.out.println("The value of k = "+k);
}
}
}
What will happen when he attempts to compile and execute the application.?
A. The application will compile successfully and the values from 0 to 19 will be displayed as the output.
B. A compile-time error will occur indicating that no run() method is defined for the Thread class.
C. A runtime error will occur indicating that no run() method is defined for the Thread class.
D. The application will compile successfully but will not display anything as the output.
Answer: D

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NO.13 You work as a programmer for PassGuide.Inc. You have a session object named session1 with an
attribute named Attribute1, and an HttpSessionBindingEvent object binding1 bound to session1.
Which of the following will be used to retrieve Attribute1?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Object obj=binding1.getSession().getAttribute("Attribute1");
B. Object obj=binding1.getAttribute("Attribute1");
C. Long MyAttribute=session1.getAttribute("Attribute1");
D. String str1=session1.getAttribute("Attribute1");
E. Object obj=session1.getAttribute("Attribute1");
Answer: A,E

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NO.14 Which of the following classes is an engine class that provides an opaque representation of
cryptographic parameters?
A. DSAPublicKeySpec
B. AlgorithmParameterGenerator
C. DSAParameterSpec
D. AlgorithmParameters
Answer: D

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NO.15 John works as a Programmer for Technostar Inc. He writes the following code using Java.
1. class WrapperClass{
2. public static void main(String[] argv){
3. String str2 = Double.toString(12);
4. String str1 = Double.toHexString(12);
5. System.out.println(str1+str2);
6. }
7. }
What will happen when John attempts to compile and execute the code?
A. It will not compile because the Double class does not contain the toHexString() method.
B. It will compile and execute successfully and will display 8p312 as the output.
C. It will compile and execute successfully and will display 0x1.8p312.0 as the output.
D. It will not compile because the Double class does not contain the toString() method.
Answer: C

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NO.16 Mark works as a Programmer for InfoTech Inc. He develops the following deployment descriptor code.
<web-app . . . .
>
<display-name>A Secure Application</display-name><servlet>
..
.
<security-role-ref
>
<role-name>Manager</role-name>
<role-link>Admin</role-link>
</security-role-ref>
</servlet>
<security-role>
<role-name>Programmer</role-name>
</security-role>
<security-role>
<role-name>Admin</role-name>
</security-role>
<security-role>
<role-name>Employee</role-name>
</security-role>
</web-app>
Which of the following is a valid isUserInRole() method call that can be made if request is the
HttpServletRequest request?
A. request.isUserInRole("Programmer");
B. request.isUserInRole("Manager");
C. request.isUserInRole("Admin");
D. request.isUserInRole("Employee");
Answer: B

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NO.17 You work as a Software Developer for UcTech Inc. You create a session using the HttpSession
interface. You want the attributes to be informed when the session is moved from one JVM to another and
also when an attribute is added or removed from the session. Which of the following interfaces can you
use to accomplish the task?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. HttpSessionBindingListener
B. HttpSessionListener
C. HttpSessionActivationListener
D. HttpSessionAttributeListener
Answer: C,D

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NO.18 Which of the following deployment descriptor elements must contain the <transport-guarantee>
element as its mandatory sub-element?
A. <user-data-constraint>
B. <web-resource-collection>
C. <auth-constraint>
D. <login-config>
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which of the following elements are the subelements of the mime-mapping element in a
deployment descriptor file?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. exception-type
B. error-code
C. extension
D. mime-type
E. servlet-class
Answer: C,D

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NO.20 Mark works as a Programmer for InfoTech Inc. He develops a Website that uses HTML and processes
HTML validation. Which of the following are the advantages of the HTML application?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It provides password protection for a Web page or directory
B. It can be accessed by more visitors.
C. It provides faster loading.
D. It is easier to update and maintain the site.
E. It protects the source or images of a HTML Web page.
F. It puts less load on the server.
Answer: B,C,D,F

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Exam Code: AX0-100
Exam Name: Axis (Axis Network Video Exam)
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Total Q&A: 145 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-01

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NO.1 Which technology can a Video Management Software (VMS) partner incorporate to reduce the impact
on recorded video during server maintenance?
A. Local storage at the camera
B. Meta data stream
C. AXIS Camera Application Platform (ACAP)
D. SNMP
Answer: A

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NO.2 Axis recommends shielded cables for outdoor installations primarily to ensure
A. Image quality.
B. Surge protection.
C. Life time of cable installations.
D. Conformity with SMPTE standard.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following will allow a customer to have a PTZ camera automatically change between
three predefined positions?
A. Configure the camera's I/O ports to control the preset positions
B. Use the Guard Tour capability to switch between the preset positions
C. Switch between the predefined positions using a joystick
D. Use the auto tracking capability to switch between the preset positions
Answer: B

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NO.4 DRAG DROP
Match each function to the correct video surveillance system component. Drag each gray box from the left
column to the matching blue box in the right column.
Answer:

NO.5 DRAG DROP
Match the protocol to its default port number. Drag each gray box from the left column to the matching
blue box in the right column.
Answer:

NO.6 A company is looking for a dome designed to withstand vibrations inherent to transportation. Which of
the following cameras should be recommended?
A. AXIS P3344-VE
B. AXIS M3014
C. AXIS M3114-R
D. AXIS P1344
Answer: C

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NO.7 In many places 24 V AC has been popular as a power source but now 12 V and 24 V DC is increasing in
popularity because
A. There is more energy in DC.
B. It is easier to back-up DC with battery.
C. There is less power loss in cables with DC.
D. There is less risk for surge with DC.
Answer: B

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NO.8 In setting up PTZ control for an Axis encoder, it's very easy to overlook a very important step in the
configuration process. After properly connecting the communication wires to the encoder, the next
recommended step in the setup is:
A. Downloading the correct Device ID from the Axis website
B. Setting the Baud Rate to match the analog PTZ' s
C. Setting the Device ID to match the analog ID
D. Uploading the correct PTZ driver
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the following statements are true for H.264? (Choose two)
A. The size of an l-frame depends on the preceding P-frame
B. Increased motion in a scene means increased bit rate
C. Group of Video (GOV) length is directly affected by the sizes of the I- and P-frames
D. A P-frame references preceding and succeeding P-frames
E. Longer GOV length means reduced bit rate
Answer: B,E

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NO.10 What is the main purpose of the Arctic Temperature Control functionality.?
A. To protect the camera electronics
B. To protect the camera mechanics
C. To protect the camera lens
D. To protect the camera power
Answer: B

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NO.11 When initiating a surveillance project with a customer, which of the following should be considered first?
A. Understand which camera models to use
B. Understand the customer's technical knowledge
C. Understand the customer's goals and requirements
D. Understand the legal aspects for the installation
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which setting would best adjust a hard yellow tint as shown in the pictures below?
A. Image contrast
B. White balance
C. Color saturation
D. Image brightness
Answer: B

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NO.13 In a network surveillance installation, the purpose of a router is to
A. Forward the video stream between networks.
B. Forward the video stream to the correct receiver within a network.
C. Separate audio and video traffic to reduce audio latency.
D. Separate the video stream from the camera control signaling.
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which is an impact on cameras that are operating above their specified temperature limit?
A. Noise is increased
B. Frame rate is reduced
C. Light sensitivity is decreased
D. Resolution is reduced
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which is a benefit of using VLANs and IP subnets?
A. An encrypted communication link is established over the internet, allowing surveillance video to be
securely viewed off-site
B. The network provides end-to-end encryption to prevent malicious users from intercepting network
traffic
C. The network will only allow access from authorized devices, eliminating the risk that malicious users
disconnect cameras to intercept network traffic
D. Network surveillance video can be kept separate from other network traffic, reducing the risk that
malicious users will intercept it
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which of the following are outdoor rated products? (Choose two)
A. AXIS M3114-R
B. AXIS P3304-VR
C. AXIS P1344-E
D. AXIS P3344-VE
E. AXIS M1031-W
Answer: C,D

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NO.17 Which statement is true regarding H.264 and Motion JPEG?
A. The highest bandwidth savings using H.264 compared to Motion JPEG is at high frame rates
B. Bandwidth savings using H.264 has nothing to do with frame rate, only scene complexity
C. Bandwidth savings using H.264 has nothing to do with frame rate, only Group of Video (GOV) setting
D. The highest bandwidth savings using H.264 compared to Motion JPEG is at low frame rates
Answer: A

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NO.18 A customer has a lot of motion blur on recordings from a fixed camera. What would be the most likely
setting to address the blurring?
A. Gain level
B. Brightness
C. Backlight compensation
D. Shutter speed
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which of the following allows customer to access between 2-4 channels of live and online stored video
at any time?
A. AXIS Camera Station
B. AXIS Video Hosting System (AVHS)
C. AXIS Camera Management
D. AXIS Media Control
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which is true regarding the use of a smoked (tinted) dome instead of a clear dome?
A. Decreases color fidelity
B. Decreases field of view
C. Disables infrared capabilities
D. Reduces light sensitivity
Answer: D

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Exam Code: ACMP_6.1
Exam Name: Aruba (Aruba Certified Mobility Professional 6.1)
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Total Q&A: 180 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-01

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NO.1 When are the system-defined default roles added to the configuration on the controller?
A. when the controller is first booted
B. when an RF Proctect license is added to the controller
C. when created manually
D. when a PEF-NG license is added to the controller
Answer: D

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NO.2 An Aruba based network has a Master and three local controllers. No APs terminate on the Master
controller. IDS is desired, so the administrator wants to install the "RFProtect license."
On which controller should the license be installed?
A. master controller since it performs the IDS analysis
B. the local controllers since the APs terminate there
C. all of the controllers
D. this isn't the correct license for this purpose
Answer: C

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NO.3 What new firewall action was added specifically for use with Aruba's Content Security Service?
VisualRF supports import of floor plans from:
A. dst-nat
B. dual-nat
C. route dst-nat
D. redirect to tunnel
Answer: C

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NO.4 When creating a firewall policy, which of the following parameters are required? (Choose all the correct
answers.)
A. Destination
B. Service
C. Source
D. Log
E. Action
Answer: A,B,C,E

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NO.5 Which of the following licenses are consumed by RAP?
A. AP license
B. PEF-NG license
C. PEF-V license
D. No license required
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following APs do not support dual radio operations? (Choose all the correct answers.)
A. RAP - 5
B. AP 125
C. AP 120
D. AP 124
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 Which of the following APs support remote AP operation?
A. AP 105
B. AP 125
C. RAP2
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.8 When a user first associates to the WLAN, what role are they given?
A. the guest role
B. the stateful role
C. the initial role in the server group profile
D. the initial role in the AAA profile
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which statement is true about the Content Security License?
A. Applied to the master controller
B. Applied to all the controllers in the network
C. It is based on number of users
D. It is based on number of APs
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which Aruba controllers are able to provide IEEE 802.3af POE? (Choose all the correct answers.)
A. 3200
B. 620
C. 650
D. 6000
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.11 The permanent licenses on the controller will be deleted with the use of which command?
A. delete license
B. write erase
C. Licenses cannot be deleted once activated
D. write erase all
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which access point models support concurrent operations in both the b/g
band as well as the a
band?
(Choose all the correct answers.)
A. RAP2
B. AP-120
C. AP-105
D. AP-125
E. AP-135
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.13 What are the PEF-NG license limits based on?
A. Number of APs
B. Limit One per controller
C. Number of users
D. Number of local controllers
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which of the following could be used to set a user's post-authentication role or VLAN association?
(Choose all the correct answers.)
A. AAA default role for authentication method
B. Server Derivation Rule
C. Vendor Specific Attributes
D. AP Derivation Rule
Answer: B,C

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NO.15 What do you need to generate a feature license key for an Aruba controller?
A. controller's MAC address and the feature description
B. controller's MAC address and the certificate number
C. controller's Serial Number and the feature description
D. controller's Serial Number and the certificate number
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which may be applied directly to an interface? (Choose all the correct answers.)
A. Access List (ACL)
B. Firewall Policy
C. Roles
D. RF Plan Map
Answer: A,B

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NO.17 What is the maximum number of campus APs supported by a 620 controller?
A. 32
B. 8
C. 16
D. 24
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which of the following controllers has an integrated single radio AP.?
A. 3200
B. 620
C. 650
D. 651
Answer: D

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NO.19 In all unmodified default AAA profiles, in which default initial role is the user placed?
A. trusted-ap
B. guest
C. pre-guest
D. logon
Answer: D

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NO.20 What is the best practice regarding licensing for a backup master to support Master Redundancy?
A. Backup master only requires the AP license
B. License limits should be the same on primary master and backup Master
C. Licenses are pushed from the primary to the backup Master along with the configuration
D. Backup Master does not require licenses to support master redundancy
Answer: B

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Exam Code: ACMA_6.1
Exam Name: Aruba (Aruba Certified Mobility Associate 6.1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 72 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-01

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NO.1 When configuring a default gateway in the startup wizard it must be a part of:
A. A VLAN configured with an IP interface and assigned to a port
B. An IP range that is not assigned to a port or VLAN
C. A VLAN assigned to a port but without an IP interface configured
D. A VLAN not configured on the controller
E. The management Vlan
Answer: A

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NO.2 What are some best practices when configuring the Aruba Firewall (Select two)?:
A. Use aliases when possible
B. Write rules from least specific to most specific
C. Take actions like blacklisting when users violate policies
D. Create a different policy for each unique rule
E. Create different policies for access to different servers
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 Which of the following parameters is not needed by Visual RF Plan in order to Plan APs on a
floor region?
A. AP Type
B. PHY Type
C. Distance to Controller
D. Environment
E. Desired Data Rate
Answer: C

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NO.4 In a Campus AP deployment, an access point has been provisioned statically with an IP address,
subnet mask, default gateway and Controller IP address. Control Plane Security has been disabled.
Both the Controller and the Access Point are using 6.1 firmware. If a 3rd party firewall is placed in
between the AP and controller, what traffic would need to be allowed for the AP to boot
successfully and broadcast Wireless Networks? (Select two)
A. DHCP
B. PAPI
C. GRE
D. SNMP
E. NTP
Answer: B,C

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NO.5 What information is required by an AP in order to boot? (Select three)
A. AP's IP Address, Netmask, Default Gateway
B. AP's Name and Group
C. Aruba Controller's Master IP Address
D. An established NTP connection to the Master Controller
E. Establish an IPSEC tunnel with the Master controller
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.6 802.11n APs operate in which bands? (Select two)
A. 900 MHz
B. 2.4 GHz
C. 2.4 MHz
D. 5 GHz
E. 5 MHz
Answer: B,D

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NO.7 Which of the following statements about management accounts is false?
A. The root account can be used to monitor access points connected to the controller
B. The guest-provisioning account can see the controller's configuration but cannot change it
C. The read-only account cannot delete internal database entries
D. The guest-provisioning account can make changes to the internal AP database
E. The network-operations account cannot access configuration
Answer: B

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NO.8 Firewall policy should be written from:
A. Least specific to most specific
B. Most specific to least specific
C. Most important resources first
D. Order is not important
E. Policies with the most rules 1st
Answer: B

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NO.9 Aruba's recommended best option for authenticating guest users is:
A. Temporary employee account
B. Kerberos
C. Captive Portal
D. Windows logon
E. Email address
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following cannot be accomplished from the startup wizard?
A. Basic controller configuration
B. License installation
C. VPN configuration
D. WLAN configuration
E. Firewall Roles
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 9A0-144
Exam Name: Adobe (Adobe Illustrator CS5 ACE Exam)
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Total Q&A: 119 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-01

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NO.1 You are working a large poster. The poster will be printed on six tiled pages, each defined by an
artboard. The artboards have been arranged with no space between them. You want to position objects
based on the upper-left corner of the upper-left artboard. Which rulers should you use?
A. Artboard
B. Global
C. Video
D. Perspective Grid
Answer: B

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NO.2 You want to use the Shift key plus any arrow keys to nudge objects 1 pica. There are 12 points in a pica.
Which value should you enter in the Keyboard Increment field in the general preference?
A. 12 pt
B. 1.2 pt
C. 120 pt
D. 0.12 pt
Answer: B

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NO.3 You draw a path that contains a nonsymmetrical curved anchor point. You now want to alter the Bezier
handles of the anchor point so both sides of the curve are identical in length and angle. You are using the
Pen tool on the selected path. What should you do?
A. Press Option (Mac OS) / Alt (Windows) and drag the anchor point.
B. Shift-click the anchor point.
C. Double-click the anchor point.
D. Click on the anchor point while pressing the Option (Mac OS) / Alt (Windows) key.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which profile in the New Document dialog box has the following default settings?
RGB, 72 PPI document with Align to Pixel Grid disabled
Measurement units set to Pixels
Page orientation set to Portrait
A. Mobile and Devices
B. Web
C. Basic RGB
D. Flash Catalyst
Answer: A

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NO.5 You have saved a custom Keyboard Shortcut set. How can you see a list of all the keyboard shortcuts,
including your modified ones?
A. Open the Illustrator Defaults.kys file inside the Illustrator application folder in a text editor.
B. Choose Edit > Keyboard Shortcuts, and then click the Export Text button.
C. Choose Edit > Keyboard Shortcuts, and then click the Save button.
D. Type Keyboard Shortcuts in the Search field on the Help menu.
Answer: B

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NO.6 You have created several additional artboards while working on a document. You want to position all of
the artboards in a more logical manner within your document. What should you do?
A. Click and drag the artboards in the Artboard panel so they appear in the order you want.
B. Double-click the Artboard tool, and adjust the 9-point registration box under the Position field in the
Artboard Options dialog box.
C. Choose Object > Artboards > Rearrange.
D. Choose Artboard Options from the Artboard panel menu.
Answer: C

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NO.7 You want to add metadata information to the file you are working on. Which command should you
choose?
A. Window > Document Info
B. Window > Info
C. File > File Info
D. File > Document Setup
Answer: C

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NO.8 You have created a nested artboard in a multiple artboard document. Which two file formats will enable
you to save or export each artboard into an individual file? (Choose two.)
A. Adobe Illustrator (ai)
B. SVG (svg)
C. BMP (bmp)
D. Adobe FXG (fxg)
E. Photoshop (psd)
F. Windows Metafile (wmf)
Answer: A,E

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NO.9 Which settings or command allows you to view a pixel grid when you are creating web graphics?
A. Pixel Preview on, Zoom set above 600%
B. Pixel Preview on, Zoom set above 100%
C. Pixel Preview on, Full Screen Mode
D. Choose View > Show Grid
Answer: A

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NO.10 You want to print a document with trim marks and a bleed value of 0.1875 inches. You choose File >
Print. What should you do to prevent printer marks from being visible in the bleed area?
A. Set the value for all bleeds to a value above 0.1875 inch.
B. Deselect Auto-Rotate and choose Tile in the Options area.
C. Enter a value of 0.1875 inch for all bleed settings and the Offset setting.
D. Select the Use Document Bleed Settings option, and deselect Color Bars and Page Information.
Answer: C

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NO.11 To see more of your document when working, you want to hide all panels except the Tools panel. What
should you do?
A. Choose Window > Arrange > Float in Window.
B. Click the Change Screen Mode button at the bottom of the Tools panel to toggle to Full Screen Mode
C. Press the Tab key.
D. Press Shift+Tab.
Answer: D

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NO.12 You want to add some guides that will be visible only inside a particular artboard. What should you do?
A. Select the Artboard tool from the Tools panel, click on the artboard, and then drag guides out from the
horizontal or vertical document ruler.
B. Select the artboard name in the Artboard panel, and then drag a guide out from the horizontal or
vertical document ruler.
C. Click on the artboard with the Selection tool, and then Option+double-click (Mac OS) or
Alt+double-click (Windows) on the horizontal or vertical ruler.
D. Drag a guide from the horizontal or vertical document ruler, and hold down the Option (Mac OS) or Alt
(Windows) key before letting go of the mouse button.
Answer: A

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NO.13 How can you view three separate document windows side by side?
A. Choose Tile All Vertically from the Arrange Document menu in the Application bar.
B. Choose Window > Arrange > Cascade.
C. Choose > Tile All In Grid from the Arrange Document menu in the Application bar.
D. Choose Window > Arrange > Float All in Windows.
Answer: A

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NO.14 Using the Layers panel, you want to move objects that are selected from one layer to a locked layer by
dragging the Selected Art icon to the target layer. Which key combination should you use?
A. Command+Option-drag (Mac OS) or Ctrl+Alt-drag (Windows)
B. Shift-drag
C. Command-drag (Mac OS) or Ctrl-drag (Windows)
D. Option-drag (Mac OS) or Alt-drag (Windows)
Answer: C

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NO.15 Where does the new artboard appear when you create it using the New Artboard button in the Artboard
panel.?
A. To the left of all current artboards
B. To the right of all current artboards
C. Below all curent artboards
D. Above all curent artboards
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 9A0-055
Exam Name: Adobe (Adobe InDesign CS3 ACE Exam)
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Total Q&A: 125 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-01

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NO.1 Click the Exhibit button. You draw a red and a blue circle by using the Ellipse tool. You center the red
circle inside the blue circle as shown in the exhibit What happens when you select both circles and then
select Exclude Overlap from the Pathfinder panel?
A.The two circles merge and become one large, blue circle.
B.The operation cannot be completed because the result would be an empty region.
C.The blue circle disappears, leaving only the red circle.
D.The red circle disappears, leaving a hole in the center of the blue circle. The object that remains is red.
Correct:D

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NO.2 Which is included when you export an InDesign file as XML?
A.Only tagged content.
B.Tagged content and its formatting.
C.Only the layout of tagged content.
D.Tagged content, its formatting, and layout.
Correct:A

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NO.3 You are importing XML into an existing InDesign document. You want to format the text as efficiently as
possible by using existing InDesign styles. Which feature should you use?
A.Map Tags to Styles
B.Map Styles to Tags
C.Load DTD
D.Merge Content
Correct:A

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NO.4 Which is checked as part of the preflight process?
A.Transparency Flattener Preset options
B.Ink Limit
C.Image Scaling Factor
D.Placed InDesign files
Correct:D

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NO.5 Which item is exported when you export an InDesign document as XHTML?
A.Graphics created in InDesign
B.Embedded images
C.Bullets and numbered lists
D.Bookmarks
Correct:C

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NO.6 Which type of file is generated after you export an InDesign document to Digital Editions?
A.ZIP
B.EPUB
C.RAR
D.EPGT
Correct:B

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NO.7 You create a button on a master page, add Rollover and Down states to the button, define the
appearance of the button states, and add a hyperlink destination to the button. Which component will be
missing when you export the InDesign document as a PDF document?
A.The Rollover and Down states of the button.
B.The appearance of the states of the button.
C.All actions performed on the button.
D.The hyperlink destination attached to the button.
Correct:D

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NO.8 You use the Position tool to select and resize the content of a graphic frame. You press the Shift key,
select a frame handle, and drag inward. What happens to the frame and its content?
A.The frame is resized proportionately, but the content remains of the same size.
B.The content is resized proportionately, but the frame remains of the same size.
C.Both the frame and the content are resized proportionately.
D.The content or frame cannot be resized by using the Position tool.
Correct:B

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NO.9 Click the Exhibit button. You use the Polygon tool to create the five-sided star as shown in the exhibit.
You add a 6-point black stroke to the object and set the Join to Miter join. What happens to the points of
this star when you decrease the value of Miter Limit?
A.The points of the star eventually are beveled, or cut off.
B.The points of the star grow longer.
C.The points of the star grow thinner.
D.The points of the star are not changed.
Correct:A

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NO.10 You have three objects in your document named Object 1, Object 2, and Object 3. You select Object 1
in your layout and apply a drop shadow to it. With the object selected, you create a new object style and
name it Drop Shadow. You then apply the Drop Shadow style to Object 2 and Object 3. You edit the Drop
Shadow style. Which objects will be modified to reflect the changes to the style?
A.All three objects are modified.
B.Only Object 1 is modified.
C.Only Object 2 and Object 3 are modified.
D.None of the objects are modified.
Correct:C

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NO.11 You want to rotate a graphic around its upper-left corner by using the Free Transform tool. What should
you do?
A.In the Control panel, set the Reference Point option for the graphic to the upper-left corner. Then, rotate
the graphic.
B.Drag the center point of the graphic to the upper-left corner by using the Free Transform tool. Then,
rotate the graphic.
C.Place the Free Transform tool at the upper-left corner of the graphic. Then, rotate the graphic.
D.You cannot rotate the graphic around its upper-left corner with the Free Transform tool.
Correct:D

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NO.12 Which transparency issues can you identify by using the Flattener Preview panel?
A.Precise printing of spot colors.
B.Accurate color.
C.Impact of different blending modes.
D.Rasterized vector text.
Correct:D

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NO.13 What happens to the colors in a document when you apply Simulate Overprint to the document when
exporting it to PDF?
A.Spot colors are converted to Process color equivalents.
B.Process colors are converted to Spot color equivalents.
C.All colors in the document are retained.
D.Overprinted objects are mapped to the same plate.
Correct:A

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NO.14 Which element is NOT tagged in XML when you export a layout to XML after auto tagging?
A.Text frames
B.Table cells
C.Footnotes
D.Images
Correct:C

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NO.15 Which linked files are NOT copied to the package folder when you package an InDesign document?
A.Linked images on the Pasteboard.
B.Linked images in the Slug area.
C.Linked images in the Bleed area.
D.Images on hidden layers.
Correct:A

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NO.16 You have a database that contains 25 records. Each record contains multiple data fields. You want to
place the data as repeated data in your layout. Which option in the XML Import Options dialog box should
you choose?
A.Cloning
B.Duplicating
C.Copying
D.Merging
Correct:A

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NO.17 You have placed a PSD file containing editable text into an InDesign document. You want the font used
in the PSD file to remain as vector and to be saved during the Package process. What should you do?
A.Save the image as Photoshop PDF with embedded fonts.
B.Save the image as Photoshop PDF without embedding fonts.
C.Save the image as high resolution TIFF before placing in InDesign.
D.Save the image as a 24-bit PNG file before placing it into InDesign.
Correct:A

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NO.18 Click the Exhibit button. Using the Pen tool, you draw the curve as shown in Figure 4.1A. You now want
to edit this curve and create the one as shown in Figure 4.1B. What should you do?
A.Use the Selection tool to select the right direction point of the center anchor point. Then, drag the
direction point downward to its new position.
B.Use the Direct Selection tool to select the right direction point of the center anchor point. Then, drag the
direction point downward to its new position.
C.Use the Convert Direction Point tool to select the right direction point of the center anchor point. Then,
drag the direction point downward to its new position.
D.Use the Pen tool to select the right direction point of the center anchor point. Then, drag the direction
point downward to its new position.
Correct:C

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NO.19 The visual design of an InDesign layout is different from the XML content being imported. Where will
the XML data be placed in InDesign when you import the data?
A.At the end of the InDesign layout.
B.At the top of the InDesign layout.
C.In the structure pane.
D.In the tagged frames in the InDesign document.
Correct:C

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NO.20 Which information is displayed in the Info panel when you select a text frame?
A.The height and width of the text frame.
B.The X and Y coordinates of the frame reference point.
C.The character, word, sentence, and paragraph counts of the text in the frame.
D.The color values of the text in the frame.
Correct:A

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Exam Code: 9A0-084
Exam Name: Adobe (Adobe Acrobat 9 Professional ACE Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 96 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-01

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NO.1 How do you indicate which two PDF documents will be compared when you choose the
Compare Documents command?
A.Before selecting the Compare Documents command there must be no documents open.
B.You must open both PDF files that will be used in the comparison before selecting the Compare
Documents command.
C.At least one document used in the comparison must be open and be the active document before
selecting the Compare Documents command.
D.Regardless of which documents are open, you can select the two documents that will be compared
from within the Compare Documents dialog box after
E.
Correct:D

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NO.2 You have chosen Create PDF from Web Page. You have selected the option to get 2 levels.
Which setting ensures you only capture pages that are subordinate to the specified URL?
A.Stay on same path
B.Stay on same server
C.Create PDF tags in the General tab of the Web Page Conversion Settings
D.Create bookmarks in the General tab of the Web Page Conversion Settings
Correct:A

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NO.3 You want to share a PDF document. You want everyone to see and to be able to control the page
view of the document. Which should you choose from the Collaborate button on the task bar?
A.Share My Screen
B.Send Collaborate Live
C.Create Buzzword Document
D.Share Documents on Acrobat.com
Correct:B

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NO.4 Which Creative Suite application allows you to create a tagged PDF document?
A.Flash
B.InDesign
C.Photoshop
D.Dreamweaver
Correct:B

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NO.5 You are working in form editing mode. You want to check the tab order of your form fields.
What should you do?
A.Select Forms > Highlight Fields
B.Click in a form field and press Tab.
C.Select Forms > Edit Fields > Show Tab Numbers.
D.Right-click (Windows) or Control-click (Mac OS) a form field and select Properties.
Correct:C

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NO.6 You are managing form data from recipients who have responded to a distributed survey. You
want to edit the location of the response file. Which command should you choose?
A.Forms > Track Forms
B.Forms > Compile Returned Forms
C.Forms > Manage Form Data > Import Form Data
D.Forms > Manage Form Data > Export Form Data
Correct:A

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NO.7 You are creating a PDF document by using Acrobat Distiller. You want to create a PDF document
that is suitable for long-term archiving. Which Adobe PDF Setting should you choose?
A.Standard
B.PDF/A-1b
C.PDF/X-1a
D.Press Quality
Correct:B

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NO.8 You want to add an image to your PDF document. What should you do?
A.Click on the page with the Select Object tool.
B.Click on the page with the TouchUp Object tool.
C.Right-click on the page with the Select Object tool.
D.Right-click on the page with the TouchUp Object tool.
Correct:D

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NO.9 You want to reduce the size of a PDF document. You also want to control quality trade-offs for
the size reduction. Which command should you use?
A.Advanced > PDF Optimizer
B.Document > Reduce File Size
C.Document > Examine Document
D.Advanced > Document Processing > Set Document Actions
Correct:A

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NO.10 You are using the TouchUp Reading Order tool to enable the accessibility of a PDF document.
You want to ensure that text within the tagged area is defined as image and is NOT read aloud by
screen readers. Which option should you choose?
A.Text
B.Table
C.Figure
D.Figure/Caption
Correct:C

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NO.11 Which file format when embedded in a PDF document can be played in Adobe Reader 9 or
Adobe Acrobat 9, without additional software?
A.MP3
B.Flash
C.QuickTime
D.Windows Media
Correct:B

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NO.12 You are using Adobe Illustrator CS3. You want to create an Adobe PDF document from your
Illustrator document. Which should you choose from the File menu?
A.Place
B.Export
C.Save As
D.Save for Web Devices
Correct:C

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NO.13 You have created bookmarks for your PDF document. Which formatting option is available for
bookmarks?
A.text size
B.line spacing
C.font selection
D.character width
Correct:A

Adobe exam dumps   9A0-084   9A0-084   9A0-084 test   9A0-084   9A0-084

NO.14 Which PDFMaker setting is specific to creating a PDF document from Microsoft Excel?
A.Convert Multimedia
B.Convert Comments
C.Embed Scale Information
D.Embed Index For Faster Search
Correct:B

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NO.15 You are working on a Windows PC. Where will you find the option to create a custom page size
when using Adobe PDF printer in Microsoft Word?
A.Tools > Options
B.Acrobat preferences
C.Layout tab of the Adobe PDF Document Properties dialog box
D.Adobe PDF Settings tab of the Adobe PDF Document Properties dialog box
Correct:D

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NO.16 You want to collaborate on a document with other people. The reviewers do NOT have access
to a common server and are using a version of Adobe Reader or Adobe Acrobat earlier than
Adobe Acrobat 9. How should you conduct the review?
A.as a PDF Portfolio review
B.as an e-mail based review
C.as an accessible PDF review
D.as a shared review using Acrobat.com
Correct:B

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NO.17 You are working in the Preflight dialog box. Which should you choose to create a preflight
droplet?
A.Profiles tab
B.Standards tab
C.Options menu
D.Further Options in the Profiles tab
Correct:C

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NO.18 Which file type will Acrobat Distiller convert to a PDF document?
A..ps
B..doc
C..psd
D..indd
Correct:A

Adobe exam dumps   9A0-084   9A0-084   9A0-084 test   9A0-084   9A0-084

NO.19 You are using Microsoft Word. Which PDF creation method converts your source document to
PostScript and feeds it directly to Distiller for conversion to PDF without manually starting
Distiller?
A.Save As
B.Acrobat Distiller
C.Adobe PDFMaker
D.Adobe PDF Printer
Correct:D

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NO.20 You are creating a PDF document from within Microsoft Word. Which should you choose in
order to customize which paragraphs will automatically become bookmarks?
A.Tools > Options
B.File > Page Setup
C.Format > Styles and Formatting
D.Adobe PDF > Change Conversion Settings
Correct:D

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