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Exam Code: M2170-647
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Intelligent Operations Center-Water & Transportation Sales Mastery Test v1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 44 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 The IBM i2 Analysts Notebook could be described as:
A. Analyst s Notebook is a web application designed to provide users with a powerful visualization and
analytical tool. Analyst s Notebook has a set of programmable JAVA based controls.
B. Analyst s Notebook is a standalone desktop product designed to provide users with a powerful
visualization tool. Analyst s Notebook has an API to enable programmatic control of the application via the
Analyst s Notebook SDK.
C. Analyst s Notebook is a standalone desktop product designed to provide users with a powerful
analytical tool. Analyst s Notebook has an API to enable programmatic control of the application via the
Analyst s Notebook SDK.
D. Analyst s Notebook is a standalone desktop product designed to provide users with a powerful
visualization and analytical tool. Analyst s Notebook has an API to enable programmatic control of the
application via the Analyst s Notebook SDK.
Answer: D

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NO.2 How can the IBM i2 suite ensure that investments in existing systems can be preserved and
enhanced to give greater operational benefit to a wider range of users in different geographical locations?
A. Thanks to the IBM i2 Intelligence Analysis Platform s ability to access multiple data sources across
varied geographies via the internet, investigations and analysis can be carried out using the data from
multiple sources
B. Because the IBM i2 Intelligence Analysis Platform has web search capabilities it can access all multiple
data sources across multiple geographies at much lower cost.
C. The IBM i2 Intelligence Analysis Platform s capability to access all legacy data sources from one
location retaining full integrity of their searches for investigations and analysis without the need to replace
existing databases combined with its nodal technology enable the expansion of capability across multiple
geographies.
D. The IBM i2 Intelligence Analysis Platform s nodal capability enables it to operate across multiple
geographies but only if all the data is bought into one database.
Answer: C

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NO.3 One of the key capabilities of IBM i2 Analyst Notebook is that:
A. Intelligence Analysis Charts can be quickly generated by importing data direct from unstructured
sources which can greatly reduce the time taken to import additional information into a chart.
B. Intelligence Analysis Charts can be quickly generated by dragging and dropping data in the form of
entities, links and attributes onto the chart. Volume data can be easily imported from structured data
which can greatly reduce the time taken to import additional information into a chart.
C. Intelligence Analysis Charts can be quickly generated by dragging and dropping entropies, links, and
attrition rates onto the chart.
D. Intelligence Analysis Charts can be used to perform lookups of internet data and show this in graphical
format.
Answer: B

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NO.4 How can the IBM i2 suite enable financial organizations reduce the time taken and effectively
manage risk when the required information comes form multiple data sources?
A. The IBM i2 Fraud Intelligence Analysis Platform enables financial organizations to automatically
reconfigure the database schema to match the schemas of the legacy data sets.
B. The IBM i2 Fraud Intelligence Analysis Platform enables financial organizations to automatically
reconfigure internal systems so that legacy systems are redundant.
C. The IBM i2 Fraud Intelligence Analysis Platform enables financial organizations to import, model, and
analyze data within a single application.
D. The IBM i2 Fraud Intelligence Analysis Platform enables financial organizations to automatically
connect to multiple data sets and import all of the data into a single repository via a stochastic web
application.
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is one of the key benefits to an organization of introducing IBM i2 IntelliShare?
A. IBM i2 IntelliShare will auto-connect intra-organization data silos through enterprise access to enriched
data manipulation services.
B. IBM i2 IntelliShare will remove the drawbacks caused by the presence of intra-organization data silos
through enterprise access to a single intelligence agency.
C. IBM i2 IntelliShare will remove the drawbacks caused by the presence of intra-organization data silos
through enterprise access to smart phone apps.
D. IBM i2 IntelliShare will remove the drawbacks caused by the presence of intra-organization data silos
through enterprise access to an enriched single intelligence store.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: C2040-923
Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere Portal 8.0 Deployment and Administration )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 87 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which option best describes the workflows that can be achieved using the IBM WebSphere
Portal Configuration Wizard?
A. Enabling security.
B. Enabling security, transferring the portal database, and connecting to an existing database.
C. Enabling security, and transferring the portal database.
D. Enabling security, transferring the portal database, connecting to an existing database, and
enabling
IBM Lotus Domino integration(collaborative features, directory integration, and so on).
Answer: B

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NO.2 The business units of Mary's company have needs for their own portals. However, the
demand on server resources is not great enough to require parallel installations. In response, Mary's
company selected virtual portals.
Which of the following options are available across each of the virtual portals by default?
A. Portal search
B. Document management
C. Portal property file definitions
D. Anonymous pages per virtual portal
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following statements correctly describes how IBM WebSphere Portal's
functionality is implemented on the IBM WebSphere Application Server?
A. WebSphere Portal is deployed as a stand-alone, Java application using WebSphere Application
Server
client libraries.
B. WebSphere Portal is deployed as an enterprise application on the WebSphere Application Server.
C. WebSphere Portal is a stand-alone web server framework and is not related to WebSphere
Application
Server.
D. WebSphere Portal is deployed as a portlet to WebSphere Application Server's portlet container.
Answer: B

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NO.4 When setting up security for a stand-alone IBM WebSphere Portal profile that will become
part of a cluster, which of the following statements is correct?
A. Security should be set up on the stand-alone node prior to joining the deployment manager cell.
B. Security should be set up on the deployment manager cell after the node is added.
C. It makes no difference whether security is set up before or after the WebSphere Portal node joins
the
deployment manager cell.
D. The IBM WebSphere Integrated Solutions console, not WebSphere Portal security tasks, should
be
used to configure security.
Answer: B

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NO.5 If errors occur during the execution of ConfigEngine tasks, which of the following log files
contain the trace information for diagnosing the configuration issues?
A. ConfigTrace.log
B. ConfigEngine.log
C. SystemOut.log
D. SystemErr.log
Answer: A

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NO.6 Don isdesigning a highly-available, secure, high-traffic, public website for his company. If he
wants to use IBM WebSphere Portal, what components should he consider?
A. Dynamic cache and a stand-alone, WebSphere Portal server with disaster recovery.
B. An authentication and authorization solution, a load-balancing solution, a WebSphere Portal
server
cluster with HTTP servers handling staticcontent, clustered LDAP servers and database servers.
C. A WebSphere Portal server cluster, step-up authentication, and network-attached, storage
devices.
D. An authentication and authorization solution, a business process engine, and a WebSphere Portal
server cluster.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Sunil is designing a portal cluster for production. He is using a 32-bit version of IBM
WebSphere Portal server and has several multiprocessor servers with 16 GB of memory.
What type of cluster configuration should he use?
A. A vertical cluster, because it ensures minimal latency between cluster members.
B. A horizontal cluster, because it provides fault tolerance.
C. A combination of vertical and horizontal clusters to gain the benefits of both configuration types.
D. A multi-production cluster because it meets both high-availability and high-performance criteria.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following tools is not used by an IBM WebSphere Portal administrator for staging
data to a production environment?
A. Managed Pages
B. Syndication
C. Release Builder
D. XMLAccess
Answer: A

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NO.9 Bob is building a site that is displayed using either IBM Web Content Manager or a web server.
It is not using any IBM WebSphere Portal features such as portlets. The content is static and is only
updated periodically.
What delivery mechanism is best suited for this scenario?
A. Servlet delivery
B. Pre-rendered delivery
C. Local, web-content, viewer delivery
D. Remote, web-content, viewer delivery
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of the following direct migration paths to IBM WebSphere Portal 8.0 are supported.?
A. WebSphere Portal 5.1.0.x and 6.1.0.x.
B. WebSphere Portal 6.0.0.x and 7.0.0.x.
C. WebSphere Portal 6.1.5.x and 7.0.0.x.
D. All of the above.
Answer: C

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NO.11 What parameters need to be modified in the Installation Manager response file to change
the default port numbers during a silent installation?
A. -W portBlockInput.startingPortToScan=port number -W portBlockInput.endingPortToScan=port
number
-W portBlockInput.portBlockSize=blocksize
B. <data key='user.wp.admin.port,com.ibm.websphere.PORTAL.SERVER.v80'
value='<port>'/>and<data
key='user.wp.portal.port,com.ibm.websphere.PORTAL.SERVER.v80' value='<port>'/>
C. <port.admin='<port>'/>and<port.wps='<port>'/>
D. IBM WebSphere Portal always scans for active ports at 10000 and ends at 65000 during
installation.
This behavior cannot be affected usingcommand parameters.
Answer: B

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NO.12 IBM has confirmed that a single IBM WebSphere Portal installation can support __________
Virtual Portals.
A. 65
B. 115
C. 300
D. 215
E. All of the above.
Answer: E

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NO.13 At a high level, which of the following options best describes the sequence of steps that one
should take when setting up an IBM WebSphere Portal static cluster?
A. 1.Install and configure WebSphere Portal as a stand-alone node for each cluster node.
2.Federate each portal server node to the WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment cell
using
the addNode command.
3.Create a portal cluster using the ConfigEngine tasks.
4.Configure the cluster members to use the same database and user registry.
B. 1.UseWebSphere Application Server Network Deployment to create a managed node foreach
portal
node in the cluster.
2.Federate each of these nodes into theWebSphere Application Server Network Deployment cell
using
the addNode command.
3.Install and configure WebSphere Portal on each portal server node.
4.Use ConfigEngine tasks to configure the database, user registry, and create the cluster.
C. 1.Install WebSphere Portal on the first node, configure the database, and use the ConfigEngine
tasks
to create a profile template.
2.Prepare the first node to communicateWebSphere Application Server Network Deployment, and
use
addNode and ConfigEngine tasks toconfigure the cluster and user registry.
3.Install WebSphere Portal on additional nodes and use the profile template to configure.
4.Use the addNode and ConfigEngine tasks to federate the additional nodes and complete the
cluster
setup.
D. 1.UseWebSphere Application Server Network Deployment to create a cell and managed node for
each
portal node in the cluster.
2.Use the WebSphere Portal cluster profile template to install WebSphere Portal onto each node.
3.Use the ConfigEngine tasks to configure the nodes to use the same database and user registy.
4.Federate each of these nodes into the cluster by using the addNode and ConfigEngine tasks.
Answer: C

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NO.14 Bob needs to integrate IBM WebSphere Portal to handle tasks from several different backend
systems as a service. Bob can create tasks and specialized workflows using which of the following?
A. Unified Task Portlet
B. IBM Rational Application Developer Edition and Standard Portlet API
C. Unified Task Developer Edition and Collaborative Services API
D. Page Builder and Portlet Wires
Answer: A

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NO.15 George is gathering requirements for an IBM WebSphere Portal implementation. Among the
requirements is that the portal remembers the names of the most recently logged in users from a
particular browser, so that they are not required to log in each time they visit the site. How would
George
best implement this requirement?
A. George has to create a custom login portlet that reads and writes from a cookie that he has to
define.
B. George has to develop a trust association interceptor that bypasses the portal login.
C. George has to implement a third-party authentication mechanism.
D. George can use the built-in Remember Me functionality.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: A4040-121
Exam Name: IBM (Assessment: Virtualization Technical Support for IBM i -v1)
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Total Q&A: 102 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Disk from a fibre-attached V7000 disk subsystem will be used for an IBM i partition. What type
of adapter is required in the IBM i partition?
A. SAS disk adapter
B. Virtual SAS adapter
C. Virtual SCSI adapter
D. Fibre Channel adapter
Answer: C

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NO.2 A client IBM i 7.1 partition is being hosted by dual VIO Server partitions (VIOS-1 & VIOS-2). A
Shared Ethernet Adapter (SEA) has been created in order to provide Ethernet failover capability
for the IBM i partition. The IBM i partition will use the Ethernet resources of the VIO Server
partitions.
How many virtual Ethernet adapters need to be defined on the HMCI in the IBM i client, and VIO
Server partition profiles to support SEA and failover?
A. IBM i Client: 1 adapter:
VIOS-1: 1 adapter
VIOS-2: 1 adapter
B. IBM i Client: 2 adapters
VIOS-1: 1 adapter
VIOS-2: 1 adapter
C. IBM i Client: 1 adapter
VIOS-1: 2 adapters
VIOS-2: 2 adapters
D. IBM i Client: 2 adapters
VIOS-1: 2 adapters
VIOS-2: 2 adapters
Answer: C

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NO.3 A customer has purchased a new BladeCenter H (BCH) and POWER blade to run IBM i. The
POWER blade is configured with two Fibre Channel interlaces for attaching SAN and tape.
They have an IBM TS3500 tape library with a fibre channel connection, and current firmware is
running through a fibre switch to another IBM i system. One port on the existing switch and one
port in the BCH fibre switch has been zoned to provide a connection from the tape library to the
BCH.
After IBM i 7.1 SLIC and base OS are installed on the blade from IBM distribution media, the tape
library does not appear in the device configuration.
What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The existing switch does not support NPIV.
B. NPIV enablement was omitted when configuring the BCH switch.
C. The BCH switch configuration must match the link speed of the TS3500.
D. A switch-to-switch cable is required. A switch to device cable was shipped with the BCH by default.
Answer: A

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NO.4 A customer wants two VIO Servers in the CEO of a proposed Power 720. To provide redundancy
for the IBM V7000 SAN they will utilize to provision disk for his client partitions.
What is the minimum required to make this possible?
A. A 6-disk storage backplane
B. An 8-disk storage backplane
C. A 6-disk storage backplane and the split drive bay feature
D. An 8-disk storage backplane and the split drive bay feature
Answer: C

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NO.5 A customer has multiple POWERS 570 servers. The servers are controlled by multiple HMCs.
The customer is installing an additional Power 770 server in this environment but will retain their
existing HMCs. No updates to FSP or HMC levels have been made since installation of the
POWERS servers.
After reviewing the cover letters for ESP and HMC firmware levels, what updates are required to
support the addition of the new server into the network?
A. Update only the HMCs to the latest version.
B. Update only the FSPs to the latest release available.
C. Update the FSP5 and HMC5 of the existing systems to the minimum level required.
D. Update the POWERS ESPs to the most recent version available for the installed firmware
release. Update the HMCs to the most recent release available.
Answer: C

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NO.6 In addition to Qshell and PASE, what other product needs to be installed on an IBM i partition
in order to remotely run scripts on an HMC?
A. IBM Portable Utilities for i
B. IBM i Integrated Server Support
C. IBM Cryptographic Service Provider
D. IBM Network Authentication Enablement for i
Answer: A

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NO.7 An administrator wants to share a fibre attached TS3100 tape library between multiple IBM i7.1
partitions. The system contains a PC #5774 - 4Gb fibre adapter and uses an IBM fibre switch. All
IBM i partitions are hosted by VIO Server (VIOS).
How could the administrator configure the sharing of the tape library?
A. Configure NPIV within VIOS, then configure each partition to use NPIV to share the tape library.
B. Create a script that can be called after each backup job in a partition finishes, which will move
the fibre adapter to the next partition
C. In the HMC, select the host Power System, then select Operations - Schedule Operations -
New. Create a new Scheduled Dynamic Reconfiguration operation to move the fibre adapter
between partitions.
D. In the HMC, select the VIOS partition, then select Operations - Schedule Operations - Options -
New. Create a new Scheduled Dynamic Reconfiguration operation to move the fibre adapter
between partitions.
Answer: B

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NO.8 A customer needs two client IBM i partitions on a 4-core Power 720, with storage hosted by
VIO Server. What is the least expensive method to manage this environment?
A. HMC
B. Virtual Partition Manager
C. Integrated Virtualization Manager
D. Systems Director Navigator for PowerVM
Answer: C

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Exam Code: C4090-451
Exam Name: IBM (Midrange Storage Technical Support V3)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 103 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 A technical specialist is working with a customer that wants to utilize a Storwize V7000 for
iSCSI
connection in their environment. The technician and the customer are drawing up the connectivity
plan for the new installation.
Which of the following is a true statement regarding connectivity for the Storwize V7000?
A. The management and iSCSI ports must share the same VLAN.
B. Port 2 on each node canister is used for the service address.
C. Only one port from either node canister must have connection to the LAN.
D. The same IP address cannot be used for both management and iSCSI host use
Answer: D

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NO.2 From a file sharing perspective, which of the following is a competitive advantage of the
Storwize
V7000 Unified compared to EMC VNX and NetApp in 7-mode?
A. Multipath failover
B. CIFS and NFS support
C. Deduplication of the data
D. Active/Active engines with shareable namespace
Answer: D

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NO.3 The customer is having a problem adding LUNs from a SAN-attached DS5020. The LUNs are
showing up multiple times. The hosts are running Windows 2008 R2 Enterprise.
How can this situation be resolved?
A. Install RDAC for DS5020
B. Check the default HBA settings
C. Install IBM MPIO Device Specific Module (DSM)
D. Install SDDDSM drivers and update HBA firmware
Answer: C

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NO.4 What GUI-based system management tool is used to manage N series storage subsystems and
N
series system objects?
A. OnCommand
B. AutoSupport
C. SnapManager Suite
D. Tivoli Storage Manager
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following is true about volume compression in a SAN Volume Controller?
A. Compressed volumes can be used to create Full, Incremental, and Nocopy flashcopies.
B. If a storage pool contains a compressed volume then every volume in that pool is compressed.
C. Compression should never be used for active live data such as an online transaction
processing database.
D. 25% of the virtual capacity of each compressed volume must be reserved as working space for
re-expansion of compressed data.
Answer: A

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NO.6 A customer just purchased a Storwize V7000 and wants to upgrade their warranty. What is the
best standard warranty available for the customer?
A. 9x5 with 4 hour response
B. 24x7 with 4 hour response
C. 24x7 with 2 hour response
D. 24x7 with 1 hour response
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is the default RAID configuration for a Storwize V7000 using 3 TB drives?
A. RAIDO
B. RAID 5
C. RAID 6
D. RAID 10
Answer: C

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NO.8 A technical specialist has been asked to design a solution to address a video imaging archiving
need. The customer needs to store images on disk for 90 days then keep them on tape for a
period of 7 years. There will be little access to the data once it is written initially, unless it is
needed for legal reasons. There is no need for high performance and the video files are quite large
in size. Initially, there will be 20 TB of data to be archived with an estimated annual growth of 50
percent for the next five years. The customer wants to add the tape system into a 42U rack and
wants to be able to scale the tape system for more cartridge slots and more drives
What solution should the technical specialist recommend to meet these requirements?
A. TS3500 with LTO-5 drives
B. TS3100 with LTO-5 drives
C. TS3310with LTO-5 drives
D. TS3200 with LTO-5 drives
Answer: C

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Exam Code: M2010-665
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Tivoli Storage Sales Mastery Test v4)
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Total Q&A: 26 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 An example of EMC Avamar’s missing features is which of the following?
A. CDP
B. Support large Environments with a single instance
C. Clear integration with other EMC Products
D. All of the above
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which product does NOT belong to the IBM SmartCloud Virtual Storage solution?
A. Tivoli Productivity Center
B. Tivoli Storage Manager
C. SAN Volume Controller
D. Flash Copy Manager
Answer: B

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NO.3 What Common capabilities does a storage Hypervisor provide?
A. Encryption
B. Can increase performance by using the EMC pass through driver
C. Thin provisioning
D. Scheduling
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the follow is IBM's entrance into the "Storage Hypervisor" market?
A. IBM SmartCloud Virtual Storage Center
B. Tivoli Storage Hypervisor Manager
C. Tivoli Smart Storage Manager
D. Flash Copy Manager for Virtual Environments
Answer: A

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NO.5 What will the Storage Hypervisor will provide when pooling resources?
A. Better Utilization of physical servers
B. Allowing use of disk by any system on the network
C. Providing data quickly and easily to Virtual machines
D. All of the above
Answer: C

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NO.6 TSM for Virtual Environments does which of the following?
A. Better utilization across many different types of disk
B. Pooled physical resources are consumed by virtual machines resulting in high asset utilization
C. Allows VMware to backup via the vStorage API
D. Provides a common set of value capabilities and centralized management on Zen
Environments
Answer: C

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NO.7 TSM's new support for z/OS provides which of the following?
A. Direct access to open systems tape
B. Data mobility between zOS and PASE
C. Ability to share mainframe tape with the open systems environment
Answer: A

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NO.8 What did doubling the capacity of the TSM server Database provide?
A. TADDAM support
B. Integration into VMware
C. Allows us to manage more data then any other product on the market
D. Limits the growth of the environment
Answer: C

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NO.9 Server Hypervisor's do NOT provide which of the following?
A. Better utilization across many different types of disk
B. Pooled physical resources are consumed by virtual machines resulting in high asset utilization
C. Virtual machines are mobile giving CIO's their choice of physical server device
D. Acommon set of value capabilities and centralized management are provided for virtual
machines regardless of what physical server they are sitting on
Answer: A

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NO.10 IBM's Storage Hypervisor is named___________.
A. IBM Hypervisor
B. IBM SAN Volume Controller
C. IBMSmartCloud Virtual Storage Center
D. IBM SmartCloud Virtual Storage Manager
Answer: B

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Exam Code: C4090-454
Exam Name: IBM (IBM High-End Tape Technical Solutions V7)
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Total Q&A: 76 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which company is a key competitor to IBM in the enterprise tape area?
A. HP
B. HDS
C. Oracle
D. Quantum
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is limited by Performance Increments in the TS7700?
A. Host Read only
B. Host Write only
C. Host Read and Write
D. Host Read, Write and Grid Replication
Answer: B

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NO.3 A customer has an installed TS3SOO Tape Library with one L23 frame with only four TS1140
model drives. All are currently attached to open systems servers. The library and drives are being
moved to another location and attached to a local z/OS system.
Which additional hardware is essential at the new location to support four TS1140 drives?
A. 3953-F05 with 3592-007
B. 3952-F05 with 3592-007
C. 3953-F05 with L05 Library Manager
D. 3584-D23 with one Fibre Channel switch
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following best describes the TS1140 EastSync function?
A. Matches the input and output data rates of the main buffer
B. Uses a non-volatile cache for small transaction sizes (less than 204 MB compressed)
C. Reads forward to the requested target block rather than performing a higher-speed tape motion
D. Improves synchronized write performance for larger transactions (greater than 204 MB
compressed)
Answer: B

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NO.5 To what value should the missing interrupt handler (MIH) be set for 3592 tape drives?
A. 93 minutes
B. 39 minutes
C. Auto set by the system
D. set explicitly to “disabled”
Answer: C

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NO.6 A customer is in the process of installing a two node TS7740 grid with a single production site.
The
second site used for DR is 50 km away. They want to set all logical volumes to have a size of 6
GB.
What is a possible effect on the customer’s tape workload?
A. It may increase the recall time for logical volumes
B. It may increase the amount of data stored on stacked volumes
C. It may increase the mount time for fast ready scratch volumes
D. It may increase the amount of data stored in the tape volume cache
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which two of the following environments are supported for use with a TS7700? (Select two)
A. AIX
B. z/VSE
C. z/TPF
D. MVS/ESA
E. z/Linux
Answer: B,C

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NO.8 What function does the TS7700 Sync Mode Copy enable or perform?
A. It copies the synchronized volumes between the clusters
B. It synchronizes the copies of the TS7700 databases between clusters
C. After writing the entire volume the TS7700 uses Sync Mode Copy to synchronize the data
between all clusters
D. When the host application issues an explicit synchronize operation all previously written records
are replicated to another cluster
Answer: D

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NO.9 In a TS7700 R2.x system, how many logical paths are provided by the minimum FICON adapter
configuration?
A. 256
B. 512
C. 1024
D. 2048
Answer: B

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NO.10 A customer has two TS7740 V07 at Release 3 in a two-way grid across two sites. There is a new
requirement for a subset of the data created in Site A (Cluster 0) to be written in both sites but to
be in Site B (Cluster 1) at the end of the job.
What method is best employed to achieve this with the least impact on the batch run, and at the
lowest cost?
A. Setup a policy for the data creating a copy consistency of RR in Site A
B. Setup a policy for the data creating a copy consistency of RD in Site A
C. Set up a policy for the data creating a copy consistency of DR in Site A
D. Connect Site A to the TS7740 in Site B with two PICON channels and run the jobs using logical
units on Site B
Answer: C

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Exam Code: A2150-196
Exam Name: IBM (Assess: IBM Security QRadar SIEM V7.1 Implementation)
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Total Q&A: 122 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 What are false positive rules?
A. Rules that create offenses that the user should ignore.
B. Rules that have matched could severely impact the environment.
C. Rules that make use of the tests relation And Not. The test that follows this relation, if positively
matched, will be negated and evaluated as not matched.
D. They are mostly made out of building blocks and filtered out events or flows from the Correlation
Rule Engine pipeline using selection criteria that deem the matching events or flows should not
contribute to an offense.
Answer: D

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NO.2 What will happen when a user sets a search as default?
A. The search will be set as the user's default search.
B. All IBM Securily Qradar SIEM V7.1 (QRadar) users will have that search set as their default search.
C. QRadar users will be able to select that search as their default from a list of searches.
D. Only users with permission to view the data in the search results will see the search as an option.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which log file contains all of the relevant logging data for IBM Security Qradar SIEM V7.1?
A. /var/Iog/qradar.txt
B. /var/Iog/qradar.log
C. /var/Iog/messages
D. /var/Iog/qradar.error
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which infrastructure components must be present before installing any of the virtual
appliances?
A. VMware ESX 3.7 with VMware vSphere client 3.9 fix pack 12
B. VMware ESXi 4.0.8 with VMware Workstation 9.0 installed on the desktop
C. VMware ESXi 4.1 with VMware vSphere client 4.1 installed on the desktop
D. VMware Workstation 8.0.4 or above with VMware vSphere client 4.0 installed on the desktop
Answer: C

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NO.5 What must be done to obtain a token for an Authorized Service for WinCollect?
A. Select Authorized Service under the WinCollect plug-in
B. Add the service as an Authorized Service in the Admin tab
C. Go to System and License Management and add an Authorized Service
D. Go to Console Settings and add the already configured WinCollect as an Authorized Service
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is a best practice when creating users and assigning roles?
A. For one-off user creation or for a quick task, assign a user to the Admin role.
B. Create a role for each user to make it easy to manage an individual's permissions.
C. To make user management less time-consuming, create general user accounts with broad to
specific permissions that can be shared between staff.
D. Group users with like duties together and create roles with permissions that satisfy their business
requirements; create roles for individuals only in cases of a special permission requirement.
Answer: D

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NO.7 On the Index Management page, what does the value of the Data Written column represent?
A. The total amount of data the indexer has processed.
B. The total amount of data consumed on disk by the index.
C. The amount of data the indexer processed during the selected time range.
D. The amount of data consumed on the disk by the index during the selected time range.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which connection type to the console is required to run qchange_netsetup?
A. Local
B. SSH
C. RDP
D. Telnet
Answer: A

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