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Exam Code: HP2-T14
Exam Name: HP (Servicing HP ProLiant ML/DL Servers Rev 8.31)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 86 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 .After resolving a problem at a customer site, you plan to provide a report to the customer.
Your report will include details about the root cause of the problem and what the
documented fix or fixes were. What else should you provide as part of the HP
Troubleshooting Methodology? (Select two.)
A. recommendations of preventive measures to take
B. the root cause of the problem and the person or group that should be held responsible for
causing it
C. recommendations of upgrades that would increase system performance
D. a current copy of SmartStart
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 .Which ProLiant Essential add-on pack can perform an unattended install of VMWare ESX
3.0?
A. Rapid Deployment Pack (RDP)
B. Remote Deployment Utility (RDU)
C. Server Migration Pack (SMP)
D. Virtual Machine Management Pack (VMM)
Answer: A

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NO.3 .You want to determine if the battery on the array accelerator board has failed. Which
offline tool run from the SmartStart CD shows if the battery is in an error state?
A. RBSU
B. ORCA
C. OARS
D. ADU
Answer: D

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NO.4 .Where is Selective Storage Presentation configured for MSA iSCSI and fiber storage
arrays?
A. RBSU
B. ACU
C. ORCA
D. SmartStart
Answer: B

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NO.5 .The blue light on an HP ProLiant server is flashing. What does this indicate?
A. The server is being remotely managed through iLO.
B. The server has sustained a failure in a redundant component
C. The server has recently sustained a thermal shutdown.
D. The server is in an ASR state.
Answer: A

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NO.6 .What is the primary value proposition of the HP ProLiant ML Server family?
A. most supported processor sockets
B. faster adoption of newer technologies as they become available
C. extra redundancy usually found in Integrity class servers
D. largest internal storage option
Answer: D

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NO.7 .For which ProLiant server series does IPMI serve as the management interface?
A. DL100
B. DL300
C. DL500
D. DL700
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is a characteristic of the shared-nothing cluster model, like the one used for the
Windows 2003 failover cluster?
A. shared-cache
B. shared-memory
C. shared-disk
D. shared-everything
Answer: C

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NO.9 .What does the HP Subscriber's Choice service provide?
A. an optional driver delivery site for a single server, much like Windows Update
B. proactive notification of critical updates and product changes for ProLiant servers
C. New Product Introduction (NPI) and notification services
D. a host site for the Version Control Repository Manager (VCRM) from which to acquire
drivers and ProLiant Support Packs (PSPs)
Answer: C

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NO.10 .Which filesystem does VMWare ESX Server use to contain its virtual machines?
A. NTFS
B. VMFS
C. VMS
D. VMDK
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP0-S25
Exam Name: HP (Implementing ProLiant ML/DL/SL Servers)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 213 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 A second Smart Array Controller has been added to a ProLiant server. What should you check in the
ROM-Based Setup Utility?
A. Removable Flash Media Boot Sequence
B. PCI Express 2.0 support
C. Standard Boot Order
D. Boot Controller Order
Answer: D

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NO.2 You have just added two internal drives to your ProLiant server. Which utilities should you use to
allocate the raw space to the Smart Array volume and extend the Windows NTFS partition to use all the
new space? (Select two.)
A. diskpart.exe
B. chkdsk.exe
C. HP Storage Resource Manager
D. ACU
E. ORCA
Answer: AD

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NO.3 Which protocol provides system management data through the Windows Management Instrumentation
(WMI) framework for ProLiant servers?
A. WBEM
B. SNMP
C. HTTP
D. SSH
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which HP tool can be used to expand an existing array online?
A. ROM-Based Setup Utility (RBSU)
B. Option ROM Configuration for Arrays (ORCA)
C. System Configuration Utility (SCU)
D. HP System Management Homepage (SMH)
E. Array Configuration Utility (ACU)
Answer: E

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NO.5 Which tool enables reactive and proactive remote support to improve the availability of HP- supported
servers and associated storage systems in a data center, relies on several HP components like Insight
Management Agent and uses SNMP or WBEM for communication?
A. HP Insight Remote Support Advanced
B. HP Remote Diagnostic Monitor
C. HP Systems Insight Manager
D. Proactive 24 Care Pack service
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which components are covered under the HP Pre-failure Warranty? (Select three.)
A. power supplies
B. host bus adapters
C. processors
D. SCSI drives
E. fans
F. memory
Answer: CDF

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit button.
You are viewing systems on the CMS of HP Systems Insight Manager. What is indicated by the presence
of the PF column?
A. VMM is installed.
B. PMP is installed.
C. VCRM is installed.
D. IPM is installed.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which tool can be used to help optimize processor performance before and after modifications are
implemented?
A. Firmware Management CD
B. ProLiant Processor Performance Utility
C. HP Insight Performance Management module
D. Insight Control Power Capping
Answer: C

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NO.9 What is required to enable RAID 6+0 on the HP Smart Array P411 Controller.? (Select two.)
A. six enabled ports
B. Smart Array Advanced Pack
C. minimum of six disks
D. minimum of four disks
E. battery kit for installed BBWC
Answer: BE

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NO.10 Where can you locate a SmartStart CD?
A. HP Insight Foundation Suite for ProLiant
B. HP Insight software
C. SmartStart Scripting Toolkit
D. Insight Rapid Deployment software
Answer: A

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NO.11 A customer wants you to configure his ProLiant G6 for maximum power saving. What is the
recommended way for you to accomplish this?
A. Plug in only one power cord, if the system is equipped with two power supplies.
B. Disable Hyperthreading.
C. Choose the "Minimum Power Usage" - profile in RBSU.
D. Choose the "Minimum Power Management" - profile in Control Panel.
Answer: C

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NO.12 When deploying an RDP solution, which network component must be installed and properly
configured?
A. SNMP
B. WBEM
C. SMTP
D. DHCP
Answer: D

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NO.13 If the MTBF of a single drive is 200,000 hours, how many hours is the MTBF of a five drive array?
A. 40,000 hours
B. 50,000 hours
C. 80,000 hours
D. 200,000 hours
E. 1,000,000 hours
Answer: A

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NO.14 Your customer needs to be able to split and recombine mirrors on his DL380 G6 Server. What must be
done to enable this feature?
A. Enable the Mirror Splitting in Offline Mode option in ACU.
B. Activate the Smart Array Advanced Pack (SAAP) by installing the activation license key in ORCA.
C. Activate the Smart Array Advanced Pack (SAAP) by installing the activation license key in RBSU.
D. Enable the Advanced Capacity Expansion option in ACU.
Answer: B

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NO.15 What is a new feature of the IPv6 addressing scheme?
A. a network prefix that enables routing decisions at the network layer
B. a network host that specifies a particular device in the network
C. an anycast address defined to send a packet to any one of a group of nodes
D. address space allocation, based on an octet system
Answer: C

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NO.16 When purchasing the ProLiant Extended Warranty Care Pack, which features are included in addition
to the Base Warranty features? (Select three.)
A. software support
B. committed response times
C. hardware protection from manufacturer defect
D. flexible support levels
E. parts and labor
Answer: ABD

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NO.17 Which protocols can HP SIM use for the initial data collection? (Select two.)
A. SNMP
B. ICMP
C. SMTP
D. DMI
Answer: AD

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NO.18 Which type of disk drives are supported in an MSA 2000fc?
A. FATA drives
B. Ultra320 SCSI drives
C. SAS drives
D. FC drives
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which feature is exclusive to the ProLiant 100 Series family?
A. BIOS Serial Console
B. Automatic Server Recovery (ASR-2)
C. Watchdog Timer
D. Web-based Enterprise Management (WBEM)
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which actions can HP SIM take on a trap sent by a ProLiant server? (Select two.)
A. send an email to the administrator
B. call the administrator phone number
C. launch a script
D. collect a "survey" file of the server and send it to the HP Support team
Answer: AC

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Exam Code: HP0-M30
Exam Name: HP (HP Network Node Manager Essentials)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 65 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which user role is used to access NNMi the first time during installation and for command line access?
A. System
B. Operator
C. Guest
D. root
Answer: A

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NO.2 How is SNMP communication with the NNMi server authenticated?
A. Encrypted authentication string are used.
B. A community string is used.
C. RSA keys are required.
D. An enable password is required.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which devices define the NNMi Layer Three topology?
A. switches and bridges
B. bridges and hubs
C. routers and switch routers
D. connections and subnets
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which process controls the application server that contains all the NNMi services?
A. Postgres
B. Causal Engine
C. Ovjboss
D. NmsModel
Answer: C

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NO.5 How can an administrator block traps from a specific IP address?
A. Open the node from the console and click the Traps tab, then click Ignore.
B. Open the incident configuration window and use the Tools > Ignore Host tool.
C. Add the IP address to the nnmtrap.ignore file.
D. Add the IP address to the nnmtrapd.conf file.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP2-B40
Exam Name: HP (Office Color Solutions – Technical)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which elements of an image suffer in reduction when the image is reduced in size? (Select three.)
A. photo-realistic areas
B. very thin lines
C. light shadowing
D. halftone screens
E. very colorful elements
F. white text on solid background
Answer: B,D,F

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NO.2 What are advantages of communicating with color over black/white, which are proven by independent
market research institutes? (Select three.)
A. Color increases readership.
B. Color can simplify complex information.
C. Color makes price-discussions unnecessary.
D. Color allows for more effective communication.
E. Color directly helps increase stock market share prices.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.3 What are common misconceptions about the adoption/use of color? (Select three.)
A. Color is not always available.
B. Color is very expensive.
C. There is no way to manage the abuse of color.
D. Color is difficult and costly to maintain.
E. Color makes employees less productive, as they are distracted.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.4 Which statements concerning non-color-managed applications are true? (Select two.)
A. Files from non-color-managed applications can only be printed on RGB printers.
B. Non-color-managed applications are Microsoft Office Applicationsand most Web browsers.
C. Non-color-managed applications allow the user to use comprehensive color settings, like changing
color gamuts before printing.
D. When pictures/images are inserted into the non-color-managed applications of the Microsoft Office
Package, the respective colors are all converted to sRGB values.
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 Research indicates that readers usually see elements on a document page in a specific order. Pictures
or illustrations are seen first, and body copy is seen last. What is the order of elements that come in
between?
A. charts or graphs; headlines; captions
B. captions; headlines; charts or graphs
C. headlines; charts or graphs; captions
D. headlines; captions; charts or graphs
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which statement is true about color?
A. Color is a pure, physical process.
B. To make color occur, you need light and an object.
C. To make color occur, you need an object and an observer.
D. Color only occurs when a combinationof a light source, an object, and an observer are present.
Answer: B

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NO.7 What are the photoreceptors of the human eye, which are responsible for color vision?
A. rods
B. cones
C. foveas
D. retinas
Answer: B

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NO.8 What are two rules of thumb used to determine if an image is suitable for printing? (Select two.)
A. If the image resolution is unknown, zoom the image to 400% and verify the quality.
B. Calculate dpi by dividing the image resolution by the size of the desired output.
C. Divide the desired output size by the resolution of the image.
D. If the image resolution is unknown, zoom the image to 150% and verify the quality.
E. Calculate dpi by multiplying the image resolution by the size of the desired output.
Answer: B,C

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NO.9 Which color appears when the surface of an object absorbs the medium wavelengths of a light source.?
A. red
B. magenta
C. green
D. yellow
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which statement is true about the three-dimensionality of color?
A. Saturation refers to the purity of a color.
B. Brightness names a main region of the spectrum.
C. Saturation is the perceived dominant wavelengths of a color and gives the color its name.
D. Hue describes the distance of a color to the neutral grayscale in the middle of the color
universe.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP2-E28
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP Virtualization Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 78 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Your analysis of a customer environment is that their IT departments prefer to dedicate one server per
application, regardless of application type. Which business problem does this opportunity present?
A. consolidation
B. network storage
C. business continuity
D. mainframe migration
Answer: A

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NO.2 Greater than fifty percent of thin clients shipped by HP are deployed in support of which vendor's virtual
machine software solutions?
A. Citrix
B. RedHat
C. Microsoft
D. VMWare
Answer: D

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NO.3 What are the key features of the HP SAN Virtualization Services Platform (SVSP)? (Select two.)
A. synchronous remote replication
B. storage pooling across heterogeneous arrays
C. active/active failover on the Data Path Modules (DPM)
D. elimination o downtime to perform data migrations across arrays
E. the ability to import and export LUNs from the native array into SVSP
Answer: B,C

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NO.4 How would you best describe virtualization to a CEO focused on business issues?
A. It is an amalgamation of multiple network storage devices into a single unit.
B. The layering of applications allows computing resources to be distributed dynamically in real time.
C. It is the partitioning of a physical server into smaller virtual servers in support of business and IT
objectives.
D. It is an approach to IT that pools and shares resources so utilization is optimized and supply
automatically meets demand.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Blade servers currently represent about what percentage of industry-wide x86 server revenue?
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 35%
D. 45%
Answer: B

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NO.6 HP Adaptive Infrastructure is a component in what major HP strategy?
A. Infrastructure virtualization
B. Business Technology portfolio
C. Business Services Management
D. Business Information Optimization
Answer: A

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NO.7 Power failures within the data center are best addressed by what type of solution?
A. network security
B. data consolidation
C. business continuity
D. software as a service
Answer: C

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NO.8 What is the fastest growing storage connectivity technology?
A. DAS
B. iSCSI
C. ESCON
D. Fibre Channel
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP2-H11
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP Thin Clients)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 51 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which type of key sales information for the HP MultiSeat Computing Solution do these features
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Reduces environmental impact
Has the potential to double computing seats with the same budget
Requires no special IT knowledge
Contains software completely licensed and supported by HP
A. competitive advantages
B. silver bullets
C. opportunity indicators
D. key features
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which benefit is specific to the Academic Edition of the HP MultiSeat Computing Solution? (Select two.)
A. Intel Xeon based host PC
B. Ethernet connection from the access devices to the host PC for greater distance
C. licensing support through Microsoft Volume Licensing
D. support for up to 24 access devices
E. support for access devices running Windows 7 only
Answer: B, E

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NO.3 Which Intel processor type should you recommend for an HP MultiSeat host PC that supports six to ten
access devices, each running high-processing-demand applications such as multimedia?
A. Core 2 Duo
B. Core 2 Quad
C. Core i7
D. Xeon processor 5600 series
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP2-T15
Exam Name: HP (Servicing HP BladeSystem)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 105 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 HP offers two types of mezzanine cards. Which statement is correct?
A. Type I mezzanine cards will fit into type I and type II slots.
B. Type II mezzanine cards can fit into typeI or type II slots.
C. Type I mezzanine cards outperform type II slots.
D. Type II mezzanine cards will only support older SCSI devices.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which task of the HP Troubleshooting Methodology do you accomplish when performing Step 1?
A. Determine which subsystem could cause the problem.
B. Understand the mode of failure.
C. identify the steps necessary to implement each solution,
D. Gather failure information.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which HP cooling technology allows automatic control of the CPU state to reduce power
consumption when application demand is low?
A. active Cool fan-
B. Modular Cooling system
C. HP Power Regulator for ProLiant
D. Static Power Saver
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which Smart Array features are offered in a P410i when using a Cache option, but not offered in a
P410i model without cache? (Select two.)
A. Offline Mirror Splitting
B. Online Drive Flash
C. Drive Erase
D. Disk Write Cache
E. Volume Extension
Answer: A,E

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NO.5 Which blades support the Intel 5500 Chipset processor? (Select two.)
A. HP ProLiant BL460cG6
B. HP ProLiant BL490cG6
C. HP ProLiant BL680cG5
D. HP ProLiant BL685cG6
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 What is the maximum number of BL685c G6 Server Blades that can be directly attached to an HP
Storage Worksheet iifA

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Exam Code: HP2-Z05
Exam Name: HP (Selling the HP ProCurve Portfolio)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 What is a VLAN?
A. a LAN that does not use wires and is enabled by wireless technology
B. a large, geographically dispersed network consisting of two or more LANs
C. a network that allows secure private data to be sent through a public network
D. a logical division within a physical network that divides devices into separate broadcast
domains
Answer: D

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NO.2 A company's private network is divided into several subnets. Which devices can allow traffic to flow
between the subnets? (Select two.)
A. router
B. hub
C. standalone access point
D. Layer 2 switch
E. Layer 3 switch
Answer: A,E

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NO.3 What has HP ProCurve designed in several of its high-speed switches to consolidate the function of
many individual chips, including software, onto a single chip?
A. VoIP
B. ASIC
C. IPS
D. PoE
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which OSI Layer functionality enables a switch to route traffic?
A. Network Layer (Layer 3)
B. Physical Layer (Layer 1)
C. Data Link Layer (Layer 2)
D. Transport Layer (Layer 4}
Answer: A

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NO.5 What enables you to configure HP ProCurve products and create offers and quotations based on those
configurations?
A. HPProCurve Network Design Center
B. HPProCurve Configurator
C. HPProCurve Product Portfolio poster
D. HPProCurve Networking Quick Reference Guide
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP3-031
Exam Name: HP (HP LaserJet 3000 and 3380/90 AIO series)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 28 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 How should you install an HP LaserJet 3015, 3020, 3030, and 3380 all-in-one device self-tapping
screw?
A. First turn the screw counterclockwise to align it with the existing threads. Then turn it clockwise to
tighten.
B. Use a flathead screwdriver to tighten the screw until it is flush against the side of the all-in-one device.
C. Use a #2 Philips head screwdriver to tighten the screw as tightly as you can, Over-tightening of this
type of screw is impossible.
D. Use aTorx head screwdriver to tighten the screw as tightly as you can. Over-tightening of this type of
screw is impossible.
Answer: A

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NO.2 What three areas of the scanning mechanism have been improved to result in faster scan speed?
A. firmware, software, and hardware
B. power save mode, wake-up time, and formatter
C. firmware, HP LaserJet scan software, and scanner bulb warm up time
D. scanner head start position, scanner bulb warm-up time, and firmware
Answer: A

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NO.3 A customer calls because he has been unable to install the software for this all-in-one device. He is
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What do you tell the customer?
A. The all-in-one device does not support Windows 2000.
B. The all-one-device supports only Windows 2000 Server.
C. The all-in-one device must be installed by a member of an IT department.
D. The person installing the all-in-one device must have administrative privileges to install the software.
Answer: D

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NO.4 What allows remote status and diagnostics of HP LaserJet 3055 for multiple users?
A. Toolbox FX
B. Embedded Web Server
C. Printer Driver
D. Send Fax Utility
Answer: A

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NO.5 When should a customer run the scrubber?
A. only with a failed software-first installation
B. only with a failed hardware-first installation
C. for either a failed software-first or hardware-first installation
D. never, for use by authorized personnel only
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP3-C11
Exam Name: HP (HP Scanjet N9120)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 28 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 What is the base warranty offered with the HP Scanjet N9120?
A. 1-1-1
B. 2-1-1
C. 3-3-1
D. 3-3-3
Answer: A

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NO.2 What types of organization are potential customers for the HP Scanjet N9120?
A. ones that scan slides and negatives
B. ones that digitize large format images
C. ones that digitize files and forms
Answer: C

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NO.3 What are some features of the HP Scanjet N9120.? (Select two.)
A. hardware deskew
B. switchable black and white background
C. mechanical duplexing
D. digital sending
E. scan speed 60 ppm
Answer: B,D

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Exam Code: HP0-M31
Exam Name: HP (HP Quality Center 10.0 Software)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 119 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 What is an advantage of using cross project customization?
A. Customizing a template project and applying the customization to Quality Center projects enables you
to standardize policies and procedures across projects.
B. Defining the users who can access the project and determining the types of tasks each user can
perform enables you to control access to the project.
C. Defining the users who can log in to the project and specifying the types of tasks each user can
perform enables you to control access to the project.
D. Customizing a template instance and applying the customization to Quality Center instances enables
you to standardize policies and procedures across instances.
Answer: A

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NO.2 What should you use to gather and display the information in Quality Center? (Select three.)
A. external reports and graphs
B. predefined reports and graphs
C. document generator
D. user-defined reports and graphs
E. custom reports and graphs
F. custom document generator
Answer: BCE

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NO.3 Which graph provides a visual overview of all the tests within a folder in the Test Plan Tree?
A. visual analysis graph
B. live analysis graph
C. trend analysis graph
D. summary graph
Answer: B

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NO.4 The CTO asks you to confirm the version of Quality Center your organization is using. From which
toolbar can you access this information?
A. Tools
B. About Quality Center Software
C. Help
D. HP Support Software
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which submodule enables you to check the number of test instances that still need to run?
A. Cycle
B. Baseline
C. Library
D. Releases
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which requirement type needs to be defined as a custom type?
A. business
B. group
C. functional
D. testing
E. security
Answer: E

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NO.7 What does the term severity refer to?
A. importance level of the defect
B. impact of the defect on the release goals
C. impact of the defect on the test set
D. impact of the defect on system operation
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which submodule enables you to define releases and cycles?
A. Management
B. Libraries
C. Cycles
D. Releases
Answer: D

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NO.9 You need to generate a report to monitor requirements and test coverage. Which report type should
you use to accomplish this? (Select two.)
A. Standard
B. Predefined
C. Non-standard
D. Non-customized
E. Custom
Answer: BE

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NO.10 What does the Management module address? (Select two.)
A. libraries
B. test resources
C. release models
D. dashboards
E. releases
Answer: AE

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NO.11 Which types of attachments are allowed in Quality Center?
A. file, URL, system information, JPG, system attachments
B. JPG, file, URL, snapshot, TXT, clipboard, system attachments
C. file, URL, snapshot, system information, clipboard images
D. file, snapshot, clipboard images, JPG, clipboard snaps
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which module enables you to define graphs and reports?
A. Test Plan
B. Test Resources
C. Dashboard
D. Requirements
Answer: C

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NO.13 Your project manager wants to see a list of test instances and the results. Which type of report should
you create to accomplish this?
A. Cross Test Set
B. Execution
C. Test Plan
D. Execution Status
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which features are specific to the Premier Edition of Quality Center?
A. synchronize, share libraries, share defects, and cross project customization
B. synchronize, share test sets, share requirements, and cross project customization
C. share libraries, synchronize, share projects, and cross project customization
D. synchronize, share libraries, share defects, and cross instance customization
Answer: A

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NO.15 What is a release?
A. a subset of the new features implemented in an application that has undergone a series of test cycles
B. a set of tests designed for a specific purpose such as new feature functionality, security, and
performance
C. a group of test cycles that has been completed within a specific time period and in which all the high
priority defects have been closed
D. a version of an application representing a group of changes that is available for distribution to
customers at the same time
Answer: D

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NO.16 What is a cycle?
A. a subset of the new features implemented in an application that has undergone a series of test cycles
B. a set of tests designed for a specific purpose such as new feature functionality, security, and
performance
C. a set of development and quality assurance efforts that is performed to achieve a common goal based
on the release timeline
D. a version of an application representing a group of changes that is available for distribution to
customers at the same time
Answer: C

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NO.17 Click Next or More to continue.
Click the Task button.
Place the test management process steps in the correct order.
Answer:

NO.18 You want to view the child requirements data related to the tests that the requirements cover. Which
graph type should you use to accomplish this?
A. progress graph
B. trend graph
C. requirements coverage graph
D. summary graph
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which products or components integrate with Quality Center? (Select four.)
A. WinRunner scripts
B. VuGen scripts
C. LoadRunner scenarios
D. QAInspect
E. SiteScope
F. Diagnostic monitors
G. QuickTest Professional scripts
Answer: ACDG

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NO.20 Click Next or More to continue.
Click the Task button.
Identify the steps for creating a Release Tree and place them in the correct order.
Answer:

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Exam Code: ST0-074
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Mgmt Platform 7.0 with Notification Server (STS))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 99 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-29

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NO.1 If you have multiple Notification Servers in your environment how many CMDBs are required?
A. One CMDB for each Notification Server
B. One CMDB for all Notification Servers
C. One CMDB for all Symantec Management Consoles
D. One CMDB for each Symantec Management Console
Answer: A

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NO.2 What troubleshooting tool is used to analyze SQL queries and .NET code blocks running in the
Notification Server and associated processes?
A. Altiris Log Viewer
B. Altiris Profiler
C. Microsoft Perfmon
D. Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio
Answer: B

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NO.3 How are permissions assigned to resources in Notification Server 7?
A. Security Accounts Management (SAM)
B. Organizational Views
C. Access Control List (ACL)
D. Active Directory
Answer: B

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NO.4 What must be enabled for a collection of Notification Servers to share common configuration settings
and data?
A. Hierarchy Feature
B. Inventory Forwarding
C. Client Policy Files
D. Site Maintenance Feature
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which feature characterizes the centralized management model?
A. A single IT management team
B. Language barriers between sites
C. A large company with subsidiaries
D. Several data centers
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which Altiris component is used to move processing off of the Notification Server?
A. Package Server
B. Task Server
C. Site Server
D. PXE Server
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which pair contains Notification Server Event (NSE) queues?
A. Large and Small
B. Priority and Express
C. Fast and Slow
D. Default and System
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which server role will conflict with the Notification Server?
A. Terminal Server
B. PXE Server
C. Domain Controller
D. FTP Server
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which Notification Server 7 process parses the Notification Server Event (NSE) into SQL Statements?
A. DataLoader
B. Dispatcher
C. Event Router
D. Event Queues
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which two items can be stored in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)? (Choose two.)
A. Information related to the configuration of managed computers
B. An inventory of installed applications on managed computers
C. Software packages to install applications on managed computers
D. Symantec Management Platform core application settings
E. Settings and configurations for the ASP.NET web application
Answer: AB

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NO.11 What will occur if a resource is added to a second organizational group when it already belongs to
another organizational group within the same organizational view?
A. A duplicate resource will be created and given a new Globally Unique Identifier (GUID).
B. The resource will be removed from the first organizational group and placed in the second.
C. The resource will be listed twice in any target that includes either organizational group.
D. A resource association record will be created that links the two organizational groups.
Answer: B

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NO.12 What Symantec Management system feature is used to off load processing from a Symantec
Management Platform?
A. Site Server
B. Hierarchy
C. Replication
D. Software Management Framework
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which feature characterizes the decentralized management model?
A. Autonomous groups within your organization
B. A common maintenance schedule
C. A single data center
D. Limited number of remote sites
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which service monitors the event queue?
A. Dispatcher Service
B. Receiver Service
C. Notification Service
D. SQL Service
Answer: A

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NO.15 How does Notification Server handle inventory and event data after reaching the Event Queues?
A. Client Message Dispatcher -> DataLoader -> OLEDB -> CMDB
B. DataLoader -> Client Message Dispatcher -> CMDB
C. Client Message Dispatcher -> NSE Processor -> CMDB
D. DataLoader -> Client Message Dispatcher -> XML -> CMDB
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which Symantec Management system feature is used to reduce Total Cost of Ownership (TCO), that
is, increase the efficiency of a single IT administrator?
A. Site Server
B. Hierarchy
C. Task Service
D. Software Management Framework
Answer: B

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NO.17 What is the source of the information in the Resource Manager?
A. Configuration Management Database
B. Altiris data classes
C. SQL Server Master database
D. Configuration menu
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which item is true when migrating from Notification Server 6 to Notification Server 7?
A. Notification Server 6 and Notification Server 7 can co-exist on the same server
B. Notification Server 6 and Notification Server 7 can co-exist on the same database
C. Additional SQL, operating system, and Notification Server licenses are required
D. .NET 3.5, SQL Server 2005, and Windows 2003 must be installed for the migration to continue
Answer: D

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NO.19 How is resource scoping implemented?
A. By granting the permissions to appropriate Organizational Views and Groups to a security role.
B. By including the appropriate filters and Organizational Views and Groups in a target's rules.
C. By replacing the filters and Organizational Views and Groups in a target with appropriate secure
collections.
D. By creating multiple Organizational Views and Groups, each containing the appropriate subset of
resources.
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which two troubleshooting tools are installed with the Symantec Management Platform? (Choose two.)
A. Altiris Log Viewer
B. Altiris Profiler
C. Remote Altiris Agent Diagnostics
D. Microsoft Perfmon
E. WireShark Network Protocol Analyzer
Answer: AB

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