HP HP2-Z20 exam practice questions and answers

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Exam Code: HP2-Z20
Exam Name: HP (S-Series Networking Product Authorization)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 34 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which flow control options can TippingPoint Intrusion Protection System (IPS) apply to traffic, based on
policy? (Select three.)
A. rate-limit
B. block
C. return to source
D. fragment the traffic
E. permit/alert
F. reroute to another destination
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.2 What are capabilities of the TippingPoint Security Management System (SMS)? (Select two.)
A. management of additional SMS devices
B. Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)
C. event reporting for any managed IPS devices
D. management of other non-TippingPoint devices
E. Digital Vaccine updates
Answer: C,E

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NO.3 Which features distinguish TippingPoint Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) products from each other.?
(Select two.)
A. how they access the SSH CLI of the IPS
B. Policy Management using segments/segment groups
C. number of segments
D. inspection throughput
E. how they access the Web Interface (LSM)
Answer: C,D

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S10-201 practice tests

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Exam Code: S10-201
Exam Name: SNIA (SNIA Storage Networking Management & Administration)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 95 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-29

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NO.1 The SAN audit reports that there is a single fabric in a full mesh topology. Which three benefits result
from migrating to dual fabrics with full mesh topologies.? (Choose three.)
A. less inter-switch links
B. simplifies manageability
C. protection from human error
D. reduction in maintenance activity
E. decreased maintenance disruption
Answer: A, C, E

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NO.2 Which two are advantages of ISL over-subscription? (Choose two.)
A. efficient ISL bandwidth utilization
B. lowers cost-per-port per installation
C. higher performance per ISL
D. enables zoning simplicity
E. more available F_Ports
Answer: A, E

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NO.3 Last month, you successfully merged two local SAN islands into a single core/edge fabric topology and
connected storage devices to the core switches. Performance benchmarks were met or exceeded. In
recent days, server administrators have documented a slow down in performance as I/O demands have
increased. Storage administrators report that all storage ports are under-utilized. What is the most likely
explanation?
A. conflicts between SAN routing protocols
B. storage port buffer credit limits have restricted I/O capabilities
C. multiple process login failures
D. over utilitization of one or more ISLs
Answer: D

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NO.4 A customer has a database server that processes a great deal of data very quickly. They have identified
a bottleneck in the storage subsystem and requested a change to the RAID configuration. How would you
configure the new RAID group? (Choose two.)
A. Stripe across 7200 rpm drives
B. Stripe across 15K rpm drives
C. RAID 6
D. RAID 1+0
E. RAID 5
Answer: B, D

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NO.5 A storage configuration was created which stores large amounts of infrequently used documents. The
storage implementation is based on serial attached SCSI (SAS) and an edge expander. Almost all ports
are utilized, and a second edge expander will be installed. What is required to connect SATA devices to
the SAS domain?
A. SAS-SATA adapter
B. SAS-SATA protocol converter
C. cable with two SATA connectors
D. cable with a SAS and a SATA connector
Answer: C

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NO.6 Two servers have been connected to a SAN with redundant fabrics and the zone configuration needs to
be changed. How can you safely change the zone configuration?
A. Save the current zone configuration to disk, modify it and apply it to both fabrics simultaneously to
avoid segmentation.
B. Modify the zone configuration on one fabric, test it, and then modify the zone configuration on the
second fabric.
C. Modify the zone configuration on one fabric, test it, and then copy the zone configuration to the second
fabric.
D. Modify the zone configuration on both fabrics at the same time, enable them simultaneously to avoid
segmentation.
Answer: B

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NO.7 What two benefits does SCSI Command Tag Queueing provide? (Choose two.)
A. allows I/O requests to be queued to the device
B. determines the most efficient way to order & process commands
C. tags I/O requests so they can be executed first in first out
D. allows SCSI I/O throughput to equal rates of fibre channel
E. determines queue depth position
Answer: A, B

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NO.8 The customer has an existing fabric switches installed from one manufacturer. They have decided to
add a redundant fabric using switches from a different manufacturer. Interoperability is their main concern.
What is important when considering interoperability in the SAN?
A. switch interoperability mode
B. HBA firmware/driver code
C. zone naming convention
D. virtualization engine
Answer: D

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NO.9 You are the system administrator of a medium-sized manufacturing company. The chief executive
officer (CEO) is concerned about business continuity in case of a disaster. He constituted a project team
to develop a business continuity and disaster recovery solution. The team is discussing online backup
strategies. What affects time-to-create and incremental update of a copy-on-write snapshot?
A. number of files
B. number of LUNs
C. size of snap volume
D. size of LUN
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which set of SCSI components are required to support SCSI command tag queueing?
A. adapter, adapter driver, device, device driver
B. adapter, device, device driver
C. adapter, device driver, controller, controller firmware
D. device, device driver
Answer: A

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NO.11 Your customer has upgraded to faster tape technology and the backup is now taking longer. No other
changes have been made. What is a possible cause of the performance degradation?
A. tape buffer overload
B. hardware compression
C. backup server cannot sustain required throughput
D. serpentine recording changed to helical scan technology
Answer: C

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NO.12 The storage administrator has a request to add more storage to support added features on an
application. Which two steps must be taken for the application to recognize the added storage? (Choose
two.)
A. re-scan the SCSI bus
B. enable array re-scanning
C. configure LUN masking
D. zone the host to the subsystem port
E. increase the HBA time out value
Answer: A, C

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NO.13 You have a single fabric with four servers connecting to an edge switch in a core edge configuration with
single 2Gb/s ISLs to the core. Each server has an average throughput requirement of 40MB/s. Under
which circumstance would you need to add a second ISL?
A. to provide a redundant path
B. to avoid congestion on the ISL
C. to separate out FSPF updates
D. to provide a management path
Answer: A

SNIA   S10-201   S10-201

NO.14 An application administrator seeks to improve the I/O performance of the server's SAN-attached
storage. Which HBA parameter setting change can affect the performance?
A. Queue Depth
B. PCI Connection Type
C. NL-Port Mode
D. SCSI ID Mapping
Answer: A

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NO.15 What enables a virtual machine to have a unique World Wide Port Name?
A. Address Replacement Protocol
B. Virtual Machine Address Translation
C. N_Port ID Virtualization
D. extended WWID Architecture
Answer: C

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NO.16 A production cluster is attached to redundant disk fabrics and a tape fabric. Each cluster member has
access to twelve (12) TB of RAID 5 production storage and twelve (12) TB of RAID 0 local replica
accessed through eight HBAs single initiator zoned to sixteen storage ports on one storage subsystem.
The tape fabric includes one connection to each server and connections to four (4) 1Gb FC to SCSI
gateways connected to ten (10) LTO II (35MB/s) tape drives. The standby cluster member performs
multi-threaded backups using the local replica. All HBAs and ports are 2Gb/s. If the recovery time is equal
to backup time, where is the bottleneck?
A. Tape HBA
B. Disk HBAs
C. Tape Drives
D. FC to SCSI Gateway
Answer: A

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NO.17 After a company experienced a localized disaster, the Business Continuance Plan was reviewed. The
plan was revised to include a Recovery Time Objective (RTO) of four (4) hours and a Recovery Point
Object (RPO) of one hour. What two processes must be implemented to support this requirement?
(Choose two.)
A. mirrored snapshots of data and applications
B. backup tapes recovered from offsite storage
C. data snapshots from the previous day
D. operating system and application reinstallation media
E. hot or warm site
Answer: A, E

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NO.18 A two fabric merge has failed leaving you with segmented fabrics. Which could be the the cause of the
segmented fabrics?
A. unique domain Ids
B. identical zone names
C. timeouts set to equal values
D. non-compatible interoperability modes
Answer: B

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NO.19 A server administrator notices when a specific server is re-booted its SAN storage is sometimes visible
and sometimes it is not. After examining the SAN switch logs, no FLOGI message has been received on
that port. Which HBA parameter is a most likely cause?
A. Port Link/Speed is set to Autonegotiate.
B. WWPN reset timeout is set too low.
C. R_A_TOV does not match.
D. HBA Port Type is set to "E-Port"
Answer: A

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NO.20 University IT provides shared Fibre Channel storage services. All storage subsystems and fibre
channel switches are located in the secure campus datacenter. Each college and department provides
their own systems and staff. Central IT provides fabric, storage and backup administration. Which security
mechanism is most important in this Fibre Channel infrastructure?
A. FCPAP
B. link encryption
C. switch authentication
D. port authentication
Answer: D

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090-160 practice tests

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Exam Code: 090-160
Exam Name: SCO (SCO OPENSERVER(TM) RELEASE 5 RECERTIFICATION V30A1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 99 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-29

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NO.1 Which level of backup is used when you perform an unscheduled backup?
A. Level 0
B. Level 1
C. Level 2
D. Level 3
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which scoadmin(ADM) manager do you use to configure a parallel port?
A. System Manager
B. Printer Manager
C. Software Manager
D. Hardware/Kernel Manager
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which command causes the inetd daemon to re-read the /etc/inetd.conf file?
A. inetd restart
B. kill -1 PID, where PID is the process ID of the inetd process
C. telinit inetd
D. Nothing, the changes will take effect immediately
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which shutdown(ADM) option specifies the amount of time the system will pause before
shutting
down?
A. -f
B. -g
C. -i
D. -y
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which mail channel protocol is used by SCO OpenServer to transmit outgoing e-mail over a
TCP/IP network?
A. POP3
B. IMAP4
C. SMTP
D. SNMP
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which filesystems support versioning?
A. EAFS and HTFS
B. DTFS and HTFS
C. EAFS, DTFS, and HTFS
D. All supported filesystems
Answer: B

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NO.7 SCO OpenServer Release 5 recognizes the main built-in parallel port for a server as lp0. The
interrupt vector it typically uses is:
A. IRQ 3
B. IRQ 5
C. IRQ 7
D. IRQ 11
Answer: C

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NO.8 If a printer will be down for an extended period, which command should you use to prevent
jobs
from accumulating in that printers queue?
A. disable(C)
B. cancel(C)
C. lpshut(ADM)
D. reject(ADM)
Answer: D

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NO.9 What must be properly configured for a Windows user to access SCO OpenServer files via
VisionFS?
A. Only SCO OpenServer permissions
B. Only VisionFS share access
C. Both SCO OpenServer permissions and VisionFS share access
D. Neither, any Windows user may access any shared SCO OpenServer file using VisionFS
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which command can be used to reactivate a retired user account on a system with a security
profile set to traditional?
A. activate(ADM)
B. restore(ADM)
C. unretire(ADM)
D. A retired account cannot be reactivated.
Answer: C

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SASInstitute A00-201 training and testing

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Exam Code: A00-201
Exam Name: SASInstitute (SAS base programming exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 140 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-29

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NO.1 The following SAS program is submitted:
libname rawdata1 'location of SAS data library';
filename rawdata2 'location of raw data file';
data work.testdata;
infile <insert item here>;
input sales1 sales2;
run;
Which one of the following is needed to complete the program correctly?
A. rawdata1
B. rawdata2
C. 'rawdata1'
D. 'rawdata2'
Answer: B

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NO.2 The contents of the raw data file CALENDAR are listed below:
----|----10---|----20---|----30
01012000
The following SAS program is submitted:
data test;
infile 'calendar';
input @1 date mmddyy10.;
if date = '01012000'd then event = 'January 1st';
run;
Which one of the following is the value of the EVENT variable?
A. 01012000
B. January 1st
C. . (missing numeric value)
D. The value can not be determined as the program fails to execute due to errors.
Answer: D

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NO.3 A raw data record is listed below:
----|----10---|----20---|----30
Printing 750
The following SAS program is submitted:
data bonus;
infile 'file-specification';
input dept $ 1 - 11 number 13 - 15;
<insert code here>
run;
Which one of the following SAS statements completes the program and results in a value of 'Printing750'
for the DEPARTMENT variable?
A. department = trim(dept) || number;
B. department = dept || input(number,3.);
C. department = trim(dept) || put(number,3.);
D. department = input(dept,11.) || input(number,3.);
Answer: C

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NO.4 The contents of two SAS data sets named EMPLOYEE and SALARY are listed below:
The following SAS program is submitted:
data work.empsalary;
merge work.employee (in = inemp)
work.salary (in = insal);
by name;
if inemp and insal;
run;
How many observations will the data set WORK.EMPSALARY contain?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Answer: B

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NO.5 The following SAS program is submitted:
libname sasdata 'SAS-data-library';
data test;
set sasdata.chemists;
if jobcode = 'chem3'
then description = 'Senior Chemist';
else description = 'Unknown';
run;
A value for the variable JOBCODE is listed below:
JOBCODE
CHEM3
Which one of the following values does the variable DESCRIPTION contain?
A. chem3
B. Unknown
C. Senior Chemist
D. ' ' (missing character value)
Answer: B

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NO.6 A raw data record is shown below:
07.an2002
Which one of the following informats would read this value and store it as a SAS date value?
A. date9.
B. ddmonyy9.
C. ddMMMyy9.
D. ddmmmyyyy9.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit button to view a listing of the SASUSER.HOUSES data set.
The following SAS program is submitted:
proc report data = sasuser.houses nowd headline;
column style price;
where price lt 100000;
<insert DEFINE statement here>
define price / mean width = 9;
title;
run;
The following ouput is created by the REPORT procedure:
Which one of the following DEFINE statements completes the above program and produces the above
output?
A. define style / order width = 9;
B. define style / group width = 9;
C. define style / across width = 9;
D. define style / display width = 9;
Answer: B

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NO.8 The following SAS program is submitted:
data work.retail;
cost = '20000';
total = .10 * cost;
run;
Which one of the following is the value of the variable TOTAL in the output data set?
A. 2000
B. '2000'
C. . (missing numeric value)
D. ' ' (missing character value)
Answer: A

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NO.9 The following SAS program is submitted:
data work.total;
set work.salary(keep = department wagerate);
by department;
if first.department then payroll = 0;
payroll + wagerate;
if last.department;
run;
The SAS data set WORK.SALARY, currently ordered by DEPARTMENT, contains 100 observations for
each of 5 departments.
Which one of the following represents how many observations the WORK.TOTAL data set contains?
A. 5
B. 20
C. 100
D. 500
Answer: A

SASInstitute   A00-201 original questions   A00-201

NO.10 The following SAS program is submitted:
proc means data = sasuser.houses std mean max;
var sqfeet; run;
Which one of the following is needed to display the standard deviation with only two decimal places?
A. Add the option MAXDEC = 2 to the MEANS procedure statement.
B. Add the statement MAXDEC = 7.2; in the MEANS procedure step.
C. Add the statement FORMAT STD 7.2; in the MEANS procedure step.
D. Add the option FORMAT = 7.2 option to the MEANS procedure statement.
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which one of the following is true when SAS encounters a data error in a DATA step?
A. The DATA step stops executing at the point of the error, and no SAS data set is created.
B. A note is written to the SAS log explaining the error, and the DATA step continues to execute.
C. A note appears in the SAS log that the incorrect data record was saved to a separate SAS file for
further examination.
D. The DATA step stops executing at the point of the error, and the resulting DATA set contains
observations up to that point.
Answer: B

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NO.12 The following SAS program is submitted and reads 100 records from a raw data file:
data work.total;
infile 'file-specification' end = eof;
input name $ salary;
totsal + salary;
<insert IF statement here>
run;
Which one of the following IF statements writes the last observation to the output data set?
A. if end = 0;
B. if eof = 0;
C. if end = 1;
D. if eof = 1;
Answer: D

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NO.13 The following SAS program is submitted:
data work.month;
date = put('13mar2000'd,ddmmyy10.);
run;
Which one of the following represents the type and length of the variable DATE in the output data set?
A. numeric, 8 bytes
B. numeric, 10 bytes
C. character, 8 bytes
D. character, 10 bytes
Answer: D

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NO.14 The following SAS program is submitted:
data work.flights;
destination = 'CPH';
select(destination);
when('LHR') city = 'London';
when('CPH') city = 'Copenhagen';
otherwise;
end;
run;
Which one of the following is the value of the CITY variable?
A. London
B. Copenh
C. Copenhagen
D. ' ' (missing character value)
Answer: B

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NO.15 The following SAS program is submitted:
data work.staff;
JobCategory = 'FA';
JobLevel = '1';
JobCategory = JobCategory || JobLevel;
run;
Which one of the following is the value of the variable JOBCATEGORY in the output data set?
A. FA
B. FA1
C. FA 1
D. ' ' (missing character value)
Answer: A

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NO.16 The following SAS DATA step is submitted:
libname temp 'SAS-data-library';
data temp.report;
set sasuser.houses;
newvar = price * 1.04;
run;
Which one of the following statements is true regarding the program above?
A. The program is reading from a temporary data set and writing to a temporary data set.
B. The program is reading from a temporary data set and writing to a permanent data set.
C. The program is reading from a permanent data set and writing to a temporary data set.
D. The program is reading from a permanent data set and writing to a permanent data set.
Answer: D

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NO.17 The SAS data set named WORK.TEST is listed below:
Which one of the following SAS programs created this data set?
A. data work.test;
capacity = 150;
if 100 le capacity le 200 then
airplanetype = 'Large' and staff = 10;
else airplanetype = 'Small' and staff = 5;
run;
B. data work.test;
capacity = 150;
if 100 le capacity le 200 then
do;
airplanetype = 'Large';
staff = 10;
end;
else
do;
airplanetype = 'Small';
staff = 5;
end;
run;
C. data work.test;
capacity = 150;
if 100 le capacity le 200 then
do;
airplanetype = 'Large';
staff = 10;
else
do;
airplanetype = 'Small'; airplanetype = 'Small';
staff = 5;
end;
run;
D. data work.test;D.data work.test;
capacity = 150;
if 100 le capacity le 200 then;
airplanetype = 'Small'; airplanetype = 'Small';
staff = 5;
else;
airplanetype = 'Large'; airplanetype = 'Large';
staff = 10;
run;
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which one of the following statements is true regarding the name of a SAS array?
A. It is saved with the data set.
B. It can be used in procedures.
C. It exists only for the duration of the DATA step.
D. It can be the same as the name of a variable in the data set.
Answer: C

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NO.19 The following SAS SORT procedure step generates an output data set:
proc sort data = sasuser.houses out = report;
by style;
run;
In which library is the output data set stored?
A. WORK
B. REPORT
C. HOUSES
D. SASUSER
Answer: A

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NO.20 The contents of the raw data file FURNITURE are listed below:
----|----10---|----20---|----30
chair,,table
chair,couch,table
The following SAS program is submitted:
data stock;
infile 'furniture' dsd;
input item1 $ item2 $ item3 $;
run;
Which one of the following is the value of the variable named ITEM2 in the first observation of the output
data set?
A. table
B. ,table
C. . (missing numeric value)
D. ' ' (missing character value)
Answer: D

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Exam Code: A00-240
Exam Name: SASInstitute (SAS Certified Statistical Business Analyst Using SAS 9: Regression and Modeling Credential)
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Total Q&A: 65 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-29

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NO.1 A company has branch offices in eight regions. Customers within each region are classified as
either "High Value" or "Medium Value" and are coded using the variable name VALUE. In the last
year, the total amount of purchases per customer is used as the response variable.
Suppose there is a significant interaction between REGION and VALUE. What can you conclude?
A. More high value customers are found in some regions than others.
B. The difference between average purchases for medium and high value customers depends on
the region.
C. Regions with higher average purchases have more high value customers.
D. Regions with higher average purchases have more medium value customers.
Answer: B

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NO.2 A non-contributing predictor variable (Pr > |t| =0.658) is added to an existing multiple linear
regression model.
What will be the result?
A. An increase in R-Square
B. A decrease in R-Square
C. A decrease in Mean Square Error
D. No change in R-Square
Answer: A

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NO.3 A linear model has the following characteristics:
*A dependent variable (y)
*One continuous variable (xl), including a quadratic term (x12)
*One categorical (d with 3 levels) predictor variable and an interaction term (d by x1)
How many parameters, including the intercept, are associated with this model?
Enter your numeric answer in the space below. Do not add leading or trailing spaces to your
answer.
Answer: 7

NO.4 Refer to the exhibit:
The box plot was used to analyze daily sales data following three different ad campaigns.
The business analyst concludes that one of the assumptions of ANOVA was violated.
Which assumption has been violated and why?
A. Normality, because Prob > F < .0001.
B. Normality, because the interquartile ranges are different in different ad campaigns.
C. Constant variance, because Prob > F < .0001.
D. Constant variance, because the interquartile ranges are different in different ad campaigns.
Answer: D

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NO.5 This question will ask you to provide a missing option.
Complete the following syntax to test the homogeneity of variance assumption in the GLM
procedure:
Means Region / <insert option here> =levene;
A. test
B. adjust
C. var
D. hovtest
Answer: D

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NO.6 Suppose training data are oversampled in the event group to make the number of events and
nonevents
roughly equal. A logistic regression is run and the probabilities are output to a data set
NEW and given the variable name PE. A decision rule considered is, "Classify data as an event if
probability is greater than 0.5." Also the data set NEW contains a variable TG that indicates
whether there is an event (1=Event, 0= No event).
The following SAS program was used.
What does this program calculate?
A. Depth
B. Sensitivity
C. Specificity
D. Positive predictive value
Answer: B

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NO.7 In partitioning data for model assessment, which sampling methods are acceptable? (Choose
two.)
A. Simple random sampling without replacement
B. Simple random sampling with replacement
C. Stratified random sampling without replacement
D. Sequential random sampling with replacement
Answer: A,C

SASInstitute   A00-240   A00-240 exam

NO.8 The following LOGISTIC procedure output analyzes the relationship between a binary response
and an ordinal predictor variable, wrist_size Using reference cell coding, the analyst selects Large
(L) as the reference level.
What is the estimated logit for a person with large wrist size?
Click the calculator button to display a calculator if needed.
A. 0.0819
B. 0.5663
C. -3.7727
D. -1.0415
Answer: D

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NO.9 What is the default method in the LOGISTIC procedure to handle observations with missing
data?
A. Missing values are imputed.
B. Parameters are estimated accounting for the missing values.
C. Parameter estimates are made on all available data.
D. Only cases with variables that are fully populated are used.
Answer: D

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Exam Name: Riverstone (Riverbed Certified Solutions Associate)
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Total Q&A: 166 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-29

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NO.1 What are basic components of the Interceptor appliance? (Select 3)
A. Load Balancing
B. Redirection
C. Peer Affinity
D. Optimization
E. Store SDR data
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.2 When deploying a Steelhead appliance server-side out-of-path in the data center, what will be the IP
address seen by the destination server in the data center?
A. The client PC s IP address
B. The client-side Steelhead appliance s Primary IP address
C. The client-side Steelhead appliance s In-path IP address
D. The server-side Steelhead appliance s Primary IP address
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which TCP option (probe) is used on the Steelhead Mobile client for auto-discovery?
A. 0x4c
B. 0xc4
C. 0xd4
D. Steelhead Mobile client must use fixed-target rules
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following status states of the Steelhead appliance are valid? (Select 3)
A. Degraded
B. Normal
C. Healthy
D. Critical
E. Failed
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.5 What are the benefits of Application Streamlining?
A. Applications run up to 100 times faster
B. Reduces application chattiness by 65-98%
C. Accelerates the most important applications, such as CIFS. MAPI, NFS. HTTP/S, and MS-SQL Lotus
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Answer: D

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NO.6 Assuming the Steelhead appliance has a 250 GB database capacity, by enabling PFS on a supported
Steelhead appliance which of the following would be true:
A. The database capacity will shrink due to the amount of space by PFS
B. The database capacity will grow due to the amount of space by PFS
C. The database capacity does not change
D. The database capacity will have to be reformatted
Answer: C

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NO.7 Steelhead appliance models vary according to which of the following attributes?
Number of concurrent TCP connections that can be optimized
Amount of disk storage available for Scalable Data Referencing
Level of encryption supported
Maximum possible in-path interfaces
A. 1, 2, and 3
B. 1, 2, and 4
C. 2,3, and 4
D. 1, 3. and 4
E. 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: B

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NO.8 Refer to the exhibit.
Which of the following correctly describes the combination of cable types used in a fail-to-wire
scenario for the interconnected devices shown in the exhibit? Assume Auto-MDIX is not enabled on any
device.
A. Cable 1: Crossover, Cable 2: Crossover
B. Cable 1: Straight-through, Cable 3: Straight-through
C. Cable 1: Crossover, Cable 2: Straight-through
D. Cable 1: Straight through, Cable 2: Crossover
Answer: C

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NO.9 The key difference between the *Degraded* status and the *Critical* status is:
A. With degraded, only one alarm has been triggered, whereas with critical, two or more alarms were
triggered
B. With degraded, the Steelhead appliance is still optimizing traffic, whereas with critical the Steelhead
may or may not be optimizing
C. With degraded, there is no optimization due to a software problem, whereas with critical there is no
optimization due to a hardware problem
D. With both degraded and critical, optimization functions as normal however administrator attention is
required.
Answer: B

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NO.10 An employee who has just installed Steelhead Mobile onto her workstation notices that she never gets
any reduction. It always says 0%. The status of the mobile client appears to be:
Optimization Status : Firewalled
Controller Status : Connected
The reason she is seeing 0% reduction statistics is:
A. Location Awareness is in effect
B. The physical branch Steelhead appliance is her office is behind a firewall
C. The office firewall is stripping the IP options field
D. Her workstation is blocking TCP port 7801
E. The data center is currently firewalling all optimized connections
Answer: D

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Exam Code: ES0-007
Exam Name: RES Software (RES Workspace Manager 2012 Exam)
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Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-29

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NO.1 An international Terminal Server farm centrally based in New York has users with different
languages working on it. The best way to create a language-dynamic Start Menu is to base it on
1. Zones.

NO.2 The option “Allow users to restore their own settings” is selected for an application, but a
user of
the application complains that the “Restore” option has not become available. What is the most
likely cause?
A. The option “number of sessions to keep” has not been set.
B. The user has no stored settings to restore.
C. The application is running in Sampling mode.
D. The user has selected the option “Do not show this message again”.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following notations can be used when creating a Drive Mapping in RES
Workspace
Manager?
1. Http://to a WebDAV folder
2. Https:// to a WebDAV folder
3. Local path to a folder
4. UNC path to a shared folder
A. 4 only
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: C

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NO.4 Keyboard mappings.

NO.5 Environment Variables.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only
Answer: C

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2. To view all registry settings applied to a specific user, an administrator needs to consult the
A. Usage Tracking Viewer.
B. User Session properties.
C. Workspace Analysis Details.
D. User Registry settings filtered by the user.
Answer: C

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3. What components are needed for Desktop Transformation?
1. Desktop Sampler
2. Workspace Model
3. Workspace Preferences
4. Workspace Designer
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: C

RES Software   ES0-007   ES0-007 original questions   ES0-007
4. By applying an Exclusive Filter in the RES Workspace Manager Console, which objects are
displayed?
A. Only objects that do NOT match the specified Filter criteria.
B. Only objects that match the specified Filter criteria directly.
C. All objects, but objects that do not directly match the specified Filter criteria appear read-only.
D. All objects, and objects that directly match the specified Filter criteria have an icon indicating
they can be modified.
Answer: B

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NO.6 User Workspace Management consists of
A. Context, Composition and Content
B. Context, Content and Security
C. Security, Diagnostics and Setup
D. Composition, Security, Extensions
Answer: B

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NO.7 What is a Workspace Extension?
A. A workstation-installed application that is integrated in a laptop environment.
B. A Terminal Server-installed application that is published through RES VDX.
C. A workstation-installed application that is integrated in a Terminal Server environment.
D. A Terminal Server-installed application that is published through the RES Workspace Extender.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which folders are automatically excluded from Read-Only Blanketing?
1. tmp and temp folders
2. User profile and all user profile
3. Recycle bin on all local drives
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
Answer: D

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NO.9 Language Packs.

NO.10 What happens with the old RES Workspace Manager Environment Password when an
administrator sets a new one?
A. The old password will be honored during a grace period of 30 days.
B. The old password will be stored in the passwords, old file.
C. The old password will be destroyed immediately.
D. The old password can be restored with the license node.
Answer: A

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