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Exam Code: ST0-29B
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Endpoint Protection 11 MR 4(STS))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 65 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-16

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NO.1 Which remediation option is available to administrators using the Find Unmanaged Computers
feature?
A. deploy a Symantec Endpoint Protection client package to the unmanaged host
B. monitor and log network traffic observed from the unmanaged host
C. install Microsoft Windows operating system security patches
D. disable network access pending Symantec Endpoint Protection client installation
Answer: C

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NO.2 Immediately after installation, what does a client do upon first contacting Symantec Endpoint Security
Manager?
A. register with the manager
B. download the latest policy
C. update virus definitions
D. launch a full system scan
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is the default replication frequency when adding an additional site to a Symantec Endpoint
Protection deployment?
A. 1 hour
B. 8 hours
C. daily
D. weekly
Answer: C

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NO.4 What can an administrator do to proactively obtain information about unknown devices on a network?
A. script a network audit using the Find Unmanaged Computers feature
B. create an Unmanaged Computer notification
C. schedule an audit report to send to the administrator
D. schedule regular LDAP synchronization
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which two actions are available when TruScan Proactive Threat Scan detects a trojan or worm?
(Select two.)
A.delete
B.ignore
C.terminate
D.quarantine
E.clean
Answer: C, D

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NO.6 Which two actions can the Centralized Exception policy perform? (Select two.)
A.exclude a specific folder from AntiVirus and AntiSpyware File System Auto-Protect scanning
B.specify an exclusion to keep a known risk from being scanned
C.specify machines from which the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console cannot be run
D.exclude forwarding of certain log types from the Symantec Endpoint Protection client
E.specify Intrusion Prevention system signatures for exclusion
Answer: A, B

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NO.7 If a Symantec Endpoint Protection (SEP) client is installed with AntiVirus and AntiSpyware components
only, what must be done to install the SEP Firewall?
A. redeploy the original installation package to the client
B. deploy the firewall license file to the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager
C. deploy a new package including the firewall component
D. deploy a firewall policy to that client through an XML file
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection client component must be installed to enable Unmanaged
Detector mode?
A. AntiVirus and AntiSpyware
B. Application and Device Control
C. Network Threat Protection
D. Network Access Control
Answer: C

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NO.9 A Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager administrator is importing from an Active Directory
environment. The director needs to know which object types are being imported. Which two object types
are imported into Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager from Active Directory? (Select two.)
A.security groups
B.organizational units
C.computers
D.sites
E.domains
Answer: B, C

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NO.10 Which file contains the Symantec Endpoint Protection client communication settings?
A. GRC.dat
B. Sylink.xml
C. GRC.xml
D. Sylink.dat
Answer: A

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NO.11 An administrator makes a change in the Active Directory structure, which has been imported into
Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM). By default, when will the change automatically be
reflected in SEPM?
A. as soon as the change is made in Active Directory
B. maximum 1 hour
C. maximum 4 hours
D. maximum 24 hours
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which feature can be configured to increase or decrease performance of scheduled scans?
A. scan frequency
B. CPU throttling
C. heartbeat interval
D. tuning options
Answer: D

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NO.13 When using the Push Deployment Wizard, which two methods can be used to identify the target
machines to which you want to install the Symantec Endpoint Protection client? (Select two.)
A.browse through Windows networking
B.import a file containing IP addresses
C.specify a UNC path
D.import a file containing MAC addresses
E.import hostnames from an LDAP server
Answer: A, B

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NO.14 In which client management log can an administrator identify when the client last connected to the
Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager?
A. Control
B. Traffic
C. System
D. Event
Answer: C

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NO.15 Based on Symantec best practices, which two tasks should be performed before migrating from
Symantec AntiVirus Corporate Edition to Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0? (Select two.)
A.disable Auto-Protect
B.disable scheduled scans
C.disable Tamper Protection
D.scan all clients
E.purge the quarantine
Answer: B, C

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NO.16 How many Symantec Endpoint Protection Managers can connect to an embedded database?
A. one
B. two
C. four
D. unlimited
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which setting can be enabled to report computers without a Symantec Endpoint Protection Agent?
A. LAN Detector
B. Unmanaged Detector
C. Segment Detector
D. Network Detector
Answer: D

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NO.18 An administrator needs a TruScan Proactive Threat scan that will detect a potential trojan, worm, or
keylogger as quickly as possible. How should the administrator set the scan frequency?
A. set it to continuous
B. set it to scan new processes immediately
C. select the default setting
D. set it to 5 minutes
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which two features migrate from previous versions of Symantec AntiVirus? (Select two.)
A.Tamper Protection Settings
B.AntiVirus Settings
C.Uninstall Password
D.Client Group Structure
E.Firewall Settings
Answer: B, D

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NO.20 An administrator has successfully installed Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager onto a Windows
2003 Server using the installation wizard. Which component is deployed to the server at this point in time?
A. AntiVirus/AntiSpyware Protection
B. Proactive Threat Protection
C. Apache Tomcat Server
D. Central Quarantine Server
E. Network Threat Protection
Answer: C

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Exam Code: ST0-095
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Technical Foundations: Security Solutions 1.0 (STS))
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Total Q&A: 207 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-16

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NO.1 What is a critical success factor when implementing workflow software?
A. It should work well with application integration software.
B. It should work well with web security software.
C. It should work well with bug tracking infrastructure.
D. It should work well with network access controls.
Answer: A

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NO.2 What should be in place before automatically blocking confidential data leaving the organization?
A. hard drive encryption
B. well-refined data loss policies
C. email message encryption
D. endpoint management software
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which WO events could potentially be seen by a network monitoring solution in the context of
information protection? (Select WO.)
A. a program storing social security numbers in a SOL database
B. a hacker exfiltrating data out of an organization
C. a malicious insider emailing data out of an organization
D. an employee on their home ISP webmailing confidential data
E. an administrator incorrectly configuring email servers
Answer: B,C

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NO.4 An employee has installed a video game on their company-issued laptop. Which Symantec solution
can prevent this installation in the future?
A. Altiris IT Management Suite
B. Endpoint Encryption
C. Brightmail Gateway
D. Security Information Manager
Answer: A

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NO.5 What does the Control Objectives for Information and Related Technology (CobiT) framework focus
on, according to the Security Solutions 1.0 course?
A. IT implementation life cycle
B. computer security concepts
C. international security procedures for audit
D. confidentiality. integrity, and availability
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which challenge does security information and event management (SIEM) help solve for customers?
A. monitoring for performance problem on servers
B. monitoring configuration changes in applications
C. monitoring for business compliance issues
D. monitoring for security violations
Answer: D

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NO.7 An employee's computer was recently infected by a virus due to opening an attachment received
through email. Which Symantec solution could have prevented this?
A. Brightmail Traffic Shaper
B. Brightmail Gateway
C. Network Access Control
D. Data Loss Prevention
Answer: B

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NO.8 A cybercriminal wants to break into an organization using a SOL injection attack. What will the
cybercriminal do to start the attack?
A. enter a command at a user prompt
B. locate a user input field on the company's web page
C. gain administrative access to the database
D. use SOL slammer malware
Answer: B

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NO.9 What is the primary goal when creating a security products?
A. to assist in the compliance process
B. to ensure systems have updated patches
C. to protect information
D. to report on system configuration
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which two benefits does patch management provide an organization? (Select two.)
A. modifies usability or performance of a computer
B. removes vulnerabilities through software fixes
C. updates operating systems and ensures compliance
D. migrates the operating system
E. counts software licenses installed
Answer: B,C

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NO.11 What is the purpose of defining a technical standard?
A. to identify minimum system configuration requirements for assets
B. to define roles and responsibilities within an organization
C. to create documented exceptions or waivers to a policy
D. to implement the guidelines directed by management
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which Symantec solution can identify and block a malicious file from being downloaded in an HTTP
session?
A. Web Gateway
B. Brightmail Gateway
C. Network Access Control
D. Critical System Protection
Answer: A

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NO.13 What is a key benefit of integrating multiple security-related solutions?
A. automates administration across multiple security solutions
B. develops IT security policies across security solutions
C. consolidates critical data from separate security solutions
D. enforces user policies across unrelated security solutions
Answer: C

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NO.14 What is a benefit of a security awareness program, according to the Security Solutions 1.0 course?
A. It provides an understanding of current system security settings.
B. It allows the organization to understand where critical systems reside.
C. It provides an understanding of the operational costs of security.
D. It ensures that employees understand their roles and responsibilities.
Answer:

NO.15 Which type of attack would be most successful against the password T63k#s23A?
A. cross site scripting
B. brute-force
C. dictionary
D.SOL injection
Answer: B

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NO.16 customer is experiencing image-based spam and phishing attacks that are negatively impacting
messaging flow. Which Symantec solution should be recommended to this customer?
A. Brightmail Gateway
B. Endpoint Protection
C. Network Access Control
D. Backup Exec System Recovery
Answer: A

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NO.17 An administrator wants to identify and monitor systems with weak or static passwords. Which
Symantec solution can help collect this information?
A. Data Loss Prevention
B. Endpoint Protection
C. Critical System Protection
D. Control compliance Suite
Answer: D

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NO.18 What is the primary benefit of a people-based workflow solution?
A. business process creation
B. centrally managed collaboration
C. coordination of web services
D. user-based task assignment
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which framework is used to manage change within an IT organization?
A. Management of Risk (MOR)
B. Information Technology Asset Management (IT AM)
C. Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL)
D. Control Objectives for Information and Related Technology (CobiT)
Answer: C

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NO.20 How does a denial of service attack work?
A. It attempts to break the authentication mode.
B. It imitates the behavior of a valid user.
C. It cracks passwords, causing the system to crash.
D. It prevents a legitimate user from using a system or service.
Answer: D

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NO.21 What is one of the benefits of the assessment step within the security policylifecycle, according to the
Security Solutions 1.0 course?
A. It provides the actionable configuration standards.
B. It allows organizations to understand where critical assets reside.
C. It educates the employees and manages the enforcement of a products.
D. It analyzes the policythrough interviews.
Answer: B

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NO.22 What do software patches affect within a company's environment?
A. applications only
B. operating systems only
C. operating systems and applications only
D. operating systems. applications. and hardware configurations
Answer: C

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NO.23 What is the primary purpose of change control in the context of security?
A. to apply changes that increase security posture
B. to prevent changes from decreasing security posture
C. to automatically apply security changes on a set schedule
D. to automatically undo changes that cause security problem
Answer: B

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NO.24 What are most organizations concerned with when looking at risk as it relates to impact on an asset?
A. downtime B: . revenue
C. response time
D. exposure
Answer: B

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NO.25 Which WO topics did Art Gilliland state in the Security Solutions 1.0 course as areas that Symantec
plans to invest in? (Select WO.)
A. reputation-based security
B. identity management
C. cryptography
D. cross-product management and reporting
E. security of social networkinq sites
Answer: A,D

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NO.26 Which two questions are appropriate to ask a customer in order to uncover a need for Symantec
Control Compliance Suite? (Select two.)
A. Are you meeting your required backup windows?
B. Have you recently gone through a merger or acquisition, requiring new entitlements and controls?
C. Do you need to archive email for legal discovery purposes?
D. Is your operations team struggling to keep on top of IT audit-related tasks? DE. Do you need to ensure
critical servers are deployed by authorized personnel?
1linimize
Answer:

NO.27 How do the security program approaches rank in order from least mature to most mature?
A. compliance, risk, IT security
B. risk. compliance, IT security
C. IT security, compliance, risk
D. IT security, risk, compliance
Answer: C

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NO.28 What are traditional, definition-based malware scanning technologies unable to identify?
A. new or unique threats unless a sample has been submitted
B. older threats or threats that are inactive in the wild
C. polymorphic threats that have been discovered in an antivirus lab
D. threats that are written to temporary locations in storage
Answer:

NO.29 Which type of breach source is Albert Gonzalez, as mentioned in the Security Solutions 1.0 course?
A. well-meaning insider
B. malicious insider
C. cybercriminal
D. disgruntled employee
Answer: C

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NO.30 Malware that contains a backdoor is placed on a system that will later be used by the cybercriminal to
gain access to the system. The cybercriminal was successful in which phase of the breach?
A: capture
B: discovery
C: incursion
D: exfiltration
Answer: C

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Exam Code: ST0-100
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Domino Technical)
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Total Q&A: 132 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-16

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NO.1 What should be done before running the Enterprise Vault Reports Configuration tool?
A. create the Enterprise Vault Reporting SQL database
B. stop IIS
C. add the Vault Service Account to the DomainAdmins group
D. create an ordinary Active Directory user account to be used by Enterprise Vault Reporting
Answer: D

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NO.2 Symantec Enterprise Vault sites are grouped under which Symantec Enterprise Vault container?
A. Directory
B. Targets
C. Archives
D. Domains
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which two SQL databases are directly associated with storage in Symantec Enterprise Vault?
A. Directory and Monitoring
B. Partition and Vault Store
C. Directory and Vault Store
D. Fingerprint and Vault Store
Answer: D

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NO.4 After running the Symantec Enterprise Vault Configuration Wizard, which of these services are running
when viewed from the Vault Administration Console? (Select two.)
A. Enterprise Vault Indexing Service
B. Enterprise Vault Administration Service
C. Enterprise Vault Directory Service
D. Enterprise Vault Domino Archiving Service
E. Enterprise Vault Task Controller Service
Answer: A,E

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NO.5 Which connection type is used to archive messages from mail files?
A. IMAP
B. NRPC
C. MAPI
D. SMTP
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which two Symantec Enterprise Vault features reduce the storage requirements needed by a company
to maintain information? (Select two.)
A. data compression
B. collections on archived data
C. Optimized Single Instance Storage
D. storage on WORM devices
E. item conversion to HTML
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 A company will have five Symantec Enterprise Vault (EV) sites and three EV Directories. How many
Monitoring databases should be planned?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
Answer: C

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NO.8 What are two reasons for adopting Symantec Enterprise Vault to manage unstructured content?
(Select two.)
A. to protect messaging infrastructure to ensure uptime and productivity
B. to enable corporate discovery and end-user search
C. to centralize information management and retention
D. to create and retain snapshots to facilitate instant recovery
E. to enforce compliance with endpoint security policies
Answer: B,C

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NO.9 Which two are prerequisites for installing Symantec Enterprise Vault (EV) Reporting? (Select two.)
A. grant dbreader rights in Microsoft SQL server to the default EV Domino Admin role
B. install Microsoft Active Server Pages .NET 3.0 SP3 on the EV server
C. install Microsoft SQL Reporting Services on the SQL Reporting server
D. give the Vault Service Account the Content Manager role on the Microsoft SQL Reporting server
E. add the Vault Service Account to the Local Administrators group on the SQL Reporting server
Answer: C,D

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NO.10 Which process requires that the Enterprise Vault Domino Gateway (EVDG) be installed in the
environment?
A. Mailfile archiving
B. Lotus Notes access to archived items
C. Enterprise Vault Administrator access to Domino configuration
D. Journal archiving
Answer: B

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NO.11 What are two primary physical data-storage components of Domino Mailbox Archiving in
Symantec Enterprise Vault? (Select two.)
A. Indexes
B. Archives
C. Vault Store partitions
D. IIS configuration data
E. Shopping Basket
Answer: A,C

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NO.12 What tool can be installed to check that all pre-requisites have been correctly configured?
A. Enterprise Vault Compatibility Checker
B. Enterprise Vault Deployment Scanner
C. SystemCheck.exe
D. Microsoft System Information tool
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which two of the following are created by the Symantec Enterprise Vault Configuration wizard? (Select
two.)
A. Index locations
B. Vault Directory database
C. Services on the Enterprise Vault server
D. Domino archives
E. Vault store databases
Answer: B,C

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NO.14 A user is unable to log in to search the archived mail. Which step can be taken to correct the problem?
A. re-enable the mailbox
B. refresh the design
C. reset the Internet password
D. reset the Domino password
Answer: C

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NO.15 When the Deployment Scanner is used for troubleshooting a Symantec Enterprise Vault
environment, which two of these tests are performed? (Select two.)
A. mail file permissions
B. Domino server permissions
C. registry settings
D. Domino server versions
E. Domino template versions
Answer: C,D

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NO.16 Did you participate in formal Symantec training for this exam? If so, please select the type of training
that you completed. (Select all that apply.)
A. Instructor-led classroom
B. Virtual instructor-led classroom
C. eLearning / web-based training
D. Symantec-hosted webcast
E. Distributor or reseller-hosted webcast
F. Field / Real-world experience
G. Other
Answer: A,B

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NO.17 Which two additions are made to the notes.ini of the Symantec Enterprise Vault Domino Gateway
(EVDG) server after installing Symantec Enterprise Vault? (Select two.)
A. ServerTasks=EVDominoHousekeeping
B. ServerTasks=EVDominoEM
C. ExtMgr_Addins=EVDominoEM.dll
D. ExtMgr_Addins=EVDominoHousekeeping.dll
E. ExtMgr_Addins=EVDominoHousekeeping
Answer: A,C

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NO.18 What is a benefit of archiving Domino user mail files?
A. makes email highly available
B. provides a compliance copy of email
C. prevents users from deleting email
D. enables efficient search and retrieval of email
Answer: D

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NO.19 Implementation of Symantec Enterprise Vault follows a specific sequential process after prerequisites
are met. The first three steps in this process include: run the Deployment Scanner, run the Software Install,
and run the Configuration Wizard. What is the fourth step in the process?
A. run the Domino Configuration Wizard
B. run the Getting Started Wizard
C. run the Archiving Configuration Wizard
D. run the Provisioning Wizard
E. run the Storage Configuration Wizard
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which action is necessary to run DTrace from within the Vault Administration Console?
A. enable Traces from the Site Properties
B. enable debug from the Site Properties
C. install DTrace.exe on the Symantec Enterprise Vault server
D. enable Advanced Features
Answer: D

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NO.1 What are the limitations when upgrading CVM and CFS to version 5.1?
A. All systems within a CVM/CFS configuration must have the same versions of software; rolling upgrades
with mixed versions of software are only supported from 5.1 onwards.
B. All systems within a CVM/CFS configuration must have the latest MP for the current version prior to the
upgrade to 5.1.
C. Rolling upgrades can only be performed from version 5.0 to 5.1; rolling upgrades from 4.1 are not
supported
D. Rolling upgrades can only be performed if the diskgroup and filesystem versions remain unchanged
until all of the systems have been upgraded to the same version of software
Answer: A

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NO.2 A customer has a Veritas Volume Replicator (VVR) configuration with the srlprot attribute set to override.
If there is an SRL overflow while the RLINK is connected, what happens to the running application issuing
writes.?
A. Application continues, and VVR overflows the SRL.
B. Application is blocked until SRL drains 5% or 20 megabytes, whichever is smaller.
C. Application is blocked until the RLINK is automatically detached after AutoDetach seconds have
elapsed.
D. Application continues, and VVR is automatically converted to DCM logging.
Answer: B

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NO.3 A customer has Veritas Volume Replication (VVR) version 5.1 with the following Rlink attributes:
synchronous=override bandwidth_limit=30 mbps Which statement is true?
A. If VVR is unable to maintain synchronous replication within the defined bandwidth limits, then the
bandwidth_limit attribute will be overridden to try and maintain a synchronous copy of the data at the
secondary site.
B. If VVR is unable to maintain synchronous replication within the defined bandwidth limits, it will
automatically fall-back to asynchronous mode to enable replication within the defined bandwidth limits.
C. VVR will throttle the write operations on the primary server in order to replicate the data
synchronously to the secondary site within the bandwidth limits. In the event of a network failure VVR will
fallback to asynchronous replication mode and the write operations on the primary server will no longer be
throttled, but the bandwidth for replicating to the secondary site will still be limited.
D. The bandwidth_limit attribute does not apply to synchronous replication, however in the event that the
rLink falls back to asynchronous mode the data will then be replicated within the defined bandwidth limits.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Why is it important to upgrade Storage Foundation diskgroups and filesystem versions after upgrading
the version of software on a system?
A. Storage Foundation will be unable to access the files residing on diskgroups and filesystems that have
an older version than the binaries.
B. Older diskgroup and filesystem versions are only supported during a rolling upgrade.
C. Upgrading the diskgroup and filesystem versions will enable the full capabilities of the product to be
deployed.
D. It eliminates warnings being sent to the console due to the out-of-date diskgroup and filesystem
versions.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which two components should ordinarily be configured within a Relicated Volume Group (RVG)?
(Select two.)
A. SRL
B. RDS
C. DCM
D. Diskgroup
E. Rlink
Answer: A, C

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NO.6 Which two capabilities of Symantec Common Product Installer (CPI) are not supported by the
web-based installer for Storage Foundation 5.1? (Select two.)
A. installing Storage Foundation
B. uninstalling Storage Foundation
C. upgrading Storage Foundation
D. configuring Storage Foundation for Oracle RAC (SFRAC)
E. adding license keys for Storage Foundation
Answer: C, D

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NO.7 You have been asked to review a customer's VVR configuration, and found that the Rlink has the
following attributes: srlprot=override bandwidth_limit=30 mbps What is the risk to the customer's
application if the SRL overflows?
A. Application writes will be stalled which may cause the front-end application to fail or hang.
B. The bandwidth_limit will be increased so the SRL can drain, and this may overload the network and
cause application performance problems.
C. The size of the SRL will be increased, leaving less space if the application volumes need to be
extended.
D. VVR will start to use the DCM, which requires a replay of the DCM, during which, Write Order Fidelity
for the application data is lost.
Answer: A

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NO.8 A customer has two identical servers that support an OLTP database and billing application, respectively.
Each night they run a batch job to create a full Volume Manager snapshot of their OLTP database, which
is then imported and mounted on the other server to support the billing application. The customer has
asked an administrator to upgrade the version of Storage Foundation on the OLTP server to version 5.1.
Which action should be taken when performing this upgrade?
A. Upgrade the Storage Foundation binaries, diskgroups, and filesystems on the OLTP server and advise
the customer to upgrade their billing system to the same version of Storage Foundation software.
B. Inform the customer that they must upgrade the OLTP and Billing servers at the same time.
C. Modify the Storage Foundation configuration to use space-saving snapshots instead of full snapshots.
D. Only upgrade the Storage Foundation binaries on the OLTP server, do not upgrade the diskgroup and
filesystem versions until after the Billing server has been upgraded.
Answer: D

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NO.9 In which order must the tasks be performed to initially synchronize VVR replication using
checkpoints? .
Start replication using vradmin -c checkpoint startrep . Run "vxrvg -c checkpoint
checkstart" . Run "vxrvg checkend" . Perform a block-level backup at the primary . Restore raw backup at
the secondary
A. 1, 4, 5, 3, 2
B. 2, 1, 4, 5, 3
C. 2, 4, 3, 5, 1
D. 2, 4, 5, 3, 1
Answer: C

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NO.10 A customer has a Veritas Volume Replicator (VVR) configuration with srlprot attribute set to autodcm. In
the event that the SRL overflows, what will happen?
A. VVR will delay any further writes to the primary node until the SRL has drained below the
low-watermark threshold
B. VVR tracks new writes in the DCM while it drains the SRL. Once the SRL is empty, VVR then
automatically replicates writes tracked by the DCM.
C. VVR tracks new writes in the DCM while it drains the SRL. Once the SRL is empty, VVR stops and the
DCM must be replayed manually.
D. VVR stops replicating and writes in the SRL are converted into DCM logging. The DCM must then be
replayed manually.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 250-402
Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Altiris Client Management Suite 7.1)
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Total Q&A: 133 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-16

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NO.1 Which two products are included in Altiris Client Management Suite 7.1? (Select two.)
A. Service Desk
B. CMDB Solution
C. pcAnywhere
D. Wise Package Studio Professional
E. Deployment Solution
Answer: C,E

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NO.2 A system administrator is testing the delivery of an application. During deployment, the administrator
determines that the install path of an MSI needed to be changed without modifying the MSI. The
administrator needs to change the command line parameters of the install package. Which policies would
be affected when the default install command line of a software package is modified in the Software
Catalog?
A. policies that are assigned to a non-managed computer
B. policies that leverage Software Discovery
C. policies currently referencing the modified entry
D. policies referencing staged software updates
Answer: C

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NO.3 When manually creating an entry within the Software Catalog, the administrator needs the Managed
Delivery policy to verify that prerequisite software is installed before deploying a new application. What
should the administrator use to execute a prerequisite check?
A. Detection Rule
B. Applicability Rule
C. Basic Inventory
D. Software Filter
Answer: B

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NO.4 What are two prerequisites for installing Out-of-Band Management.? (Select two.)
A. SQL Server configured in mixed authentication mode
B. SQL Server configured in Windows authentication mode
C. Symantec Management Platform
D. SQL Analysis Service installed
E. SSL/TLS
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 A group of computers are received from a computer manufacturer with a list of corresponding MAC
addresses. To facilitate the imaging of the computers, the list is modified and then imported to
Deployment Solution, creating new computer accounts. In a lab, all computers are started and booted into
WinPE automation. In the console, a job is assigned to each computer appropriate to its hardware; but the
computers never get the tasks or run the jobs. What is a likely reason for this behavior?
A. The number of concurrent tasks assigned for imaging is overwhelming the SQL server.
B. The computer records in the database are missing necessary key information to properly identify the
computers.
C. The network addresses assigned to the computers in the lab are outside the SBS configured ranges.
D. New computers must first check in and be given a GUID in the console before being assigned a name
and corresponding jobs or tasks.
Answer: B

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NO.6 A software was virtualized during a Managed Software Delivery installation. Which method must be
used to manage the layer?
A. Virtual Composer task
B. Software Virtualization Command task
C. Package Delivery task
D. Quick Delivery task
Answer: B

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NO.7 After customizing the preboot configuration files, previously created configurations need to be updated.
Each file is highlighted and then the option to rebuild them is selected. After all items have been updated,
the "Save" button on the policy is selected to ensure all changes are stored in the database. However,
after several hours or even a day, the configuration files on the PXE servers maintain an old date instead
of the new date. Why do the PXE servers have the old date?
A. The PXE servers are missing from the policy assigned to the preboot configurations because several
policies were modified at the same time.
B. SBS Services must first be restarted to accept new policy changes from the server even though the
agent has received the policy.
C. The PXE Server configuration policy must also be updated at the same time as the preboot
configurations.
D. The preboot configuration policy changes are already saved and have been lost due to saving the
policy again.
Answer: D

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NO.8 A system administrator deployed the Inventory Solution Agent Plug-in to 15,000 endpoints across a
company. Subsequently, the administrator realizes that the performance of the Notification Server is
slower during the inventory scan times. Which two actions can be taken within Inventory Solution to
reduce the processing impact on the Notification Server during these times? (Select two.)
A. Create multiple policies on different schedules for subsets of computers.
B. Create a custom weekly schedule instead of using the default weekly schedule.
C. Enable the priority setting in the advanced settings of the inventory task.
D. Use the AeXRunControl.exe program to randomize the collection of inventory.
E. Use the throttling setting in the advanced settings of the inventory task.
Answer: A,E

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NO.9 The IT Security department wants to prevent all versions of a particular file sharing application from
running on company computers. Where must the software resource be defined before it can be prevented
from running?
A. Software Inventory scan
B. Software Catalog
C. Software Library
D. Software Update policy
Answer: D

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NO.10 What are two prerequisites for installing and configuring IT Analytics? (Select two.)
A. Microsoft Reporting and Analysis Services
B. Adobe Flash
C. Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Datamining Viewer Controls
D. Microsoft Office Web Components 11 (2003)
E. Microsoft Silverlight
Answer: A,D

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NO.11 An administrator receives notification of a new vulnerability threat from Symantec Deepsight Alert
Services. The alert includes the name of an executable that should be prevented from running. Which
policy should the administrator configure?
A. Malware Blocking policy
B. Application Metering policy
C. Custom Inventory policy
D. Software Inventory policy
Answer: A

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NO.12 A patch administrator is preparing to deploy new patches. The administrator needs to avoid applying
Microsoft updates to the wrong operating systems. How should the administrator deploy the patches?
A. by creating a Software Update policy to distribute the updates
B. by configuring the Import Patch Data for Microsoft task and only including applicable updates
C. by staging the update for each operating system in the test environment
D. by only applying updates to the Target with applicable computers when creating a Software Update
policy
Answer: A

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NO.13 An administrator is reviewing software resources in the software catalog. There is a duplicate for a
software resource. The administrator has initiated the Resolve Duplicate Software Resources Wizard and
selected the option to merge duplicate resources. What will happen to the duplicate entries in the
Software Catalog?
A. It creates a new software resource with the information from both entries and keeps the duplicates.
B. It updates the original software resource with both unique identifiers and the duplicate is deleted.
C. It creates a new software resource with the information from both entries and the entry with the newest
timestamp is deleted.
D. It updates the original software resources with the information from both entries and the entry with the
oldest timestamp is deleted.
Answer: B

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NO.14 An administrator needs to use the Deployment Solution task listed below in a job that will be used to
capture an image of a computer running Windows XP. Prepare for Image capture Which two configuration
steps must be completed before the task can be created? (Select two.)
A. enable PXE
B. create a system configuration
C. create a sysprep token
D. upload the applicable deploy.cab file
E. add an OS license key
Answer: D,E

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NO.15 A system administrator discovers that an unauthorized piece of software called "Solitaire 2099" has
been installed on company desktops. The software installs a browser toolbar that prevents the use of the
company standard browser toolbar and needs to be removed immediately. The administrator has also
been instructed to identify all users that are playing the game so that they can receive a private email
about the situation. Which two capabilities of Inventory Solution will help the administrator? (Select two.)
A. Inventory Solution provides data about the number of installed instances of an application. B.Inventory
Solution automatically associates software titles to users.
B. Inventory Solution automatically determines unauthorized software titles.
C. Inventory Solution tracks how often an application is executed.
D. Inventory Solution identifies harmful applications stored on local hard drives.
Answer: A,D

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Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Network Access Control 12.1 Technical Assessment )
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Total Q&A: 220 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-16

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NO.1 Which packets are periodically sent from an Enforcer to find other Enforcers on the network?
A. Failover
B. Discover
C. ARP
D. OSPF
Answer: A

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NO.2 On a LAN Enforcer, which command shows the switch action table decisions in real time?
A. show spm
B. show auth live
C. show kernel live
D. show action live
Answer: C

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NO.3 What are the correct connection settings for a serial connection?
A. Data Bits: 8; Parity: none; Stop Bits: 1
B. Data Bits: 8; Parity: odd; Stop Bits: 1
C. Data Bits: 8; Parity: even; Stop Bits: 1
D. Data Bits: 8; Parity: odd; Stop Bits: 2
Answer: D

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NO.4 At the Enforcer (debug)# prompt, which command enables the most detailed level of debugging?
A. level engineer
B. level verbose
C. level fine
D. level error
Answer: A

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NO.5 In an Enforcer command line interface, which filter is used to capture communication traffic between an
Enforcer and a Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager?
A. auth
B. client
C. query
D. spm
Answer: D

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NO.6 An organization's security policy requires Host Integrity checks to run only when the client is
connecting through a VPN concentrator whose internal interface is attached to a Gateway Enforcer.
Which setting should be configured to only check Host Integrity on these external clients, but not check
clients on the local network?
A. Apply the Host Integrity agent to the external computers only.
B. Add the IP addresses of the internal clients that need not be checked to the "Trusted Internal IP
Address Range".
C. Select "Only do Host-Integrity checking through the Gateway or DHCP Enforcer".
D. Block port UDP 39999 on the client firewalls of the internal clients, so that they cannot be challenged
by the Enforcer.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which protocol is used to transfer packet captures from an Enforcer?
A. FTP
B. HTTP
C. TFTP
D. SFTP
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which two are explanations of why auto-location switching may be useful for Host Integrity? (Select
two.)
A. It can define different Remediation sources, based on location.
B. It can enable different Antivirus features, based on location.
C. It can choose different Firewall rule sets, based on location.
D. It can select different Host Integrity checks, based on location
E. It can enable different LiveUpdate features, based on location.
Answer: A,D

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NO.9 Which default port must a firewall administrator open to enable communication between an Enforcer
and the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager?
A. 1433
B. 1812
C. 8443
D. 8080
Answer: B

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NO.10 A Helpdesk technician is examining the logs for a particular client when he notices something odd. A
Host Integrity event is listed for a client as failing a requirement, but that client machine is still able to
access the network even after having the check rerun several times. Why would the client's Host Integrity
status still pass?
A. The requirement logic is malfunctioning and the Helpdesk technician should notify the administrator to
contact the vendor.
B. It is likely to be a problem with the recording of the status. The log search must be rerun to update the
status.
C. The administrator has configured that requirement to allow the Host Integrity policy to pass even if it
fails.
D. The administrator has configured the OS to ignore Host Integrity even when it fails.
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which log contains IP address, connection attempt, port information, and the direction of the
connection?
A. Enforcer Client log
B. Enforcer Kernel log
C. Enforcer Traffic log
D. Enforcer Packet log
Answer: C

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NO.12 A Host Integrity policy has a complex custom conditional check that has three IF THEN statements, two
of which have ELSE statements. How many ENDIF statements are required?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 3
D. 5
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which check can be performed using custom requirements to verify whether "a product is installed" on
a client machine?
A. check the registry keys to see if the product is installed
B. check the service snap-in to see if the product is installed
C. check the policy document to see if the product is installed
D. check the IT documentation to see if the product is installed
Answer: D

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NO.14 An organization has deployed Symantec Network Access Control with LAN Enforcer. Historically, all
clients were Windows based endpoints. Now, Linux endpoints that authenticate with Microsoft Active
Directory will need to be authenticated through the LAN Enforcer. Which entry needs to be added to the
Switch Profile Action table to open the port for Linux endpoints once they have been authenticated
through Active Directory user credentials?
A. Host Authentication: Pass, User Authentication: Pass, Policy Check: Pass, Action: Open Port
B. Host Authentication: Fail, User Authentication: Fail, Policy Check: Ignore, Action: Close Port
C. Host Authentication: Unavailable, User Authentication:Pass, Policy Check: Unavailable, Action: Open
Port
D. Host Authentication: Pass, User Authentication: Unavailable, Policy Check: Unavailable, Action: Close
Port
Answer: C

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NO.15 What is the default time interval for Host Integrity checks?
A. Continuous
B. 2 minutes
C. 5 minutes
D. 30 minutes
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which statement is true about Symantec Network Access Control compliance?
A. It ensures that endpoints, such as clients and servers, meet specific administrator-defined
requirements.
B. It ensures the management of a secure client endpoint through the creation and implementation of
group policies.
C. It provides services needed by a client to bring itself up to spec in order to gain access to network
resources.
D. It provides clients with the ability to configure and deliver content and product updates to other clients
in the same topological location.
Answer: B

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NO.17 A guest is unable to download the On-Demand client. The guest is running Windows 7 64-bit and
connecting with the Mozilla Firefox browser. The computer has 512 MB RAM and 50 MB free disk space.
What is the likely cause of the problem?
A. The guest's system has insufficient disk space.
B. The guest's browser is unsupported.
C. The guest's operating system is unsupported.
D. The guest's system has insufficient RAM.
Answer: A

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NO.18 Refer to the exhibit.
A Symantec Network Access Control administrator is trying to implement two Gateway Enforcers in
failover mode. The administrator has implemented the two Enforcers in the network as shown in the
exhibit. After starting both Gateway Enforcers, the administrator finds that both Enforcers are in active
mode. What is the likely cause of the problem?
A. The failover configuration is missing.
B. The router is blocking multicast traffic.
C. The administrator failed to configure the Enforcers in Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager.
D. The Gateway Enforcers are configured in the same Gateway Enforcer group.
Answer: B

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NO.19 The 802.1x protocol has three major components: Supplicant, Authenticator and Authentication Server.
Which elements serve each of these components when Symantec Network Access Control is being
configured to use LAN Enforcement?
A. Supplicant: Symantec Endpoint Protection Client,
Authenticator: Symantec LAN Enforcer,
Authentication Server: Microsoft Active Directory Domain Controller
B. Supplicant: Microsoft Supplicant,
Authenticator: 802.1x Enabled Switch,
Authentication Server: Symantec LAN Enforcer
C. Supplicant: Network Access Control Client,
Authenticator: Symantec Endpoint Protection Policy Manager,
Authentication Server: Symantec LAN Enforcer
D. Supplicant: Microsoft Supplicant,
Authenticator: Microsoft Active Directory Domain Controller,
Authentication Server: Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager
Answer: B

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NO.20 When would the Enforcer need to be reset to factory defaults?
A. to change the type of Enforcer
B. to upgrade the Enforcer
C. to purge any errors on the Enforcer
D. to purge all logs from the Enforcer
Answer: A

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NO.21 What should an administrator do to obtain additional information about Host Integrity checking for a
newly implemented Host Integrity policy?
A. Create a customized computer status report on the management server.
B. Enable the reporting of additional log events on the client systems.
C. Set verbose logging on the Host Integrity policy.
D. Enable debug logging on the enforcer.
Answer: C

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NO.22 Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator needs a custom requirement to run a script if a file does not exist. Which modification to
the logic shown in the exhibit performs this functionality?
A. Add a nested AND/OR statement to run a script after the END IF.
B. Add a nested result to run a script after the Pass.
C. Use an OR modifier to run a script after the IF.
D. Use an ELSE statement to run a script after the THEN.
Answer: D

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NO.23 Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator has created a custom requirement to remediate an operating system patch. The custom
requirement appears to be working intermittently with clients that fail the patch installation, passing the
requirement anyway. What is the likely cause of the issue?
A. The logic is missing a Fail result.
B. The logic is missing an ELSE statement.
C. The logic has an extra Pass result.
D. The logic needs an additional IF/THEN item.
Answer: C

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NO.24 When a Gateway Enforcer is being deployed, which port needs to be kept open between the clients
and the Enforcer?
A. TCP 1812
B. TCP 39999
C. UDP 39999
D. UDP 1812
Answer: C

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NO.25 Which two databases are supported when Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager is being configured?
(Select two.)
A. Oracle Database 11g
B. Microsoft SQL Server 2005, SP2
C. Microsoft SQL Express, SP1
D. Microsoft SQL Server 2008
E. MySQL Database 5.5
Answer: B,D

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NO.26 What will happen if a user switches to a location with a different Host Integrity policy while a Host
Integrity check is in progress?
A. The Host Integrity check will fail and the client will be denied network access.
B. The client will stop the check and the user may get a timeout if attempting to reach remediation
resources.
C. The client is permitted guest access to the quarantine network until the next scheduled Host Integrity
check.
D. The Host Integrity check always completes prior to moving between locations.
Answer: B

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NO.27 An organization with a Gateway Enforcer behind a VPN concentrator that is performing NAT,
determines that clients are being blocked. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The client is missing from the MAC Address Bypass list.
B. The IP address of the internal interface of the VPN connector needs to be added to the Trusted
External IP Address list.
C. The Enforcer is placed in the wrong physical location on the network.
D. Static routes need to be added to the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager to pass the client traffic.
Answer: B

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NO.28 How does Symantec Network Access Control handle location switching compared to Symantec
Endpoint Protection?
A. It uses a reverse logic structure.
B. It excludes locations.
C. It uses locations instead of groups.
D. It handles locations in the same way.
Answer: D

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NO.29 How can an administrator provide computers on a quarantine VLAN with access to remediation
materials without using static routes?
A. Assign a virtual IP address to the NIC on the remediation server and add it to the quarantine VLAN.
B. Create a static route from the quarantine VLAN to the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager in the
Enforcer command line interface.
C. Multi-home the remediation server and connect one NIC to a port assigned to the quarantine VLAN.
D. Put a wireless access point on the quarantine VLAN to provide wireless access to quarantined clients.
Answer: C

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NO.30 How can access be permitted to remediation services when a client fails the Host Integrity check using
a Gateway Enforcer?
A. Add the client's IP address to the Trusted External IP Address List.
B. Add the client's MAC Address to the Mac Address Bypass table.
C. Add the IP addresses of the hosts to the Trusted Internal IP Address List.
D. Add the client to the Allowed Client table on the Enforcer.
Answer: C

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