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Exam Code: VCP5-DCVJ
Exam Name: VMware (VMware Certified Professional 5 Data Center Virtualization (VCP5-DCV日本語版))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 327 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 管理者は Web サ ービスのために vApp を展開し終わりました。vApp の中の IP 割り 当
てのどの 3 つのオプションが管理者に利用可能ですか。 （3 つ選択してください）
A. Transient
B. Fixed
C. DHCP
D. Bridged
E. NAT
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.2 ACME Junkmail 社は彼らの環境でテンプレートを利用していました。彼らは 10 ノー ド
の ESXi 5.x クラスタと DRS を実行しています。また、DRS は構成されていません。いくつか
のバーチャル? マシンはこのテンプレートから配備され、 正常に電 源がオンにされています。
しかし、 新し く配備 さ れたバー チャ ル? マシ ンがパワ ーオ ンしま せ ん。ホス トで 利用可 能 な
十分な CPU およびメモリーリソースがあるように見えます。
どの 3 つのものはより多くのバーチャル? マシンがこのテンプレートからクラスタに展開で
きるように行うことができますか。 （3 つ選択してください）
A. バーチャル? マシンのために異なるデータ? ストゕを選択する。
B. 別の場所にスワッ プ? フゔ゗ルを移動する。
C. 同じデータストゕ を使用して別のホストにバーチャル? マシンを展開する。
D. ホ ス ト間 でバ ーチャ ル? マ シン の 負荷 のバ ラ ンス を取 るた めにク ラ スタ で DRS を 有効 に
する。
E. バーチャル? マシンのメモリ予約を増やす
Answer: A,B,E

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Explanation:
If you make reservations for your virtual machine's that are equal to the amount of RAM assigned to
them, swapping and page sharing does not occur. You can over commit pretty heavily if you are
comfortable with poorer performance. If you do not set reservations, ESX host creates a .vswp file
equal to the difference between the amount of physical memory assigned to the virtual machine
and the reservation it has. By default, memory reservations are set to 0. If you have a virtual
machine with 2GB of memory without a reservation, it creates a 2GB .vswpfile when it is powered
on. The virtual machine starts using the .vswp file if the server is out of physical RAM. If you set a
1GB reservation, it creates a 1GB .vswp file. The .vswp files are what allows for memory
overcommitment.

NO.3 管理者はバーチ ャル? マシンの vSphere スナップショットをとり、OS のゕップデート
を適用し ます 。ゕッ プ デートを 確認 した後 に 、管理者 はバ ーチャ ル? マシ ンの フォル トト レ
ランスを可能にすることができず、 統合されていないスナップショットが存在するではない
かと疑問に思います。
管理者は統 合が必要 で あることを 確認する た めにどの 2 つ のオペ レーション を行なう こ と
ができますか。 （2 つ選択してください。 ）
A. ホストのバーチャル? マシン? タブでニー ズ統合カラムを公開する。
B. 「-delta.vmdk 」 拡張 を持つフゔ゗ルに対して vmdk フゔ゗ルと外観が含まれているデータ
ストゕを参照する。
C. バーチャル? マシン の「サマリ」タブのニーズ統合カラムを公開する。
D. クラスタ? オブジェクトの右クリックメニューから vSphere クラ スタヘルスを選択し、実
行する。
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 管理者は、 バーチ ャル? マシンの 「概要」 タブのフォールト? トレランス? ペ゗ンを見て、
現在の状態が保護されていないことを検出しました。
バーチャル? マシンが保護されていない原因になる 2 つの vSphere フォールト? トレランス状
態は何ですか。 （2 つ選択してください）
A. 停止 - フォールト? トレランスはセカンダリのバーチャル? マシンで停止された。
B. セカ ンダ リ VM が 必要 - 主なバ ーチ ャ ル? マシ ン が セカ ンダ リ? バー チャ ル? マ シン なし
で実行され、保護されていない。
C. プラ゗マリ VM が必要 - セカンダリ? バーチャル? マシンが実行され、 新しいプラ゗マリ?
バーチャル? マシンを生成することができない。
D. 無効 - フォールト? トレランスが無効になっている。
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 管理者は公共の キオスクからゕクセスされるバーチャル? マシンを作成しました。 管
理者は週 また はオン デ マンドで 要求 された 場 合、一度 バー チャル? マシンが 既知 の状態 に リ
セットされることを要求しました。
この要件を満たすための 最も簡単な方法は何ですか。
A. 知っている vSphere のようにストレージ ゕレ゗を構成し、デー タ? ストゕのス クリプ ト?
ルーチン配列スナップショットを回復する。
B. サードパーテゖの ゗メージング? サーバを実装し、 PXE は静的な゗メージからバーチャル?
マシンを起動する。
C. バーチャル? マシン の VMDK を独立· 非永 続に設定し、 バーチャル? マシンの再起動をスケ
ジュールする。
D. バーチャル? マシンの非永続デゖスクを作成し、ゲスト OS を週 に一度再起動することに
設定する。
Answer: C

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NO.6 どの 2 つの条件 はバーチャル? マシンが Storage VMotion を使 用してうまく移行される
ことから防ぐことができますか。 （2 つ選択してください）
A. バーチャル? マシンは RDM を持っている 。
B. バーチャル? マシン はフォールト? トレランスを可能にしておく。
C. バーチャル? マシン は vSphere 5.x スタンダ ード? ホストで実行されている。
D. バーチャル? マシンは NFS データ? ストゕ に保存されるデゖスクを持っている。
Answer: B,C

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NO.7 どの 2 つの条件 において、ゕレ゗統合の vStorage API （VAAI ）は、パフォーマンスの
利点を提供することができますか。 （2 つ選択してください。 ）
A. 仮想デゖスクが NFS データ? ストゕに格納されて い る VMDK フ ゔ゗ ル を 持 っ て い る 場 合 。
B. 仮想デゖスクは新 規バーチャル? マシン? ウゖザードを使用して作成される場合。
C. スナップショット でバーチャル? マシンをクローンする場合。
D. 仮想デゖスクが削 除される場合。
Answer: A,D

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NO.8 増強された vMotion コンパテゖビリ テゖー(EVC) が使用され る場合、どの 2 つの条件
がクラスタにすべてのホストに存在する必要がありますか。 （2 つ選択してください。 ）
A. クラスタは DRS の ために有効になる必要がある。
B. クラスタ内のすべ てのホストは ESX / ESXi3.5 Update 2 あるい は以降のバージョンを実行
していなければならない。
C. クラス タ 内 の す べて の ホ ス ト は ハ ー ドウェ ゕ 仮 想 化 サ ポ ー トを有 効 に し な け れ ば ならな
い。
D. クラスタは HA のために有効になる必要がある。
Answer: B,C

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NO.9 管理者は vCenter データリカバリを展開し、できるだけ大きな de- 複製ストゕを望 み
ます。 どの 3 つのス トレージ· オプションを使用することができますか。 （3 つ選択して くだ
さい）
A. 二つの CIFS 共有
B. FCP ゕレ゗の上の二つの RDM
C. ESXi ホスト上の 1 つの NFS マウントおよ び iSCSI ゕレ゗上の 1 つの RDM
D. 一つの CIFS シェゕ と一つの FCP RDM
E. ESXi ホスト上の 2 つの NFS マウント
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.10 管理者は、バー チャル? マシ ンがリ ソ ースプー ルに入 れられ る場合、 バーチ ャル? マシ
ン が メ モ リ の た め の 発 行 株 式 合 計 の 非 常 に 大 き な 割 合 を 受 け 取 る と い う 警 告 が 示 す こ と に
気づきます。 どのゕクションはこの問題を解決するためにとられることができ ますか。
A. リソースプールにメモリー? リソース割り当てを増やす。
B. リソースプールの シェゕ値を増やす。
C. カスタムからバー チャル? マシンの高、中、または低に設定するシェゕを変更する。
D. バーチャル? マシンのメモリ? ゕロケーションを減少させる。
Answer: C

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Explanation:
The Memory Resources panel lets you allocate memory resources for a virtual machine and specify
reservations, limits, and shares. Symbolic values Low, Normal, High, and Custom are compared to
the sum of all shares of all virtual machines on the server and, on an ESX host, the service console.
By decreasing the memory share of a particular system, it receives less memory out of the total
available memory.

NO.11 バーチャル? マ シン上でホス トされた それらのデー タベース を更新する場 合、ユー ザ
ーはパフォーマンス問題を経験しています。管理者は、デゖスク I/O がバーチャル? マシ ン
を含んでいる ESXi ホストの HBA のうちの 1 つを横切って高いことを決めます。
他のユーザーやデータストゕに影響を与えることなく、 どのゕクションは問題を修正するに
は最も可能性がたかいで すか。
A. 手動でデータ? ス ト ゕ の た め の ラ ウ ン ド ロ ビ ン に デ ゖ ス ク の マ ル チ パ ス ポ リ シ ー を 設 定
する。
B. Storage VMotion を使 用して NFS データスト ゕにバーチャル? マシンを移行する。
C. 新しい VMFS5 データ? ストゕにバーチャル? マシンを移動するために Storage VMotion を使
用する。
D. ESXi ホストに追加 の LUN をマップし、データ? ストゕを拡張する。
Answer: A

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NO.12 どの 3 つのスト レージ I/O コントロールの条件はデータ? ストゕ? ゕラームで検出され
た非 VI ワークロードを引き起こすかもしれませんか。 （3 つ選択してください）
A. データストゕはストレージ I/O コントロールをサポートしていない ESX/ESXi4.0 ホス トに
接続されている。
B. データ? ストゕは応 答のようなシステム? タスクを実行している配列にある。
C. データストゕはゕ クテゖブ/ パッシブ? マルチパスまたは NMP （ネ゗テゖブ? マルチパス）
を利用している。
D. データ ストゕは 1 つ 以上のスナップショットを使用してバーチャル? マシンを格納してい
る。
E. データストゕは vCenter によって管理され ていないの ESX/ESXi4.0 ホストに接続されてい
る。
Answer: A,B,E

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Explanation:
http://kb.vmware.com/selfservice/microsites/search.do?language=en_US&cmd=displayKC&extern
alId=1020651
http://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-50/topic/com.vmware.vsphere.troubleshooting.doc_50/GUID38F
95285-DB4F-462F-AFD7-0F4D812B085F.html

NO.13 どの二つの条件 は ESXi 5.x ホストにホ スト? プロフゔ゗ルのゕプリケーションを防ぎま
すか。 （2 つ選択してください）
A. ホストは多数のプロフゖールを付ける。
B. ホストがメンテナ ンス? モードに設定されて いない。
C. ホストはバーチャ ル? マシンを実行している。
D. ホストが ESXi ホストである。
Answer: B,C

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NO.14 管理者は vApp のための IP 割り当てポリシーを編集しています。どの三つのオプショ
ンが利用可能ですか。3 つ選択してください）
A. 自動
B. ローミング
C. トランジェント
D. DHCP
E. Fixed
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.15 管理者は自 分の 環境でストレージ? プロフゔ゗ルを実装するために働いています。
ストレージ機能はどの二つの方法で生成することができますか。 （2 つ選択してください）
A. LUN がクラスタに追 加されると、それらはデータ?ストゕ? ク ラ ス タ に よ っ て 生 成 さ れ る 。
B. それが作成される 場合、 それらはストレージ? プロフゖールによって自動的に決定される。
C. それらはストレー ジ意識(VASA) 用の配列 から VMware API まで 検索することができる。
D. それらは管理者に よって手動で生成することができる。
Answer: C,D

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Explanation:
Understanding Storage Capabilities
A storage capability outlines the quality of service that a storage system can deliver. It is a guarantee
that the storage system can provide a specific set of characteristics for capacity, performance,
availability, redundancy, and so on. If a storage system uses Storage APIs - Storage Awareness, it
informs vCenter Server that it can guarantee a specific set of storage features by presenting them as
a storage capability. vCenter Server recognizes the capability and adds it to the list of storage
capabilities in the Manage Storage Capabilities dialog box. Such storage capabilities are
system-defined. vCenter Server assigns the system-defined storage capability to each datastore that
you create from that storage system.
NOTE:
Because multiple system capabilities for a datastore are not supported, a datastore that spans
several extents assumes the system capability of only one of its extents. You can create user-defined
storage capabilities and associate them with datastores. You should associate the same user-defined
capability with datastores that guarantee the same level of storage capabilities. You can associate a
user-defined capability with a datastore that already has a system-defined capability. A datastore
can have only one system-defined and only one user-defined capability at a time.

NO.16 管理者は DRS クラスタ内の強化された vMotion コンパテゖ ビリテゖー(EVC) を有効 に
していま す。 管理者 は クラスタ に追 加され た 最新の゗ ンテ ル? プロ セッサー を備 えたホ ス ト
だけを望みます。どのセッテゖングがこの要求を満たしますか。
A. リストされたほとんどの CPU を備えたベースラ゗ン
B. リストされた最も 少ない CPU を備えたベースラ゗ン
C. 将来の゗ンテル? プ ロセッサーを 含んでいる任意のベースラ゗ン
D. 新しいベースラ゗ ンを作成し、最新のプロセッサー? フゔミリーだけを追加する
Answer: D

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NO.17 静止バーチャル? マシ ン? スナップ ショ ットに関 する 3 つの 真実のス テートメ ント は
何ですか。 （3 つ選択してください）
A. vSphere スナップシ ョットの静止は Windows ゲスト OS で発生す る。
B. 静止オペレーショ ンは任意のスナップショットで自動的に行われる。
C. 静止オペレーショ ンはゲスト OS によって異なる。
D. 静止 は 一 貫性 を 確保 す る ため の ゕレ ゗ ベー ス の スナ ッ プシ ョ ット の 前 に発 生 する 必 要が
ある。
E. VMware ツールは静 止が成功することを要求される。
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.18 どの VMware ソ リューションは vSphere 実装のセキュリテゖを使用して、 仮想デスク
トップにリンククローン? テクノロジーを提供しますか。
A. VMware ACE
B. VMware View
C. VMware Workstation
D. VMware ThinApp
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Reference: http://www.vmware.com/files/pdf/VMware-View-4-Composer-DS-EN.pdf (page 1, last
paragraph)

NO.19 Exhibit ボタンを クリックしてください。
管理者は ESXi 5.x ホストで新しいバーチャル? マシンを配備しました。 ユーザーは、 バー チャ
ル? マ シン で実行 され るゕプリ ケー ション の パフォー マン スの低 下 について 不満 を言っ て い
ます。
パフォーマンスツールは展示に示された結果を表示します。
どの 2 つのタスクはユーザー? エクスペリエンスを改善するかもしれませんか。 （2 つ選択し
てください）
A. バーチャル? マシンに仮想 CPU を追加する。
B. バーチャル? マシン の高度な CPU 設定に対する CPU ゕフゖニテゖを削除する。
C. 別の ESXi ホストに バーチャル? マシンを移行する。
D. バーチャル? マシンの CPU 設定に対する制限を削除する。
Answer: A,D

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NO.20 vApp の内に配置 するには、3 つの有効なオブジェクトは何ですか。 （3 つ選択してくだ
さい）
A. フォルダ
B. ホスト
C. リソースプール
D. vApps
E. バーチャル? マシン
Answer: C,D,E

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Explanation:
http://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere50/index.jsp?topic=/com.vmware.vsphere.vcenterhost.doc_50/G
UID-3B5AF2B1-C534-4426B97A-D14019A8010F.html

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Exam Code: TB0-113
Exam Name: Tibco (TIBCO Business Studio 3.2 Exam )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 125 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 What are two valid advanced properties on the process level? (Choose two.)
A. Ignore Case Suspend
B. Enable Case Prediction
C. Priority Value Expression
D. Ignore Blank Addressees
E. Use DeadlineFor Task Duration
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 What are two valid methods for populating an Option List on a TIBCO form? (Choose two.)
A. add a list name in the Option List's Values field
B. create a web service on the Advanced Property tab
C. enter static values on the Properties tab for the Option List control
D. configure the name of an array parameter in the mapping expressions dialog
Answer: A,B

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NO.3 You are a supervisor of a group of analysts at your company. Your business analysts do not have
sufficient experience to understand the configuration of web services and integration components.
How would you hide the technical implementation details from your business analysts?
A. use the Window > Show View menu option to disable the technical details
B. select the Enable/Disable Technical Details icon and de-select the Technical Details option
C. use the Diagram > Enable/Disable Technical Details menu option to disable technical details
D. select the Enable/Disable Business Studio Capabilities icon and de-select the Solution Design option
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which two statements are true about Task scripts? (Choose two.)
A. Task Close Scripts will affect central case data.
B. Task Submit Scripts will affect central case data.
C. Task Close Scripts can be used to remove tasks from queues.
D. Task Open Scripts can be used to pre-load values into data fields prior to a task being opened.
E. Task Open Scripts can be used to manipulate field data prior to the task being delivered to a queue.
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
What is the purpose of the Receive Task when deployed to TIBCO iProcess Engine?
A. to start a sub-process
B. to update case data in a case
C. to pause a process for a predefined period
D. to receive a new attachment into the process
E. to receive a mail message from an external party
Answer: B

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NO.6 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, STEP1 is outstanding. What is the purpose of RXTASK?
A. to close a case
B. to pause a case
C. to withdraw STEP1
D. to update case data
E. to start a parallel flow
F. to move the case to STEP2
Answer: D

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit button.
In the process flow shown in the exhibit, the Catch Timer Intermediate Event on the "Enter
Customer Data" task is set to "Continue Task On Timeout". Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. If the "Enter Customer Data" task is opened, the Timer Event will be cancelled.
B. When the Timer Event expires, the "Management Chase" task will be delivered.
C. If the "Management Chase" task is completed, the "Enter Customer Data" task will be
automatically withdrawn.
D. When the "Enter Customer Data" task is completed, the "Management Chase" task will be withdrawn if
it exists.
E. If the "Management Chase" task is completed, the process will automatically continue to the "Contact
Customer" task.
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 What is the default Button Type property value of the Submit button on a TIBCO Business Studio Form?
A. apply
B. close
C. submit
D. primary
E. peripheral
F. associative
Answer: D

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NO.9 A connection to a TIBCO iProcess Engine deployment server has failed with a connection error. What
should be verified in order to solve the problem? (Choose two.)
A. The web server is running
B. The destination server is running.
C. The Hawk Agent service is running.
D. The connecting user is a domain administrator.
E. The username and password in the destination properties match aniProcess user credential.
Answer: B,E

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NO.10 What is a valid TIBCO iProcess script file function call to delete a file?
A. IPEFileUtil.FILEDELETE(C:\Temp\myfile.txt)
B. IPEFileUtil.FILEDELETE("C:\Temp\myfile.txt")
C. IPEFileUtil.FILEDELETE(
D. \\Temp\\myfile.txt)
E. IPEFileUtil.FILEDELETE("C:\\Temp\\myfile.txt")
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which type of data field corresponds to a dynamically addressed participant?
A. String
B. Boolean
C. Performer
D. Participant
E. Integer Number
Answer: C

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NO.12 During the testing of a process through the TIBCO iProcess Workspace (Browser) Client, you notice
that some data fields are not being populated in the TIBCO iProcess Engine. Which two steps can be
used to debug the form? (Choose two.)
A. ensure that the data fields' types are supported by theiProcess engine
B. use the form preview to test if all the parameters are being posted by the form
C. ensure that the fields are configured to be an output type under the data model of the form
D. ensure that all the form fields are mapped correctly on the field properties page of the form
Answer: B,C

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NO.13 Which key combination is used to display Content Assist for a function used in a script?
A. Ctrl + C
B. Ctrl + F1
C. Ctrl + Space
D. Ctrl + Alt + Space
Answer: C

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NO.14 When configuring a Database Service Task, what is the only valid option for the TIBCO iProcess Engine
for the Operation?
A. Alter
B. Select
C. Delete
D. Update
E. Stored Procedure
Answer: E

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NO.15 Click the Exhibit button.
What could be a possible problem with the Parallel gateway P2 with the problem marker?
A. Parallel gateways can have only three input/output flows.
B. Parallel gateways cannot have unconditional input/output flows.
C. Parallel gateways can have only unconditional input/output flows.
D. Parallel gateways with incoming Service Tasks cannot have output parameters mapped.
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which gateway waits for each of its incoming sequences to be completed before moving to the next
task?
A. Parallel Gateway
B. Inclusive Gateway
C. Complex Gateway
D. Exclusive Data Gateway
E. Exclusive Event Gateway
Answer: A

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NO.17 A Catch Timer Intermediate Event is placed on the boundary of a User Task. Which two
configuration options are valid if the process is to be deployed to the TIBCO iProcess Engine? (Choose
two.)
A. Cycle timeout value
B. Withdraw TaskOn Timeout
C. Date and/or Time timeout value
D. Withdraw Task and Reset Timeout
Answer: B,C

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NO.18 What are four TIBCO Business Studio basic data types? (Choose four.)
A. Float
B. Date
C. Long
D. Boolean
E. Date Time
F. Integer Number
Answer: B,D,E,F

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NO.19 While modeling a Service Task, and configuring it to use TIBCO BusinessWorks, the user needs to
ensure that the endpoint name matches the JMS destination that was created in TIBCO iProcess Engine,
renaming the System Participant if necessary. Which two options support this? (Choose two.)
A. Use local
B. Use JMS
C. Use BW
D. Use remote
E. UseLiveLink
Answer: A,E

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NO.20 You want to prioritize work items in a queue so that users process high-priority work items first.
These items should appear at the top of the list. How is this accomplished?
A. sort the Work Item List by priority ascending
B. sort the Work Item List by priority descending
C. select the Sort By Priority flag in the View menu
D. display the Priority column in theiProcess Workspace (Browser) Client
Answer: A

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Exam Code: TB0-122
Exam Name: Tibco (TIBCO BusinessEvents 5 Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 112 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which three TIBCO BusinessEvents objects can be stored in cache servers? (Choose three.)
A. Scorecards
B. Global Variables
C. Rule Functions
D. Concepts
E. Events
F. Rules
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.2 Which two functions does the studio-tools.exe utility provide? (Choose two)
A. Imports version 2.x projects
B. Imports version 3.x projects
C. Analyzes decision tables
D. Validates decision tables
E. Exports decision tables to Microsoft Excel
F. Imports decision tables from Microsoft Excel
Answer: A,E

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NO.3 Which TIBCO BusinessEvents add-on software enables queries using a language that is SQL-like?
A. Decision Manager
B. Event Stream Processing
C. Views
D. Data Modeling
Answer: D

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NO.4 How do you override the default event for a JMS destination?
A. Map incoming messages directly to an event in TIBCO BusinessEvents
B. Map incoming messages only through the_ns_field in the message
C. Map incoming messages only through the_nm_fieldinthemessage
D. Map incoming messages through two fields (_ns_,_nm_) in the message
Answer: D

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NO.5 What are three features of Pattern Matcher? (Choose three.)
A. The Pattern service can be started and stopped anytime inside the engine,
B. The Pattern service can only be run inside an Inference agent.
C. The Pattern service starts automatically when the engine starts.
D. The Pattern service can run in Inference agent or Query agent.
E. Each agent has a separate instance of the Pattern service.
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.6 Which two JMS message types are supported by TextMessageSerializer? (Choose two.)
A. MapMessage
B. BytesMessage
C. StreamMessage
D. TextMessage
Answer: A,D

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NO.7 Which two channels represent configurable physical connections to a resource? (Choose two.)
A. JMS
B. FTP
C. HTTP
D. Local
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 Which object management type should be used when cacheLoadconceptById () has been defined
explicitly to load objects?
A. In-memory
B. Cache only
C. Cache + Memory
D. Berkeley DB
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which three statements about a CDD are true? (Choose three.)
A. A CDD can be associated with only one Object Management type at any given time.
B. Deployment requires both a CDD and the project.
C. Deployment requires both CDD and EAR files.
D. A project can have a one-to-many relationship with a CDD.
E. A CDD needs to be rebuilt when a new rule is added to the project.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.10 Which file must be configured with system-level settings before the TIBCO BusinessEvents engine
starts?
A. TRA
B. CDD
C. Site Topology
D. be-engine.xml
Answer: A

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NO.11 Concept A contains Concept B. Concept A is using Cache Only mode of object management.
Which object management mode is recommended for Concept B to use?
A. Memory Only
B. Memory Only or Cache + Memory or Cache Only
C. Memory Only or Cache Only
D. Cache + Memory or Cache Only
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which two statements are true about a new installation of TIBCO BusinessEvents? (Choose two.)
A. An existing Eclipse installation can be used.
B. An existing Eclipse installation cannot be used.
C. TIBCO BusinessEvents can be installed for use with TIBCO Business Studio business modeling
software.
D. TIBCO BusinessEvents cannot be installed for use with TIBCO Business Studio business modeling
software.
Answer: A,C

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NO.13 When does an RTC cycle end.?
A. When an external action causes changes to the RETE network
B. When TIBCO BusinessEvents builds (or refreshes) a rule action agenda
C. When a rule action is executed
D. When the rule action agenda is empty
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which statement is true about rules?
A. To assert a new set of concept instances it must be returned as arrays of objects from a rule
B. Executing a rule action may prevent the execution of other rules matching the criteria.
C. Returning an event instance from a rule sends the event to its default destination.
D. All rules matching the conditions at the given time will be triggered in parallel.
Answer: B

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NO.15 In Cache Object Management settings, what does the property cache Agent Quo rum specify?
A. The number of members in the cluster that hold the backup data
B. The size of the limited cache
C. The minimum number of storage-enabled nodes that must be active in the cluster at startup
D. The maximum size of the object table cache
Answer: C

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NO.1 When creating a new volume with the New Volume Wizard in VEA, which layout options are
available to create a layered volume? (Choose two.)
A.concatenate-mirror
B.stripe-mirror
C.mirror-stripe
D.mirror-concatenate
E.concatenate-stripe
F.stripe-concatenate
Correct:A B

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NO.2 The upgrade scripts are being used to upgrade Volume Manager. Which file's existence would
indicate that the upgrade_start script had been run, but the upgrade_finish has yet to be run?
A./UPGRADE_START/.start_runed
B./VXVM5.0-UPGRADE/.start_runed
C./etc/vx/.start_runed
D./etc/vx/.upgrade_runed
Correct:B

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NO.3 Which statements are true about deporting a disk group? (Choose two.)
A.The volumes are unavailable.
B.The disk group is available for importing.
C.The disk group is deported and online.
D.The file systems are destroyed.
E.The file systems are accessible.
Correct:A B

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NO.4 Which statements are true about renaming the disk object? (Choose two.)
A.New disk names must be unique within the disk group.
B.All subdisks will be renamed together with the disk.
C.The disk group needs to be offline.
D.The new disk name must be unique within the system.
E.Subdisks names will remain the same.
Correct:A E

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NO.5 Which command upgrades the datadg disk group from version 50 to the current disk group
version?
A.vxdg -T 50 upgrade datadg
B.vxdg upgrade datadg
C.vxdg currvers datadg
D.vxdg 50 currvers datadg
Correct:B

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NO.6 What occurs when you add an initialized disk to an existing disk group? (Choose two.)
A.The public and private regions are created on the disk.
B.An empty volume is created on the disk by default.
C.The disk group configuration database is updated.
D.Volume Manager performs a rescan to recognize all newly configured disks.
E.The disk is stamped with the system host ID.
Correct:C E

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NO.7 After initializing a disk for use in Volume Manager, which command is used to create a disk
group named datadg on a device shown as device_tag and using a disk media name of datadg01?
A.vxassist create datadg datadg01=device_tag
B.vxdg create datadg datadg01=device_tag
C.vxdg init datadg datadg01=device_tag
D.vxassist datadg init datadg01= device_tag
Correct:C

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NO.8 Which states are displayed in the output of vxprint? (Choose two.)
A.Data
B.Kernel
C.File System
D.Volume
E.User
Correct:B D

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NO.9 In the output of the vxdisk list command, there are no entries in the DISK and GROUP columns.
However, you see online invalid in the output of the STATUS column. What does the online invalid
status indicate?
A.The disk is failing and needs to be replaced for future use in Volume Manager.
B.The disk is incompatible with the current release of Volume Manager.
C.The disk is available for initialization or encapsulation by Volume Manager.
D.The disk is available for use and has encapsulated data deported on another system.
Correct:C

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NO.10 Which command is used to change the stripe unit size and number of columns for the datavol
volume in the datadg disk group?
A.vxvol datadg convert datavol stripeunit=32k ncol=5
B.vxassist datadg convert datavol stripeunit=32k ncol=5
C.vxvol datadg relayout datavol stripeunit=32k ncol=5
D.vxassist datadg relayout datavol stripeunit=32k ncol=5
Correct:D

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NO.11 Which commands display plex, volume, and kernel states? (Choose two.)
A.vxcat
B.vxdisplay
C.vxinfo
D.vxprint
E.vxstate
Correct:C D

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NO.12 Which command removes the datadg02 disk from the datadg disk group?
A.vxassist datadg rmdisk datadg02
B.vxdg datadg rmdisk datadg02
C.vxassist datadg remove disk datadg02
D.vxdg datadg remove datadg02
Correct:B

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NO.13 Which command displays the amount of free space in the configuration database of the datadg
disk group?
A.vxdg -g datadg free
B.vxdg -g datadg list
C.vxdg free datadg
D.vxdg list datadg
Correct:D

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NO.14 Which command grows the datavol volume by an additional 30 MB and resizes the file system at
the same time?
A.vxassist -g datadg growby datavol 30m
B.vxresize -g datadg datavol 30m
C.vxresize -g datadg datavol +30m
D.vxassist -g datadg growto datavol 30m
Correct:C

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NO.15 Which vxsnap command option recreates a space-optimized instant snapshot?
A.restore
B.reattach
C.refresh
D.reassociate
Correct:C

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NO.16 Which statement is true about adding a mirror to an existing striped volume?
A.A concatenated plex is added to the volume by default.
B.You can use any disks in the disk group to contain the new plex.
C.Synchronization of the new plex is required.
D.You should add the new plex to a different disk group for redundancy.
Correct:C

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NO.17 Which command displays the number of paths to the datadg01 disk?
A.vxdisk list datadg01
B.vxdg list datadg01
C.vxpath list datadg01
D.vxdmpadm list datadg01
Correct:A

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NO.18 What are valid mount options for a Veritas file system? (Choose two.)
A.nolargefiles
B.shared
C.logtmp
D.delaylog
E.logdelay
Correct:A D

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NO.19 Which vxassist parameter is used to set the number of data plexes in a non-layered mirrored
volume?
A.nplex
B.numplex
C.nummirror
D.nmirror
Correct:D

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NO.20 Which command can be used to remove a mirror from a volume? (Choose two.)
A.vxedit
B.vxassist
C.vxremove
D.vxevac
E.vxmirror
Correct:A B

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Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Server)
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Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 A financial institution has a two-hour backup window and is required to restore individual e-mails
within 20 minutes if their Microsoft Exchange Server fails.
Which Service Level Agreement (SLA) meets the Recovery Point Objective (RPO) and Recovery Time
Objective (RTO) requirements?
A. RTO 2 hours, RPO 20 minutes, Granular Recovery Technology enabled
B. RTO 20 minutes, RPO 2 hours, Granular Recovery Technology enabled
C. RTO 20 minutes, RPO 2 hours, Individual E-mail Recovery enabled
D. RTO 2 hours, RPO 20 minutes, Individual E-mail Recovery enabled
Answer: B

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NO.2 Refer to the exhibit.
Annual accounting history must be archived for 120 days and marketing history must be archived for 90
days.
Which setting allows reporting for marketing and accounting history?
A. change Keep alert history to 90 days
B. change Keep job logs to 120 days
C. change Keep job history selection for keep job history to match current OPP
D. change Keep job history for selected number of days to 120
Answer: C

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NO.3 A medium-sized paper company with several remote offices deploys Symantec Backup Exec 12 for
Windows Servers Central Admin Server Option (CASO) in their data center. The company's SLA requires
that the backup environment be restored to an alternate location in the event of a data center outage.
Which CASO catalog location option meets this company's SLA?
A. Centralized Catalog
B. Distributed Catalog
C. Replicated Catalog
D. Exported Catalog
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which three statements are true about the attributes of a device pool? (Choose three.)
A. The All Available Drives device pool can be deleted.
B. A drive can belong to more than one device pool.
C. A device pool can contain different types of drives.
D. Device priority can be set on a device pool.
E. Multiple backup jobs can be targeted to the same device pool.
Answer: BCE

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NO.5 Using the silent mode method, how can a backup administrator push-install Backup Exec Remote
Agent for Windows Systems simultaneously to multiple machines?
A. create a command file that reads a number from a .txt file
B. create a command file that reads remote computer names from a .txt file
C. use the Push Install Wizard to add the number of simultaneous installs
D. use the Push Install Wizard to add the parameters for the silent installation
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which two alert category types can be disabled? (Choose two.)
A. Warning alerts
B. Attention Required alerts
C. Error alerts
D. E-mail Failure alerts
E. Informational alerts
Answer: AE

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NO.7 A single tape-drive robotic library is attached to the Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers
(Backup Exec) media server but fails to display in the Backup Exec Devices window. The library is in the
correct location under the Robotic Libraries tree, but instead of listing the drive underneath it, there is a
listing of Unknown Drive. The drive name is listed under Stand-alone Drives.
What must be done to solve this problem?
A. Restart the Backup Exec Server service and scan for new devices in Windows Device Manager.
B. Power down the Backup Exec Server and the attached robotic library, then power up the robotic library
before powering up the Backup Exec Server.
C. Run the Backup Exec Device Configuration Wizard and drag the correct drive name to the position
under the robotic library.
D. Because the robotic library is unserialized and not supported by Backup Exec, replace the robotic
library with a supported robotic library.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which compression type produces the least network traffic in a multi-server backup environment?
A. compression with de-duplication
B. software compression
C. hardware compression
D. compression with encryption
Answer: B

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NO.9 A large enterprise provides a six-hour backup window at night, but requires failed systems to be
restored immediately.
Which SLA meets the Recovery Point Objective (RPO) and Recovery Time Objective (RTO)
requirements?
A. RPO 0, RTO 0
B. RPO 6 hours, RTO 6 hours
C. RPO 6 hours, RTO 0
D. RPO 0, RTO 6 hours
Answer: C

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NO.10 Refer to the Exhibit.
Which method provides the most current restore point?
A. tape replication
B. tape backup
C. system rebuild
D. system deduplication
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which three versions of Microsoft SQL does Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers support?
(Choose three.)
A. Microsoft SQL Server Desktop Edition (MSDE) 2000
B. Microsoft SQL 2005 Express Edition
C. Microsoft SQL Server 2000 SP2
D. Microsoft SQL Server 2000 SP3a or later
E. Microsoft SQL Server 7.0
F. Microsoft SQL 2005
Answer: BDF

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NO.12 Which three summaries can be found on the Job Monitor's System Summary view? (Choose three.)
A. device and media summary
B. alerts summary
C. licensing summary
D. installed patch summary
E. job summary
Answer: ABE

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NO.13 Which database application is included with Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers?
A. Microsoft SQL 2005 Express
B. Microsoft SQL Server 2000 SP2
C. Microsoft SQL Desktop Edition 2000
D. Microsoft SQL Server 2005
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which technology provides the most efficient Recovery Point Objective (RPO)?
A. Remote Administration Option
B. Intelligent Disaster Recovery Option
C. Backup Exec System Recovery
D. Continuous Protection Server
Answer: D

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NO.15 Refer to the exhibit.
Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers option is required to manage all backups from the
data center?
A. Shared Storage Option
B. Active Directory Recovery Option
C. Central Admin Server Option
D. Executive Desktop Option
Answer: A

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NO.16 A web-based retailer's mission-critical servers must be online constantly, providing zero downtime in
which to run a backup.
Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers component is required in order to meet the SLA?
A. Advanced Disk-based Backup Option
B. Continuous Protection Server Option
C. Volume Shadow Copy Services Option
D. Central Admin Server Option
Answer: B

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NO.17 An attempt to install the Remote Agent for Linux and UNIX Servers on a UNIX server fails.
Which log can be reviewed to determine the cause of the installation failure?
A. /var/tmp/vxif/installralus/installralus.log
B. /var/logs/ralus/installralus.log
C. /install/symantec/logs/ralus.log
D. /usr/openv/symantec/logs/install.log
Answer: A

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NO.18 What does the Backup Exec Environment Check utility verify to ensure that the installation process can
complete successfully? (Choose two.)
A. Is a previous version of Backup Exec installed?
B. Is there enough storage space for disk-based backups?
C. Is an SMTP Server available?
D. Are there Microsoft SQL database account privileges?
E. Are there sufficient logon account privileges?
Answer: AE

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NO.19 Which two Calendar Schedule settings can you use to schedule a job to run on the first and fifteenth of
every month? (Choose two.)
A. Specific Dates
B. Recurring Week Days
C. Recurring Days of the Month
D. Day Interval
E. Time Window
Answer: AC

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NO.20 Which media set property defines the amount of time that data can be added to a piece of media?
A. Append Period
B. Overwrite Protection Period
C. Retention Period
D. Media Update Period
Answer: A

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NO.21 Which two statements are accurate regarding full backups and copy backups? (Choose two.)
A. Full backups and copy backups of the same resource include the same data.
B. Full backups and copy backups are different names for the exact same backup method.
C. Full backups and copy backups can be configured to reset the archive bit of backed up files.
D. Full backups can reset the archive bit of backed up files; copy backups are unable to reset the archive
bit.
E. Copy backups can reset the archive bit of backed up files; full backups are unable to reset the archive
bit.
Answer: AD

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NO.22 Which account enables Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers to access resources for
backup?
A. administrative
B. logon
C. service
D. domain
Answer: B

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NO.23 Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers component manages devices and media?
A. Advanced Device and Media Manager
B. Media Operations Manager
C. Enterprise Media Manager
D. Advanced Tape Device Manager
Answer: A

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NO.24 Which two factors define a backup Service Level Agreement (SLA)? (Choose two.)
A. Recovery Point Objective
B. Recovery Time Objective
C. Recovery Method
D. Recovery Retention Period
E. Recovery Priority Objective
Answer: AB

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NO.25 Refer to the exhibit.
A backup administrator must recover all Microsoft Word documents (.doc) created after January 1, 2005
from the F:\CEO directory, including subfolders.
How is this accomplished?
A. enter F:\CEO for the Path; enter *.doc for the File; select Include subdirectories; enter 1/1/2005 for
From box; enter today's date for To box; select Include for Type
B. enter F:\CEO for the Path; enter *.* for the File; enter 1/1/2005 for the From Box; leave the To box blank;
select Include for Type
C. enter F:\*.* for the Path; enter \CEO\*.doc for the File; select Include subdirectories; enter 1/1/2005 for
the From box; enter today's date for the To box; select Exclude for Type
D. enter \* for the Path; enter *.doc for the File; select Include subdirectories; enter 1/1/2005 for the From
box; enter today's date for the To box; select Include for Type
Answer: A

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NO.26 A global company must use a "follow-the-sun" backup strategy, which means that the backup servers
are constantly performing backups. The SLA requires that both DHCP and Active Directory remain
available.
Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers component is required in order to meet the SLA?
A. Data Protection Option
B. Advanced Open File Option
C. Central Admin Server Option
D. Agent for Enterprise Vault Option
Answer: B

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NO.27 What are two benefits of enabling Database Maintenance in Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows
Servers? (Choose two.)
A. deletes aged reports
B. exports the database to XML
C. removes alert history
D. decreases the size of the database
E. opens the database for sharing
Answer: CD

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NO.28 Which two Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Server agents/options support remote installation
from an existing media server? (Choose two.)
A. Active Directory Recovery Agent
B. Advanced Open File Option
C. Desktop and Laptop Option
D. Library Expansion Option
E. Shared Storage Option
Answer: BC

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NO.29 Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers agent/option provides Microsoft Virtual Server
support?
A. Shadow Copy
B. Virtual Machine
C. System State
D. Remote Agent
Answer: D

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NO.30 Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers (Backup Exec) utility can be used to change
the user account listed in the Backup Exec services?
A. Services
B. BEServices
C. ServicesMgr
D. BEDIAG
Answer: C

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Exam Code: ST0-030
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Mail Security 8300 Series (STS))
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Total Q&A: 88 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 What is the function of the Symantec Mail Security 8300 Transformation Engine?
A. Based on configured policies, performs the required actions on the message
B. Based on configured policies, scans the message for attributes and violations
C. Based on default policies, stores spam and virus messages
D. Based on default policies, provides automated synchronization from LDAP
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which two Symantec Mail Security 8300 Control Center components can be used to store email
security violations? (Select two.)
A. Suspect virus quarantine
B. Email virus logging
C. Message audit logs
D. Email spam quarantine
E. Instant message quarantine
Answer: AD

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NO.3 What is a content filtering capability of Symantec Mail Security 8300?
A. True file type scanning
B. Advanced phishing capability
C. Custom sieve editor
D. Word stemming analysis
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the recommended deployment location for Symantec Mail Security 8300?
A. In front of the external firewall
B. Behind the existing Exchange server
C. At the SMTP gateway
D. Integrated with the existing gateway SMTP server
Answer: C

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NO.5 What must be true in the DNS set up to establish load sharing via DNS round robin across multiple
SMTP gateway servers?
A. The preference numbers or weightings of the MX records must be the same.
B. The Ptr records for the servers must point to the same hostname.
C. The load sharing attribute must reference a valid hardware load balancer with an externally routable IP
address.
D. The preference numbers of the A records must be set to 10.
Answer: A

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NO.6 How does the LDAP synchronization process treat mail-enabled groups?
A. As a user list
B. As a distribution list
C. As domain groups
D. As an LDAP list
Answer: B

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NO.7 Under which condition is the 'Strip and Hold in Suspect Virus Quarantine' action available for use?
A. If a message is unscannable for viruses
B. If a message contains a suspicious attachment
C. If a message contains a mass-mailing worm
D. If a message contains a virus
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is the key purpose of the Alerts feature of the Control Center?
A. Sends email alerts to administrators or other parties
B. Sends SNMP notifications to administrators or other parties
C. Informs Symantec Mail Security 8300 administrators of antispam attacks detected by Symantec
D. Sends email notifications to senders who violate configured email security policies
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which Symantec Mail Security 8300 component retrieves new and updated spam filters from
Symantec Security Response through secure HTTPS file transfer?
A. Conduit
B. Uplink
C. LiveUpdate
D. Sequencer
Answer: A

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NO.10 On which two areas on the Control Center can you view license expiration status? (Select two.)
A. On the Control Center Dashboard
B. On the Licenses page
C. On the Alerts page
D. On the License Summary Report
Answer: AB

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NO.11 Which statement is true about Content Compliance policies?
A. Available linked compound conditions include AND, OR, XOR, and NOT.
B. They are evaluated in the order listed on the main page of the Compliance tab.
C. There is a set limit to the number of conditions per compliance policy.
D. The order of conditions in a filter is important when a filter matches a message.
Answer: B

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NO.12 What is the function of the DNS MX record?
A. Specifies the IP addresses for gateway email servers that process Internet traffic
B. Redirects internal IM traffic to the 8300 Series to enforce IM security
C. Specifies the hostnames that accept SMTP email for a domain and the priority in which the hostnames
should be tried
D. Identifies the IP addresses associated with host names
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which two statements are true regarding the reporting features in Symantec Mail Security 8300?
(Select two.)
A. reporting statistics data for email and IM are tracked by default
B. centralized reporting across more than one Scanner requires a dedicated reporting appliance
C. reports can be scheduled on a daily or weekly basis
D. reports can be saved to a favorites list for easy access
E. report data retention is managed on the same schedule and frequency as log retention
Answer: CD

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NO.14 Which three are functions of the Control Center? (Select three.)
A. Consolidates logging information
B. Houses Email Spam Quarantine messages
C. Generates encrypted structured data indexes
D. Executes email policies
Answer: ABC

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NO.15 What is a key prerequisite for enabling the end-user Email Spam Quarantine feature?
A. Selecting the 'Delete messages sent to unresolved email addresses' option
B. Importing a list of allowed users on the Quarantine Setup page
C. Defining an LDAP source for synchronization
D. Defining an LDAP source for authentication
Answer: D

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NO.1 The vxprint command output for volume vol07 indicates that it has three plexes. How will you
determine which plexes are used for data?
A.Note the lengths. Data plexes are all the same length.
B.Note the STATE field. Non-data plexes will be indicated by the value: LOG.
C.Note the STATE field. Data plexes will be indicated by the value: MIRROR.
D.Note the RECORD TYPE field. Data plexes are designated with PL.
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is the minimum number of plexes required for true mirroring to provide redundancy of data?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.Four
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which structure records are stored in the private region? (Each correct Answer presents part of the
solution. Select three.)
A.Disk group configuration
B.Disk and disk group ID
C.File system metadata
D.Disk group kernel log
E.Partition tables
Answer: ABD

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NO.4 You want to allow non-layered volume to change to layered stripe-mirror volume while remaining online.
What is the correct procedure to perform this conversion?
A.Convert the volume, stop the volume, remount the file system, and start the volume.
B.Unmount the file system, stop the volume, convert the volume, start the volume, and remount the file
system.
C.Resync the volume, convert the volume, and mirror the volume.
D.Stop the volume and then convert the volume.
Answer: C

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NO.5 You place six physical disks under Volume Manager control to create 10GB of volume. You want to
use this volume as an archive directory. You need to create a volume that will store three copies of the
archived data. Which command will you use to create a volume with three plexes?
A.vxassist make archivevol 30g layout=stripe-mirror nmirror=3
B.vxassist make archivevol 30g layout=stripe-mirror ncolumn=3
C.vxassist make archivevol 10g layout=stripe-mirror nmirror=3
D.vxassist make archivevol 10g layout=stripe-mirror ncolumn=3
Answer: C

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NO.6 You have large number of mirrored volumes, and the resynchronization process on mirrored volumes
will take lot of time. You want to address enable Dirty Region Logging (DRL) and find out the cause why it
takes a long time for resynchronization. You want to check the status of DRL logging to see if it is already
enabled.
How will you accomplish this task?
A.Use the vxprint command with the -F%drllogging $DCOVOL option
B.Use the vxprint command with the -F%drllogging $DRLVOL option
C.Use the vxprint command with the -F%dcologging $DCOVOL option
D.Use the vxprint command with the -F%drllogging $$DCONAME option
Answer: D

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NO.7 You are monitoring a file system on a Solaris operating system using Veritas Volume Manager when
the following kernel message appears: WARNING: msgcnt x: mesg 069: V-2-69: memory usage specified
by the vxfs:vxfs_ninode and vxfs:vx_bc_bufhwm parameters exceeds available memory; the system may
hang under heavy load. You need to resolve this error. What should you do?
A.Increase the value of one or both parameters to 100% of physical memory or to 100% of kernel virtual
memory
B.Remove either the physical memory parameter or the kernel virtual memory parameter.
C.Leave the parameters at current levels and disregard the system message because it is a false
message.
D.Reduce the value of one or both parameters to less than 50% of physical memory or to 66% of kernel
virtual memory
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which three are the database agents that are supported by Storage Foundation High Availability
version? (Select three.)
A.Informix
B.DB/2
C.Ingress
D.Oracle
E.Sybase
F.SQL
Answer: BDE

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NO.9 How many free partitions do you need to encapsulate a boot disk?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which physical storage device is the equivalent to a virtual volume?
A.A disk
B.A partition
C.A block
D.A directory
Answer: B

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NO.11 The 'Administer' button in the Storage Foundation Management Server user interface for a host is
continually red, and the vxsvc32 agent is listed as DOWN.
How do you solve this problem?
A.Reconfigure the Storage Foundation management Server.
B.Reinstall the agent.
C.Restart Storage Foundation Management Server.
D.Change the types.ini configuration file on the Central Management Server.
Answer: D

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NO.12 You need to create a volume for the HR department. You need to mount a file system with a high
demand for I/O throughput. You are aware that spanning the volume across multiple disks will increase
the I/O performance. Which risk should you be aware of when spanning the volume across multiple
disks?
A.Write throughput degradation
B.Single disk failure causes volume failure
C.Requirement for disk redundancy
D.Poor I/O performance
Answer: B

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NO.13 You are auditing a current storage environment that is not utilizing storage tiering. The information
gained from the audit is to be used in a new storage tiering design that will have 4 tiers (Tiers 1-4). You
need to determine the location for archive data which needs to be accessible but is not used heavily.
Where should you store this data?
A.Tier 1: High-end storage arrays with fast, reliable network connections.
B.Tier 2: High-end arrays, but performance is not a priority.
C.Tier 3: Mid-range to low-end storage arrays with fast, reliable network connections.
D.Tier 4: low-cost media, such as tape, with little consideration given to performance.
Answer: C

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NO.14 You are working with the Storage Foundation Intelligent Storage Provisioning feature, to create a new
mirrored volume. To prevent system failure, you want to ensure that you are able to perform a recovery of
mirrored volumes in minimum response time.
What should you do?
A.Create a Dirty Region Log.
B.Create a Data Change Map log.
C.Create a RAID-5 log.
D.Create a Snap object log.
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which form of Disk Spanning allows you to map data in equally-sized chunks alternating across
multiple disks and is also known as interleaving?
A.Striping
B.Concatenation
C.Mirroring
D.Parity
Answer: A

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NO.16 What is the default limit to the number of subdisks that can be attached to a single plex?
A.1024
B.2048
C.4096
D.Unlimited
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which two restrictions does relayout place on the administration of a volume while it is in progress?
(Select two.)
A.During a relayout, you cannot create a sparse plex.
B.During a relayout, you cannot change the number of mirrors in a volume.
C.During a relayout, you cannot change the number of subdisks in a volume.
D.During a relayout, you cannot create a snapshot of a volume.
E.During a relayout, you cannot create a backup of a volume.
Answer: AD

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NO.18 You are responsible for administering the Storage Foundation for Sybase server. You want to remove a
mounted volume. What should you do first to ensure you are able to remove the mounted volume?
A.Remove the snapshot from the associated volume.
B.Recursively remove all plexes and subdisks.
C.Disassociate the snapshot from the associated volume.
D.Unmount the file system.
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which command will you use to determine the operating mode of vxconfigd?
A.vxdctl enable
B.vxdctl mode
C.vxmode
D.ps -ef |grep vxconfig
Answer: B

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NO.20 You have installed Storage Foundation 5.0 Standard server with a number of hosts. You want to
centrally monitor and manage the hosts. You also want to generate reports for the hosts and the storage
resources that the hosts consume. What should you do?
A.Install the Veritas Quick I/O option on Storage Foundation 5.0 server.
B.Install Veritas Storage Foundation Management Server on Storage Foundation 5.0 server.
C.Install Veritas Storage Foundation Management Host on Storage Foundation 5.0 server.
D.Upgrade Storage Foundation 5.0 Standard to Storage Foundation 5.0 Enterprise.
Answer: B

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