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Exam Code: S90-19A
Exam Name: SOA Certified Professional (Advanced SOA Security)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 83 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-01

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NO.1 When designing XML schemas to avoid data-centric threats, which of the following are valid
considerations?
A. The maxOccurs attribute needs to be specified using a restrictive value.
B. The <xsd:any> element needs to be avoided.
C. The <xsd:restriction> element can be used to create more restrictive user-defined simple types.
D. All of the above.
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 The use of session keys and symmetric cryptography results in:
A. Increased performance degradation
B. Increased reliability degradation
C. Reduced message sizes
D. None of the above
Answer: D

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NO.3 The Service Perimeter Guard pattern has been applied to help avoid denial of service attacks for a
service inventory. As a result, services within the service inventory are only accessible via a perimeter
service However, denial of service attacks continue to succeed and services within the service inventory
become unavailable to external service consumers. What is the likely cause of this?
A. The application of the Service Perimeter Guard pattern needs to be combined with the application of
the Message Screening pattern in order to mitigate denial of service attacks.
B. The perimeter service itself is the victim of denial of service attacks. As a result, none of the services
inside the service inventory can be accessed by external service consumers.
C. The Trusted Subsystem pattern should have been applied so that each service has a dedicated trusted
subsystem.
D. The Service Perimeter Guard pattern does not help avoid denial of service attacks.
Answer: B

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NO.4 ___________ is an industry standard that describes mechanisms for issuing, validating, renewing and
cancelling security tokens.
A. WS-Security
B. WS-Trust
C. WS-SecureConversation
D. WS-SecurityPolicy
Answer: B

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NO.5 Security policies defined using WS-SecurityPolicy can be used to convey which of the following
requirements to a service consumer?
A. Whether transport-layer or message-layer security needs to be used
B. The encryption type that needs to be used for transport-layer security
C. The algorithms that need to be used for cryptographic operations
D. The type of security token that must be used
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.6 The Trusted Subsystem pattern is applied to a service that provides access to a database. Select the
answer that best explains why this service is still at risk of being subjected to an insufficient authorization
attack.
A. Attackers can steal confidential data by monitoring the network traffic that occurs between the service
and the database.
B. Because the Service Perimeter Guard pattern was also not applied, the database is not protected by a
firewall.
C. If an attacker gains access to the security credentials used by the service to access the database, the
attacker can access the database directly.
D. None of the above.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following can directly contribute to making a service composition architecture more
vulnerable to attacks?
A. Reliance on intermediaries
B. Reliance on transport-layer security
C. Reliance on open networks
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.8 An alternative to using a ___________ is to use a __________.
A. Public key, private key
B. Digital signature, symmetric key
C. Public key, key agreement security session
D. Digital signature, asymmetric key
Answer: C

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NO.9 Service A's logic has been implemented using managed code. An attacker sends an XML bomb to
Service A. As a result, Service A's memory consumption started increasing at an alarming rate and then
decreased back to normal. The service was not affected by this attack and quickly recovered. Which of
the following attacks were potentially avoided?
A. XML parser attack
B. Buffer overrun attack
C. Insufficient authorization attack
D. Denial of service
Answer: A,D

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NO.10 Service A needs to be designed so that it supports message integrity and so that only part of the
messages exchanged by the service are encrypted. You are asked to create the security policy for this
service. What type of policy assertions should you use?
A. Token assertions
B. Protection assertions
C. Security binding assertions
D. Service A's security requirements cannot be expressed in a policy
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which of the following types of attack always affect the availability of a service?
A. Exception generation attack
B. SQL injection attack
C. XPath injection attack
D. None of the above
Answer: D

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NO.12 Service A has recently been the victim of XPath injection attacks. Messages sent between Service A
and Service C have traditionally been protected via transport-layer security. A redesign of the service
composition architecture introduces Service B, which is positioned as an intermediary service between
Service A and Service C. The Message Screening pattern was applied to the design of Service B. As part
of the new service composition architecture, transport-layer security is replaced with message-layer
security for all services, but Service A and Service C continue to share the same encryption key. After the
new service composition goes live, Service A continues to be subjected to XPath injection attacks. What
is the reason for this?
A. The message screening logic can only work for Service C. Therefore, Service A is not protected.
B. Because message-layer security is being used, it is not possible for the message screening logic in
Service B to inspect messages without having the encryption key that is shared by Service A and Service
C.
C. XPath injection attacks are not prevented by message screening logic or message-layer security.
D. None of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.13 The use of XML schemas for data validation helps avoid several types of data-centric threats.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.14 The application of the Service Loose Coupling principle does not relate to the use of security policies
as part of service contracts.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.15 How can the use of pre-compiled XPath expressions help avoid attacks?
A. Pre-compiled XPath expressions execute faster and therefore help avoid denial of service attacks.
B. Pre-compiled XPath expressions reduce the chance of missing escape characters, which helps avoid
XPath injection attacks
C. Pre-compiled XPath expressions contain no white space, which helps avoid buffer overrun attacks
D. They can't because XPath expressions cannot be pre-compiled
Answer: B

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Exam Code: PHR
Exam Name: HRCI (Professional in Human Resources)
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Total Q&A: 165 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-01

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NO.1 There are four components of the HR Impact Model, which affect how a HR Professional may operate
within a given environment. Which one of the following is NOT a component of the HR Impact Model.?
A. Consultation
B. Client
C. Catalyst
D. Programs and processes
Answer: B

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NO.2 The GHF Corporation is looking to hire four software developers. The average pay for software
developers, with the desired skill set, is $76,000. The GHF Corporation believes that by offering $80,000
for the starting salary they'll attract better performers than their competitors. What is this scenario an
example of?
A. Lagging the market
B. Leading the market
C. Matching the market
D. Beating the market
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is the FairPay amount that defines, what a person makes, to be considered highly
compensated?
A. $110,000 or more
B. $150,000 or more
C. $100,000 or more
D. $125,000 or more
Answer: C

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NO.4 You are a HR Professional for your organization and you're preparing your team for a series of
interviews. You want the team to be familiar with the validity types you'll use and encourage in the series
of interviews. One of the requirements in the interview process for a graphic designer is, for the graphic
designer to use a software program and to create a simple brochure. This is an example of what type of
validity?
A. Construct-related validity
B. Predictive validity
C. Criterion-related validity
D. Content validity
Answer: D

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NO.5 The Pregnancy Discrimination Act of 1978 prohibits employers from discriminating against employees
on the basis of pregnancy, child birth, or other related medical conditions. This law affects organizations
having what minimum number of employees?
A. All organizations with employees must abide by this law
B. Organizations with 100 or more employees
C. Organizations with 15 or more employees
D. This law only addresses federal government employees
Answer: C

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NO.6 You are an HR Professional for your organization. You and your supervisor are reviewing the EEO
reporting requirements for your company to comply with the reports your firm should file. Which EEO
Report is a survey, collected every other year on even calendar years?
A. EEO-4 Report
B. EEO-5 Report
C. EEO-3 Report
D. EEO-1 Report
Answer: C

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NO.7 Consider your role as a HR Professional in your organization. In your duties you're to keep abreast of
market trends, practices in HR, employee attitudes, and your business needs. What component of the HR
Impact Model is addressed in this situation?
A. Programs and processes
B. Policies and procedures
C. Catalyst
D. Consultation
Answer: C

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NO.8 As a Senior HR Professional, you should be familiar with non-monetary rewards that your company
provides for its employees. Which of the following is an example of non-monetary reward?
A. Satisfaction from challenging and exciting assignments
B. Esteem from working with other talented people
C. Cash compensation
D. On-site cafeteria
Answer: D

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NO.9 Your organization has a retirement benefits plan that is covered by ERISA . Under ERISA, which of the
following is your organization required to do for the plan participants?
A. Provide each participant with plan information, specifically about the features and funding of the plan
through a summary plan description at a cost of no more than $7 per participant, per year.
B. Provide each participant with plan information, specifically about the features and funding of the plan
through a summary plan description at no cost.
C. Provide each participant with monthly plan information, specifically about the features and funding of
the plan through a summary plan description at no more than $7 perparticipant, per month.
D. Provide each participant with monthly plan information, specifically about the features and funding of
the plan through a summary plan description at no cost.
Answer: B

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NO.10 As an HR Professional, you must be familiar with the collective bargaining agreements and the process
that rights are given, contracts, and union and management cooperation. Consider an arbitration process
between the management and the union. What term is assigned to the resolution of the disagreement, by
an arbitrator's interpretation of the language of the contract?
A. Resolution
B. Interpretation
C. Decision
D. Outcome
Answer: C

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NO.11 As an HR Professional you must be familiar with several different lawsuits and their affect on human
resource practices today. What legal case found that a test that has an adverse impact on a protected
class is still lawful as long as the test can be shown to be valid and job related?
A. Washington versus Davis, 1976
B. Griggs versus Duke Power, 1971
C. McDonnell Douglas Corp. versus Green, 1973
D. Albemarle Paper versus Moody, 1975
Answer: A

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NO.12 As an HR Professional, you are required to post an OSHA poster in a conspicuous place that is easily
visible to employees. What OSHA poster lists each of the employee's rights?
A. OSHA 3165 poster
B. OSHA 5613 poster
C. OSHA 5131 poster
D. OSHA 3615 poster
Answer: A

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NO.13 Kelly's organization has posted a new job opening for their organization. This job opening is for a
woman to be the restroom attended, for all women's restrooms and locker rooms, in their organization.
Kelly believes, however, that the requirement for the applicant to be a female is a violation of the Title VII
of the Civil Rights Act of 1964. Which one of the following is the best answer for this scenario?
A. This is an example of an exception by bonafide occupational qualification to the Title VII of the Civil
Rights Act of 1964
B. This is an example of a violation of the Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964
C. The sex of applicants is excluded from the Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964
D. This is not a violation of the Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 because there is an equal paying
and titled job for the men's restroom and locker rooms in the company
Answer: A

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NO.14 During the organization of a union, it's possible that the union will gain recognition from the
management. The management is then obliged to give the NLRB a list of employees who are eligible to
vote in the unionization election. What is the name of the list of such employees called?
A. Constituent List
B. Union prospectus List
C. Excelsior List
D. Candidate List
Answer: C

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NO.15 You are an HR Professional for your organization. Your organization employs 120 people in the United
States. You are required to file the EEO-1 report for your organization by what date?
A. April 15 of each year
B. The anniversary date of your organization reaching 100 employees
C. January 1 of each year
D. September 30 of each year
Answer: D

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NO.16 Your manager has approached you regarding her desire to outsource certain functions to an external
firm. She would like for you to create a document to send to three vendors asking them for solutions for
these functions that your organization is to outsource. What type of a procurement document would you
create and send to the vendors in this instance?
A. Request for Proposal
B. Request for Quote
C. Invitation for Bid
D. Request for Information
Answer: A

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NO.17 The JHG Company has used discriminatory hiring practices in the past but they adjusted their
practices and are following federal laws now to ensure that fair hiring practices are met. However, the
JHG Company has an employee referral program as a primary source to recruit new employees. What
danger may the JHG Company be exposed to in this scenario?
A. Perpetuating past unintentional practices
B. Perpetuating past discrimination practices
C. Succumbing to an adverse impact
D. Not finding qualified racially diverse candidates
Answer: B

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NO.18 Your organization will be using the point factor technique in their evaluations of job performance. You
need to communicate what the point factor technique accomplishes as you're the HR Professional for
your organization. Which one of the following best describes the point factor technique?
A. Specific compensable factors are identified and then performance levels within the factors are
documented.
B. Specific compensable factors are identified and then performance levels within the factors are
weighted on importance to theemployee.
C. Performance factors are identified by the employee and then performance levels within the factors are
weighted based on importance to the organization.
D. Specific compensable factors are identified and then performance levels within the factors are
documented. The different factors and levels are weighted based on importance to the organization.
Answer: D

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NO.19 Holly is a senior worker in her organization and she is a member of the union. Her position will be
eliminated in sixty days and she will be released from the company. Rather than being unemployed, Holly
asks the union to move her to a less senior position and release a junior employee. If the union agrees to
this, what will this term be known as?
A. Bumping
B. Displacement
C. Releasing
D. Re-organization
Answer: A

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NO.20 Fran is a HR Professional for her organization and she is interviewing applicants for a warehouse
position. One of the candidates has written on his application that he speaks Spanish. Fran interviews this
candidate in Spanish and interviews all other candidates in English. This is an example of what?
A. Disparate treatment
B. Disparate impact
C. Accommodation
D. Perpetuating past discrimination
Answer: A

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Exam Code: GCFW
Exam Name: GIAC (GIAC Certified Firewall Analyst)
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Total Q&A: 391 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-01

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NO.1 Which of the following number ranges is used for the IP Standard ACL?
A. 100-199
B. 1000-1099
C. 600-699
D. 1-99
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following algorithms is used as a default algorithm for ESP extension header in IPv6?
A. Electronic Codebook (ECB) Mode
B. Cipher Block Chaining (CBC) Mode
C. Propagating Cipher Block Chaining (PCBC) Mode
D. Cipher Feedback (CFB) Mode
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following protocols does IPsec use to perform various security functions in the network?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Skinny Client Control Protocol
B. Authentication Header
C. Encapsulating Security Payload
D. Internet Key Exchange
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.4 You work as a Network Administrator for Net Perfect Inc. The company has a TCP/IP network. You have
been assigned a task to configure security mechanisms for the network of the company. You have
decided to configure a packet filtering firewall. Which of the following may be the reasons that made you
choose a packet filtering firewall as a security mechanism?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It makes security transparent to end-users which provide easy use of the client application s.
B. It prevents application-layer attacks.
C. It is easy to install packet filtering firewalls in comparison to the other network security sol utions.
D. It easily matches most of the fields in Layer 3 packets and Layer 4 segment headers, and thus,
provides a lot of flexibility in implementing security policies.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.5 Which of the following ICMPv6 neighbor discovery messages is sent by hosts to request an immediate
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A. Router Advertisement
B. Neighbor Advertisement
C. Router Solicitation
D. Neighbor Solicitation
Answer: C

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system?
A. Volatile data, file slack, internet traces, registry, memory dumps, system state backup, file system
B. Volatile data, file slack, registry, memory dumps, file system, system state backup, interne t traces
C. Volatile data, file slack, file system, registry, memory dumps, system state backup, interne t traces
D. Volatile data, file slack, registry, system state backup, internet traces, file system, memory dumps
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following intrusion detection systems (IDS) monitors network traffic and compares it
against an established baseline?
A. Network-based
B. File-based
C. Signature-based
D. Anomaly-based
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following devices is used to identify out-of-date software versions, applicable patches,
system upgrades, etc?
A. Retinal scanner
B. Fingerprint reader
C. Smart card reader
D. Vulnerability scanner
Answer: D

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NO.9 John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned a project for testing the security of
www.we-are-secure.com. He wants to corrupt an IDS signature database so that performing attacks on
the server is made easy and he can observe the flaws in the We-are-secure server. To perform his task,
he first of all sends a virus that continuously changes its signature to avoid detection from IDS. Since the
new signature of the virus does not match the old signature, which is entered in the IDS signature
database, IDS becomes unable to point out the malicious virus. Which of the following IDS evasion
attacks is John performing?
A. Session splicing attack
B. Evasion attack
C. Polymorphic shell code attack
D. Insertion attack
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following proxy servers is placed anonymously between the client and remote server and
handles all of the traffic from the client?
A. Web proxy server
B. Open proxy server
C. Forced proxy server
D. Caching proxy server
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which of the following are the reasons that network administrators use Access Control Lists?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Encrypting data to be routed
B. Removing weak user password
C. Controlling VTY access into a router
D. Filtering traffic as it passes through a router
Answer: C,D

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NO.12 WinDump, tcpdump, and Wireshark specify which fields of information libpcap should record.
Which of the following filters do they use in order to accomplish the task?
A. Berkeley Packet Filter
B. IM filter
C. Web filter
D. FIR filter
Answer: A

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NO.13 A scenario involves a pool of users with private IP addresses who need to access the Internet;
however, the company has a limited number of IP addresses and needs to ensure users occupy only one
public IP address.
Which technology is used to allow a pool of users to share one global IP address for Internet access?
A. Port Address Translation
B. Per-user Address Translation
C. Pool Address Translation
D. Private Address Translation
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which of the following commands configures a router to encrypt all passwords entered after the
command has been executed, as well as all passwords already on the running configuration?
A. no service password-encryption
B. enable password-encryption
C. no enable password-encryption
D. service password-encryption
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which of the following statements about the traceroute utility are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It generates a buffer overflow exploit by transforming an attack shell code so that the new attack shell
code cannot be recognized by any Intrusion Detection Systems.
B. It uses ICMP echo packets to display the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and the IP address of
each gateway along the route to the remote host.
C. It records the time taken for a round trip for each packet at each router.
D. It is an online tool that performs polymorphic shell code attacks.
Answer: B,C

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NO.16 Which of the following is an attack with IP fragments that cannot be reassembled?
A. Dictionary attack
B. Smurf attack
C. Teardrop attack
D. Password guessing attack
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which of the following are the countermeasures against a man-in-the-middle attack?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Using Secret keys for authentication.
B. Using public key infrastructure authentication.
C. Using Off-channel verification.
D. Using basic authentication.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.18 Choose the best explanation for the resulting error when entering the command below.
A. The command is attempting to create a standard access list with extended access list param eters.
B. The ACL commands should be entered from the (config-router) configuration mode.
C. The wildcard mask is not provided for the source and destination addresses.
D. The port number given does not correspond with the proper transport protocol.
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which of the following is the default port for POP3?
A. 25
B. 21
C. 80
D. 110
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which of the following components are usually found in an Intrusion detection system (IDS).?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Firewall
B. Console
C. Gateway
D. Modem
E. Sensor
Answer: B,E

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NO.21 Which of the following statements are true about an IDP rule base notification?
A. It can be defined as reusable logical entities that the user can apply to the rules.
B. When an action is performed, a notification defines how to log information.
C. It is used to specify the type of network traffic that has to be monitored for attacks.
D. It directs an IDP to drop or close the connection.
Answer: B

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NO.22 Which of the following limits the number of packets seen by tcpdump?
A. BPF-based filter
B. Recipient filtering
C. Sender filtering
D. IFilters
Answer: A

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NO.23 You work as a Security Manger for Tech Perfect Inc. The company has a Windows-based network.
You want to scroll real-time network traffic to a command console in a readable format. Which of the
following command line utilities will you use to accomplish the task?
A. WinPcap
B. WinDump
C. iptables
D. libpcap
Answer: B

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NO.24 Which of the following IDs is used to reassemble the fragments of a datagram at the destination point?
A. IP identification number
B. SSID
C. MAK ID
D. IP address
Answer: A

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NO.25 Which of the following types of Intrusion Detection Systems consists of an agent on a host that identifies
intrusions by analyzing system calls, application logs, file-system modifications (binaries, password files,
capability/acl databases) and other host activities and state?
A. HIDS
B. NIDS
C. APIDS
D. PIDS
Answer: A

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NO.26 Which of the following can be monitored by using the host intrusion detection system (HIDS)?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Computer performance
B. File system integrity
C. Storage space on computers
D. System files
Answer: B,D

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NO.27 A packet filtering firewall inspects each packet passing through the network and accepts or rejects it
based on user-defined rules. Based on which of the following information are these rules set to filter the
packets?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Layer 4 protocol information
B. Actual data in the packet
C. Interface of sent or received traffic
D. Source and destination Layer 3 address
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.28 You work as a Network Architect for Tech Perfect Inc. The company has a corporate LAN network. You
will have to perform the following tasks:
l Limit events that occur from security threats such as viruses, worms, and spyware.
l Restrict access to the network based on identity or security posture.
Which of the following services will you deploy in the network to accomplish the tasks?
A. NetFlow
B. Protocol-Independent Multicast
C. Network Admission Control
D. Firewall Service Module
Answer: C

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NO.29 Adam works as a Security Administrator for Umbrella Inc. A project has been assigned to him to
secure access to the network of the company from all possible entry points. He segmented the network
into several subnets and installed firewalls all over the network. He has placed very stringent rules on all
the firewalls, blocking everything in and out except the ports that must be used. He does need to have
port 80 open since his company hosts a website that must be accessed from the Internet. Adam is still
worried about the programs like Hping2 that can get into a network through covert channels.
Which of the following is the most effective way to protect the network of the company from an attacker
using Hping2 to scan his internal network?
A. Block ICMP type 13 messages
B. Block ICMP type 3 messages
C. Block all outgoing traffic on port 21
D. Block all outgoing traffic on port 53
Answer: A

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NO.30 Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) spoofing, also known as ARP poisoning or ARP Poison Routing
(APR), is a technique used to attack an Ethernet wired or wireless network. ARP spoofing may allow an
attacker to sniff data frames on a local area network (LAN), modify the traffic, or stop the traffic altogether.
The principle of ARP spoofing is to send fake ARP messages to an Ethernet LAN.
What steps can be used as a countermeasure of ARP spoofing?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Using ARP Guard utility
B. Using smash guard utility
C. Using static ARP entries on servers, workstation and routers
D. Using ARP watch utility
E. Using IDS Sensors to check continually for large amount of ARP traffic on local subnets
Answer: A,C,D,E

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Exam Code: GSSP-JaVa
Exam Name: GIAC (GIAC Secure Software Programmer – Java)
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NO.1 Which of the following statements is true?
A. All UTF characters are eight bits long.
B. All UTF characters are all sixteen bits long.
C. All UTF characters are twenty four bits long.
D. All bytecode characters are sixteen bits long.
E. All unicode characters are sixteen bits long.
Answer: E

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NO.2 Which of the following statements correctly describe the features of the singleton pattern?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Singletons are used to control object creation by limiting the number to one but allowing the flexibility to
create more objects if the situation changes.
B. Singletons can only be stateless, providing utility functions that need no more information than their
parameters.
C. A singleton class may disappear if no object holds a reference to the Singleton object, and it will be
reloaded later when the singleton is needed again.
D. The behavior of a singleton can be obtained by static fields and methods such as
java.lang.Math.sin(double).
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.3 Given a code of a class named PrintString that prints a string.
1. public class PrintString{
2. public static void main(String args[]){
3. /*insert code here */
4. /* insert code here */
5. System.out.println(str);
6. }
7. }
Which of the following code fragments can be inserted in the class PrintString to print the output
"4247"?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. StringBuilder str= new StringBuilder("123456789");
str.delete(0,3).replace(1,3,"24").delete(4,6);
B. StringBuffer str= new StringBuffer("123456789");
str.delete(0,3).replace(1,3,"24").delete(4,6);
C. StringBuffer str=new StringBuffer("123456789");
str.substring(3,6).delete(1,2).insert(1,"24");
D. StringBuilder str= new StringBuilder("123456789");
str.deleteCharAt(6).replace(1,3,"24").delete(0,3);
E. String str="123456789";
str=(str-"123").replace(1,3,"24")-"89";
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 You have written the following code snippet.
1. public class Read {
2. protected int ReadText(int x) { return 0; }
3. }
4. class Text extends Read {
5. /*insert code here*/
6. }
Which of the following methods, inserted independently at line 5, will compile?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. private int ReadText(long x) { return 0; }
B. protected long ReadText(int x, int y) { return 0; }
C. protected long ReadText(long x) { return 0; }
D. protected int ReadText(long x) { return 0; }
E. private int ReadText(int x) { return 0; }
F. public int ReadText(int x) { return 0; }
G. protected long ReadText(int x) { return 0; }
Answer: A,B,C,D,F

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NO.5 Mark works as a Programmer for InfoTech Inc. He develops a deployment descriptor code that contains
three valid
<security-constraint> elements.
All of them constraining a Web resource Res1, the
<auth-constraint> sub-element of the <security-constraint>
elements are as follows.
<auth-constraint>Admin</auth-constraint>
<auth-constraint>Manager</auth-constraint>
<auth-constraint/>
Which of the following can access the resource Res1?
A. Only Manager can access the resource.
B. No one can access the resource.
C. Everyone can access the resource.
D. Only Admin can access the resource.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following methods of the EJBContext interface can be called by both the BMT and CMT
beans?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. getCallerPrincipal()
B. getRollbackOnly()
C. getUserTransaction()
D. isCallerInRole()
Answer: A,D

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NO.7 Which of the following statements about programmatic security are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. The bean provider is responsible for writing code for programmatic security.
B. It is also called as instance level security.
C. It is implemented using methods of the EJBContext interface.
D. It is implemented using the methods of the UserTransaction interface.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.8 Which of the following statements are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. An inner class cannot be defined as private.
B. An inner class cannot be defined as protected.
C. An inner class can be defined as private.
D. An inner class can extend another class.
Answer: C,D

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NO.9 Which of the following statements about a JAR file are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It cannot be accessed through a class path, nor they can be used by java and javac.
B. It is used to compress and archive data.
C. It can be moved from one computer to another.
D. It is created by using the jar command.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.10 Mark writes a class Practice.java. This class needs to access the com.bar.Test class that is stored in
the Test.jar file in the directory /practice. How would you compile your code?
A. javac -classpath /practice/Test.jar Practice.java
B. javac -classpath /practice/ Practice.java
C. javac -classpath /practice/Test.jar/com/bar Practice.java
D. javac -classpath /practice Practice.java
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which of the following functions are performed by methods of the
HttpSessionActivationListener interface?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Notifying the object when it is bound to a session.
B. Notifying an attribute that a session has just migrated from one JVM to another.
C. Notifying the object when it is unbound from a session.
D. Notifying an attribute that a session is about to migrate from one JVM to another.
Answer: B,D

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NO.12 John works as a Software Developer for VenTech Inc. He writes the following code using Java.
public class vClass extends Thread
{
public static void main(String args[])
{
vClass vc=new vClass();
vc.run();
}
public void start()
{
for(int k=0;k<20;k++)
{
System.out.println("The value of k = "+k);
}
}
}
What will happen when he attempts to compile and execute the application.?
A. The application will compile successfully and the values from 0 to 19 will be displayed as the output.
B. A compile-time error will occur indicating that no run() method is defined for the Thread class.
C. A runtime error will occur indicating that no run() method is defined for the Thread class.
D. The application will compile successfully but will not display anything as the output.
Answer: D

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NO.13 You work as a programmer for PassGuide.Inc. You have a session object named session1 with an
attribute named Attribute1, and an HttpSessionBindingEvent object binding1 bound to session1.
Which of the following will be used to retrieve Attribute1?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Object obj=binding1.getSession().getAttribute("Attribute1");
B. Object obj=binding1.getAttribute("Attribute1");
C. Long MyAttribute=session1.getAttribute("Attribute1");
D. String str1=session1.getAttribute("Attribute1");
E. Object obj=session1.getAttribute("Attribute1");
Answer: A,E

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NO.14 Which of the following classes is an engine class that provides an opaque representation of
cryptographic parameters?
A. DSAPublicKeySpec
B. AlgorithmParameterGenerator
C. DSAParameterSpec
D. AlgorithmParameters
Answer: D

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NO.15 John works as a Programmer for Technostar Inc. He writes the following code using Java.
1. class WrapperClass{
2. public static void main(String[] argv){
3. String str2 = Double.toString(12);
4. String str1 = Double.toHexString(12);
5. System.out.println(str1+str2);
6. }
7. }
What will happen when John attempts to compile and execute the code?
A. It will not compile because the Double class does not contain the toHexString() method.
B. It will compile and execute successfully and will display 8p312 as the output.
C. It will compile and execute successfully and will display 0x1.8p312.0 as the output.
D. It will not compile because the Double class does not contain the toString() method.
Answer: C

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NO.16 Mark works as a Programmer for InfoTech Inc. He develops the following deployment descriptor code.
<web-app . . . .
>
<display-name>A Secure Application</display-name><servlet>
..
.
<security-role-ref
>
<role-name>Manager</role-name>
<role-link>Admin</role-link>
</security-role-ref>
</servlet>
<security-role>
<role-name>Programmer</role-name>
</security-role>
<security-role>
<role-name>Admin</role-name>
</security-role>
<security-role>
<role-name>Employee</role-name>
</security-role>
</web-app>
Which of the following is a valid isUserInRole() method call that can be made if request is the
HttpServletRequest request?
A. request.isUserInRole("Programmer");
B. request.isUserInRole("Manager");
C. request.isUserInRole("Admin");
D. request.isUserInRole("Employee");
Answer: B

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NO.17 You work as a Software Developer for UcTech Inc. You create a session using the HttpSession
interface. You want the attributes to be informed when the session is moved from one JVM to another and
also when an attribute is added or removed from the session. Which of the following interfaces can you
use to accomplish the task?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. HttpSessionBindingListener
B. HttpSessionListener
C. HttpSessionActivationListener
D. HttpSessionAttributeListener
Answer: C,D

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NO.18 Which of the following deployment descriptor elements must contain the <transport-guarantee>
element as its mandatory sub-element?
A. <user-data-constraint>
B. <web-resource-collection>
C. <auth-constraint>
D. <login-config>
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which of the following elements are the subelements of the mime-mapping element in a
deployment descriptor file?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. exception-type
B. error-code
C. extension
D. mime-type
E. servlet-class
Answer: C,D

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NO.20 Mark works as a Programmer for InfoTech Inc. He develops a Website that uses HTML and processes
HTML validation. Which of the following are the advantages of the HTML application?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It provides password protection for a Web page or directory
B. It can be accessed by more visitors.
C. It provides faster loading.
D. It is easier to update and maintain the site.
E. It protects the source or images of a HTML Web page.
F. It puts less load on the server.
Answer: B,C,D,F

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NO.1 Which technology can a Video Management Software (VMS) partner incorporate to reduce the impact
on recorded video during server maintenance?
A. Local storage at the camera
B. Meta data stream
C. AXIS Camera Application Platform (ACAP)
D. SNMP
Answer: A

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NO.2 Axis recommends shielded cables for outdoor installations primarily to ensure
A. Image quality.
B. Surge protection.
C. Life time of cable installations.
D. Conformity with SMPTE standard.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following will allow a customer to have a PTZ camera automatically change between
three predefined positions?
A. Configure the camera's I/O ports to control the preset positions
B. Use the Guard Tour capability to switch between the preset positions
C. Switch between the predefined positions using a joystick
D. Use the auto tracking capability to switch between the preset positions
Answer: B

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NO.4 DRAG DROP
Match each function to the correct video surveillance system component. Drag each gray box from the left
column to the matching blue box in the right column.
Answer:

NO.5 DRAG DROP
Match the protocol to its default port number. Drag each gray box from the left column to the matching
blue box in the right column.
Answer:

NO.6 A company is looking for a dome designed to withstand vibrations inherent to transportation. Which of
the following cameras should be recommended?
A. AXIS P3344-VE
B. AXIS M3014
C. AXIS M3114-R
D. AXIS P1344
Answer: C

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NO.7 In many places 24 V AC has been popular as a power source but now 12 V and 24 V DC is increasing in
popularity because
A. There is more energy in DC.
B. It is easier to back-up DC with battery.
C. There is less power loss in cables with DC.
D. There is less risk for surge with DC.
Answer: B

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NO.8 In setting up PTZ control for an Axis encoder, it's very easy to overlook a very important step in the
configuration process. After properly connecting the communication wires to the encoder, the next
recommended step in the setup is:
A. Downloading the correct Device ID from the Axis website
B. Setting the Baud Rate to match the analog PTZ' s
C. Setting the Device ID to match the analog ID
D. Uploading the correct PTZ driver
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the following statements are true for H.264? (Choose two)
A. The size of an l-frame depends on the preceding P-frame
B. Increased motion in a scene means increased bit rate
C. Group of Video (GOV) length is directly affected by the sizes of the I- and P-frames
D. A P-frame references preceding and succeeding P-frames
E. Longer GOV length means reduced bit rate
Answer: B,E

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NO.10 What is the main purpose of the Arctic Temperature Control functionality.?
A. To protect the camera electronics
B. To protect the camera mechanics
C. To protect the camera lens
D. To protect the camera power
Answer: B

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NO.11 When initiating a surveillance project with a customer, which of the following should be considered first?
A. Understand which camera models to use
B. Understand the customer's technical knowledge
C. Understand the customer's goals and requirements
D. Understand the legal aspects for the installation
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which setting would best adjust a hard yellow tint as shown in the pictures below?
A. Image contrast
B. White balance
C. Color saturation
D. Image brightness
Answer: B

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NO.13 In a network surveillance installation, the purpose of a router is to
A. Forward the video stream between networks.
B. Forward the video stream to the correct receiver within a network.
C. Separate audio and video traffic to reduce audio latency.
D. Separate the video stream from the camera control signaling.
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which is an impact on cameras that are operating above their specified temperature limit?
A. Noise is increased
B. Frame rate is reduced
C. Light sensitivity is decreased
D. Resolution is reduced
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which is a benefit of using VLANs and IP subnets?
A. An encrypted communication link is established over the internet, allowing surveillance video to be
securely viewed off-site
B. The network provides end-to-end encryption to prevent malicious users from intercepting network
traffic
C. The network will only allow access from authorized devices, eliminating the risk that malicious users
disconnect cameras to intercept network traffic
D. Network surveillance video can be kept separate from other network traffic, reducing the risk that
malicious users will intercept it
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which of the following are outdoor rated products? (Choose two)
A. AXIS M3114-R
B. AXIS P3304-VR
C. AXIS P1344-E
D. AXIS P3344-VE
E. AXIS M1031-W
Answer: C,D

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NO.17 Which statement is true regarding H.264 and Motion JPEG?
A. The highest bandwidth savings using H.264 compared to Motion JPEG is at high frame rates
B. Bandwidth savings using H.264 has nothing to do with frame rate, only scene complexity
C. Bandwidth savings using H.264 has nothing to do with frame rate, only Group of Video (GOV) setting
D. The highest bandwidth savings using H.264 compared to Motion JPEG is at low frame rates
Answer: A

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NO.18 A customer has a lot of motion blur on recordings from a fixed camera. What would be the most likely
setting to address the blurring?
A. Gain level
B. Brightness
C. Backlight compensation
D. Shutter speed
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which of the following allows customer to access between 2-4 channels of live and online stored video
at any time?
A. AXIS Camera Station
B. AXIS Video Hosting System (AVHS)
C. AXIS Camera Management
D. AXIS Media Control
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which is true regarding the use of a smoked (tinted) dome instead of a clear dome?
A. Decreases color fidelity
B. Decreases field of view
C. Disables infrared capabilities
D. Reduces light sensitivity
Answer: D

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The advent of Aruba certification ACMP_6.1 exam practice questions and answers

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Exam Code: ACMP_6.1
Exam Name: Aruba (Aruba Certified Mobility Professional 6.1)
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Total Q&A: 180 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-01

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NO.1 When are the system-defined default roles added to the configuration on the controller?
A. when the controller is first booted
B. when an RF Proctect license is added to the controller
C. when created manually
D. when a PEF-NG license is added to the controller
Answer: D

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NO.2 An Aruba based network has a Master and three local controllers. No APs terminate on the Master
controller. IDS is desired, so the administrator wants to install the "RFProtect license."
On which controller should the license be installed?
A. master controller since it performs the IDS analysis
B. the local controllers since the APs terminate there
C. all of the controllers
D. this isn't the correct license for this purpose
Answer: C

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NO.3 What new firewall action was added specifically for use with Aruba's Content Security Service?
VisualRF supports import of floor plans from:
A. dst-nat
B. dual-nat
C. route dst-nat
D. redirect to tunnel
Answer: C

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NO.4 When creating a firewall policy, which of the following parameters are required? (Choose all the correct
answers.)
A. Destination
B. Service
C. Source
D. Log
E. Action
Answer: A,B,C,E

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NO.5 Which of the following licenses are consumed by RAP?
A. AP license
B. PEF-NG license
C. PEF-V license
D. No license required
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following APs do not support dual radio operations? (Choose all the correct answers.)
A. RAP - 5
B. AP 125
C. AP 120
D. AP 124
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 Which of the following APs support remote AP operation?
A. AP 105
B. AP 125
C. RAP2
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.8 When a user first associates to the WLAN, what role are they given?
A. the guest role
B. the stateful role
C. the initial role in the server group profile
D. the initial role in the AAA profile
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which statement is true about the Content Security License?
A. Applied to the master controller
B. Applied to all the controllers in the network
C. It is based on number of users
D. It is based on number of APs
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which Aruba controllers are able to provide IEEE 802.3af POE? (Choose all the correct answers.)
A. 3200
B. 620
C. 650
D. 6000
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.11 The permanent licenses on the controller will be deleted with the use of which command?
A. delete license
B. write erase
C. Licenses cannot be deleted once activated
D. write erase all
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which access point models support concurrent operations in both the b/g
band as well as the a
band?
(Choose all the correct answers.)
A. RAP2
B. AP-120
C. AP-105
D. AP-125
E. AP-135
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.13 What are the PEF-NG license limits based on?
A. Number of APs
B. Limit One per controller
C. Number of users
D. Number of local controllers
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which of the following could be used to set a user's post-authentication role or VLAN association?
(Choose all the correct answers.)
A. AAA default role for authentication method
B. Server Derivation Rule
C. Vendor Specific Attributes
D. AP Derivation Rule
Answer: B,C

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NO.15 What do you need to generate a feature license key for an Aruba controller?
A. controller's MAC address and the feature description
B. controller's MAC address and the certificate number
C. controller's Serial Number and the feature description
D. controller's Serial Number and the certificate number
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which may be applied directly to an interface? (Choose all the correct answers.)
A. Access List (ACL)
B. Firewall Policy
C. Roles
D. RF Plan Map
Answer: A,B

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NO.17 What is the maximum number of campus APs supported by a 620 controller?
A. 32
B. 8
C. 16
D. 24
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which of the following controllers has an integrated single radio AP.?
A. 3200
B. 620
C. 650
D. 651
Answer: D

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NO.19 In all unmodified default AAA profiles, in which default initial role is the user placed?
A. trusted-ap
B. guest
C. pre-guest
D. logon
Answer: D

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NO.20 What is the best practice regarding licensing for a backup master to support Master Redundancy?
A. Backup master only requires the AP license
B. License limits should be the same on primary master and backup Master
C. Licenses are pushed from the primary to the backup Master along with the configuration
D. Backup Master does not require licenses to support master redundancy
Answer: B

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