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Exam Code: HT0-101
Exam Name: CompTIA (HTI+ Residential Systems....)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 100 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-11

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NO.1 Which of the following organizations sets standards for heating, ventilation, and air
conditioning in the United States?
A. IEEE
B. NAHB
C. IALD
D. ASHRAE
Answer: B

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NO.2 A client requests to have two sub-woofers installed to create stereo effect.
Which of the following statements is the best response a technician can make?
A. Two sub-woofers would produce too much bass.
B. Another amp is required to power the second sub-woofer.
C. Two sub-woofers are unnecessary and would cost too much.
D. The sub-woofer's sound is too low to have an effect on stereo imaging.
Answer: C

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NO.3 A client has a 100 watt stereo receiver. The client has purchased speakers rate at
200 watts. The receiver keeps shutting off, and the distortion is high.
Which of the following is the best explanation?
A. The speakers need more power than 100 watts.
B. The strands of wire are touching.
C. The speaker cable is the wrong gauge.
D. The protective fuses in the receiver are too weak.
Answer: B

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NO.4 An individual has connected a turntable to a stereo receiver. When a record is
played, the system emits a load hum.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of this problem?
A. The cartridge needs to be replaced.
B. The speakers are too close together.
C. The turntable is plugged into an auxiliary port.
D. The ground wire on the turntable is disconnected.
Answer: D

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NO.5 The maximum recommended cable distance between stations for 10Base-T Ethernet on
Category 3 cabling is:
A. 50 meters
B. 100 meters
C. 200 meters
D. 500 meters
Answer: B

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NO.6 Covert video cameras can be legally installed:
A. Anywhere the client decides.
B. Anywhere there is a potential for high-crime volume.
C. In places where there is no expectation of privacy.
D. In places where permissions has been given by the owner.
Answer: C

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NO.7 The technician is onsite to install a security camera system and has successfully
configured the camera and video monitor. The customer has a request to attach the
camera to the customer's television.
Which of the following devices would the technician need to install to connect the
security camera to the television?
A. Splitter
B. Coupler
C. BALUN
D. High pass filter
Answer: B

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NO.8 The wiring scheme for data cables terminated in a home is:
A. 568A
B. 568B
C. RS422
D. RS485
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following wires of a cable are used for transmitting or receiving data on a
10/100Base-T network?
A. 1, 2, 3, and 4
B. 1,2, 3, and 6
C. 1, 2, 8, and 8
D. 5, 6, 7, and 8
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of the following ports must be open to allow HTTP traffic through a firewall?
A. 23
B. 25
C. 80
D. 110
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which of the following TCP/IP protocols is used to manage the assignment of IP
addresses?
A. Domain name service (DNS)
B. Network address translation (NAT)
C. Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP)
D. Simple network management protocol (SNMP)
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which of the following types of sensors are the most commonly used, both inside and
outside of the home, and detect the presence of humans based on emitted radiation?
A. Passive Infrared (PIR) sensors
B. Ultrasonic sensors
C. Microwave sensors
D. Charged Coupled Device (CCD) sensors
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which of the following use high-frequency sound?
A. Occupancy sensors
B. Ultrasonic sensors
C. Photosensors
D. Passive Infrared (PIR) sensors
Answer: B

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NO.14 Three communicating thermostats installed in one residence is referred to as a:
A. 3-Damper system
B. 3-Room system
C. 3-Zone system
D. 3-Process system
Answer: C

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NO.15 When troubleshooting a lighting problem in an existing home, the home technology
integrator differentiates between low-voltage and high-voltage lighting control by
examining the:
A. Incandescent bulbs
B. Fluorescent bulbs
C. Differences in the wall and ceiling mounts
D. Cable supplying power to the lighting fixture
Answer: D

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NO.16 A xxxx technician is on-site to configure a home security alarm system. The
technician needs to create a configuration that alerts the off-site customer
monitoring center whenever the front and side doors are armed and opened.
Which of the following devices does the technician need to install on the doors to have
them trip the alarm?
A. Rug sensors
B. Motion sensor
C. Magnetic contacts
D. Closed circuit TV
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which of the following types of network cables can support a maximum segment length
of 2,000 meters?
A. Fiber optic
B. Thin coaxial
C. Unshielded twisted pair
D. Thick coaxial
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which of the following is a type of coaxial cable used in television and satellite
installations?
A. RG-6
B. RG-58
C. RJ-11
D. RJ-45
Answer: A

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NO.19 There are two-four pair cables run from the auxiliary disconnect outlet to the
network interface device. The homeowner orders a fifth line.
The color-pair of the fifth line is:
A. orange - white/orange
B. blue - white/blue
C. slate - white/slate
D. green - white/green
Answer: C

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NO.20 How many B channels are included in an integrated services digital network (ISDN)
BRI?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 23
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HT0-102
Exam Name: CompTIA (HTI+ Systems Infrastructure and Integration)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 220 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-11

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NO.1 One of the devices used to control a multimedia center uses serial communications to receive
instructions from he system controller. The device needs to be tested off-line, and it has been
disconnected from the system controller. A notebook computer equipped wit ha serial port is
available for testing. Which of the following cables will complete the connection?
A. Coaxial
B. Patch
C. Telephone
D. Null-modem
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following methods offer protection from attenuation in larger installations using an
X10 protocol to control devices?
A. IR repeater
B. Signal bridge
C. RS-232 to RS-485 converter
D. 75 ohm to 100 ohm converter
Answer: B

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NO.3 A programmable HVAC thermostat can be accessed remotely to:
A. warm of a high heating bill
B. light up the thermostat in dark hallways
C. power the HVAC upon the loss of AC power
D. allow the panel to control the temperature settings of the thermostat
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following terms describes a point or group of points in an alarm system?
A. Zone
B. Area
C. Perimeter
D. Demarcation
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following is a requirement of a home automation system that allows the system to
be set up for out of band remote maintenance from an off-site location?
A. Dial-in modem
B. Local terminal
C. Infrared remote
D. Wireless access point
Answer: A

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NO.6 The IEEE 1394 interface is commonly referred to as:
A. SCSI
B. FireWireTM
C. Fast Ethernet
D. Gigabit Ethernet
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following ANSI/TIA/EIA standards most directly concerns residential low-voltage
an telecommunication cabling?
A. 568-B
B. 570
C. 570-A
D. 606
Answer: C

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NO.8 A technician is programming the locations for 802.11 devices used in home automation. Which
of the following describes the Layer 2 address of the OSI model?
A. IP address
B. MAC address
C. X10 address
D. 802.11 address
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following systems utilizes the electrical cabling as a control media throughout the
house?
A. PLC
B. HomeRF
C. HomePNA
D. Broadband coaxial
Answer: A

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NO.10 An integrated home automation system is being designed to use a personal computer equipped
with a single IEEE 1394 port. What is the total number of devices that additional ports are
needed?
A. 23
B. 43
C. 63
D. 83
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which of the following standards has the greatest maximum distance from the central office of
the telephone company to the home?
A. ADSL
B. SDSL
C. IDSL
D. G.SHDSL
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which of the following devices is required by the Federal Communications Commission (FCC)
for registered alarm connections in which alarm panels are connected to a telephone line?
A. RJ-11
B. RJ-21
C. RJ-31X
D. RJ-45
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which of the following serial protocols allows the daisy chaining of devices?
A. Fire Wire
B. RS-232
C. RS-422
D. RS-485
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which of the following does NOT need to be documented for a control system?
A. System diagram
B. Equipment list
C. Configuration of equipment
D. Equipment specifications
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which of the following authorities establish the National Electrical Code (NEC) as legal
regulations?
A. Local fire marshal
B. Local governments
C. Building contractors
D. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)
Answer: B

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NO.16 In a wireless security system, the controller should monitor each transmitter for:
A. high interference
B. low radiation level
C. high humidity
D. low battery
Answer: D

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NO.17 The design of a system requires a wall-mounted control device that works with a RS-485 based
control processor. Control needs to be available at 16 locations. The interface should allow the
technician to customize the menu options with icons and text associated with each of the push
buttons. Which of the following meets the design criteria?
A. Web pad
B. LCD keypad
C. If remove control
D. Touch screen controller
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which of the following tools is used to fasten a connector to a cable end?
A. Crimper
B. Wire strippers
C. Lineman's pliers
D. Punch-down tool
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which of the following devices will prevent the loss of functionality during a sudden alternating
current (AC) power outage?
A. Dedicated circuit
B. Surge protector
C. Transfer switch
D. Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS)
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which of the following is a support that is mounted to the backboard and used to manage cables?
A. Conduit
B. 66 block
C. D-ring
D. Cable tray
Answer: C

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Exam Code: PK1-003
Exam Name: CompTIA (CompTIA Project+ Beta Exam)
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Total Q&A: 240 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-11

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NO.1 A project manager is two weeks into a project when an unexpected delay occurs. Material that is
needed to complete the project could be available in three business days; however, the project team
believes that estimate is unrealistic and that it will take five business days for the material to arrive. The
project manager was informed by another employee in the material company that it could take up to
thirteen days to receive the materials. Which of the following estimates should be given to the project
sponsor?
A. 5 business days
B. 6 business days
C. 8 business days
D. 13 business daysb
Answer: B

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NO.2 A project manager receives a request for a minor change to one of the deliverables. Which of the
following documents would MOST likely be impacted?
A. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
B. Project charter
C. Communication plan
D. Quality plan
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following are required to complete the pre-project setup? (Select THREE).
A. Completion of approved change control documents
B. Preparation of the project charter
C. Completion of the work breakdown structure (WBS)
D. Obtaining final approval of the project charter
E. Validation of the project
F. Completion of the key performance indicators (KPIs)
Answer: BDE

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NO.4 Which of the following describes the LOWEST level of a work breakdown structure (WBS)?
A. Technical specifications
B. Project performance reports
C. Work packages
D. Functional specifications
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following activities would happen LAST in procurement management?
A. Request seller responses
B. Perform contract administration
C. Perform vendor selection
D. Perform a make or buy analysis
Answer: B

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NO.6 A purpose of formal project closure is to:
A. assess blame for the failure of the project.
B. provide lessons learned for future projects.
C. start a new project.
D. outline the responsibilities of each team member.
Answer: B

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NO.7 A customer does not have the staff available to complete a particular project, but anticipates that more
staff will be hired in the future. While the project budget has been established, the project scope has not.
Which of the following is the BEST action for the project manager to take?
A. Start the project immediately because the funding is available.
B. Start the important project; the project manager can define the scope.
C. Do not start the project because the customer has not provided enough resources.
D. Do not start the project until the scope has been clearly defined.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following is the purpose of a Pareto diagram?
A. To show the sequence in which work will be performed
B. To create the process that will complete the project
C. To determine the critical path
D. To direct team efforts to the areas that will have the most impact
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the following quality control tools illustrates the various factors that may be linked to potential
problems or effects?
A. Ishikawa diagram
B. Histogram
C. Run chart
D. Scatter diagram
Answer: A

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NO.10 A project team is comfortable working as a group and has accepted all the project ground rules. They
support each other to reach the project goals. Which of the following stages of team development is the
project team demonstrating?
A. Storming
B. Performing
C. Conforming
D. Forming
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which of the following should be created in the project closing documentation? (Select TWO).
A. Closure report summarizing costs
B. Responsibility assessment matrix
C. Lessons learned
D. Project timeline
E. Statement of Work (SOW)
Answer: AC

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NO.12 Which of the following tools are used for quality planning? (Select TWO).
A. Cost / Benefit analysis
B. Network diagram
C. Benchmarking
D. Critical Path Method (CPM)
E. Parametric estimating
Answer: AC

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NO.13 A project manager is in a projectized organization managing a particular project. A department manager
has repeatedly requested a change to the scope of the project which was previously denied. The project
is currently behind schedule. Which of the following would be the BEST way to deal with the managers
repeated request?
A. Request the manager fill out a formal request for the change and file it with the project management
office.
B. Have a team member meet with the manager so the project can stay on schedule.
C. Ask the project sponsor to respond to the department manager.
D. Implement the change as requested by the manager and inform the project sponsor.
Answer: C

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NO.14 During a project status meeting a positive project risk is identified and is within the teams control.
Which of the following would be the BEST response?
A. Accept the risk.
B. Transfer the risk.
C. Mitigate the risk.
D. Exploit the risk.
Answer: D

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NO.15 The communication plan for a project is a subset of which of the following documents?
A. Project charter
B. Risk management plan
C. Project schedule
D. Project plan
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which of the following would be a direct output of the initiating process group? (Select TWO).
A. Project charter
B. Project management plan
C. Statement of Work (SOW)
D. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
E. Preliminary scope statement
Answer: AE

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NO.17 Several key resources will be unavailable at the end of the project. The key stakeholders want to
outsource the project to a third party. Which of the following risk responses is described in this situation?
A. Risk avoidance
B. Risk mitigation
C. Risk acceptance
D. Risk transference
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which of the following risk response strategies involves shifting the negative impact of a threat, along
with ownership of the response, to a third party?
A. Risk transfer
B. Risk avoidance
C. Risk sharing
D. Risk mitigation
Answer: A

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NO.19 Who has the MOST influence over project decisions?
A. Project team members
B. End users
C. Key stakeholders
D. Project manager
Answer: C

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NO.20 In which of the following organization types is it LEAST likely that a conflict regarding competing
demands for resources would take place?
A. Functional
B. Weak Matrix
C. Balanced Matrix
D. Projectized
Answer: D

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NO.21 A project manager is presented with a change request for an ongoing project. Which of the following
would be the FIRST action?
A. Update the project plan to accommodate the changes.
B. Perform an impact analysis.
C. Organize a stakeholder meeting to review the changes.
D. Change the project scope to reflect the change request.
Answer: B

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NO.22 A project budget has been reduced by 10 percent, but the project has a critical deadline. Which of the
following should the project manager do FIRST to complete the project on time?
A. Lower the quality standards for the finished product.
B. Analyze the impact of the change.
C. Eliminate 10 percent of the projects resources.
D. Document the approved change request.
Answer: B

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NO.23 Two of the stakeholders cannot agree on the project timeline or budget. The project is critical to the
success of the company. Which of the following actions should the project manager take NEXT?
A. Invite all of the stakeholders to a meeting to discuss project requirements.
B. Document the points of agreement and create the timeline and budget based upon the expectations of
the majority of the stakeholders.
C. Modify the project scope to bring it into alignment with the stakeholders expectations.
D. Inform the stakeholders that the project will be cancelled if they cannot agree.
Answer: A

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NO.24 A project manager reports directly to the project management office of a company. All project team
members report to a functional manager; however, all the team members work assignments are made by
the project manager. Which of the following types of organizational structures does this represent?
A. Weak Matrix
B. Functional
C. Strong Matrix
D. Projectized
Answer: C

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NO.25 Which of the following tools is the BEST to measure data organized in time sequence?
A. Run chart
B. Ishikawa diagram
C. Pareto chart
D. Histogram
Answer: A

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NO.26 Design, launch, review and test are examples of which of the following work breakdown structure (WBS)
schemes?
A. Functions
B. Organizational units
C. Product components
D. Geographical areas
Answer: A

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NO.27 Which of the following describes a qualitative risk analysis tool that assigns ratings to project risk
factors based upon the likelihood of occurrence and the affect it will have on the project?
A. Cause and effect diagram
B. Risk register
C. Probability and impact matrix
D. Decision tree analysis
Answer: C

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NO.28 Which of the following BEST describes the critical path of a project?
A. A modified version of a project schedule taking into account limited resources and external
dependencies.
B. The length of time between the two most critical milestones of a project.
C. The shortest possible path through a project, represented by the sum of the duration of all scheduled
activities, with zero float.
D. A PDM network diagram illustrating, in detail, all mandatory, discretionary and external dependencies
for a given project.
Answer: C

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NO.29 Which of the following are process groups in the project life cycle? (Select THREE).
A. Accepting
B. Mitigating
C. Avoiding
D. Initiating
E. Closing
F. Planning
Answer: DEF

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NO.30 Which of the following would MOST likely be included in a project scope document?
A. WBS
B. Quality metrics
C. Risk responses
D. KPIs
Answer: D

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Exam Name: CompTIA (CompTIA E2C Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam)
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NO.1 Upon opening the browser, a guest user is redirected to the company portal and asked to agree to the
acceptable use policy. Which of the following is MOST likely causing this to appear?
A. NAT
B. NAC
C. VLAN
D. DMZ
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following is a malicious program used to capture information from an infected computer?
A. Trojan
B. Botnet
C. Worm
D. Virus
Answer: A

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NO.3 When reviewing IDS logs, the security administrator notices many events pertaining to a "NOOP sled".
Which of the following attacks is occurring?
A. Man-in-the-middle
B. SQL injection
C. Buffer overflow
D. Session hijacking
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following tools limits external access to the network.?
A. IDS
B. VLAN
C. Firewall
D. DMZ
Answer: C

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NO.5 When establishing a connection between two IP based routers, which of the following protocols is the
MOST secure?
A. TFTP
B. HTTPS
C. FTP
D. SSH
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following uses an RC4 key that can be discovered by eavesdropping on plain text
initialization vectors?
A. WEP
B. TKIP
C. SSH
D. WPA
Answer: A

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NO.7 An administrator wants to crack passwords on a server with an account lockout policy. Which of the
following would allow this without locking accounts?
A. Try guessing passwords slow enough to reset the bad count interval.
B. Try guessing passwords with brute force.
C. Copy the password file offline and perform the attack on it.
D. Try only real dictionary words.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following technologies is used to verify that a file was not altered?
A. RC5
B. AES
C. DES
D. MD5
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the following tools was created for the primary purpose of reporting the services that are open
for connection on a networked workstation?
A. Protocol analyzer
B. Port scanner
C. Password crackers
D. Vulnerability scanner
Answer: B

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NO.10 Mitigating security risks by updating and applying hot fixes is part of:
A. patch management.
B. vulnerability scanning.
C. baseline reporting.
D. penetration testing.
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which of the following is the MOST secure authentication method?
A. Smartcard
B. Iris
C. Password
D. Fingerprints
Answer: B

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NO.12 USB devices with a virus delivery mechanism are an example of which of the following security threats?
A. Adware
B. Trojan
C. Botnets
D. Logic bombs
Answer: B

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NO.13 Cell phones with network access and the ability to store data files are susceptible to which of the
following risks?
A. Input validation errors
B. SMTP open relays
C. Viruses
D. Logic bombs
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which of the following algorithms provides better protection against brute force attacks by using a
160-bit message digest?
A. MD5
B. SHA-1
C. LANMAN
D. NTLM
Answer: B

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NO.15 The security administrator needs to make a change in the network to accommodate a new remote
location. The new location will be connected by a serial interface, off the main router, through a
commercial circuit. This remote site will also have traffic completely separated from all other traffic. Which
of the following design elements will need to be implemented to accommodate the new location?
A. VLANs need to be added on the switch but not the router.
B. The NAT needs to be re-configured to allow the remote location.
C. The current IP scheme needs to be subnetted.
D. The switch needs to be virtualized and a new DMZ needs to be created
Answer: C

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NO.16 A user reports that each time they attempt to go to a legitimate website, they are sent to an
inappropriate website. The security administrator suspects the user may have malware on the computer,
which manipulated some of the user's files. Which of the following files on the user's system would need
to be checked for unauthorized changes?
A. SAM
B. LMhosts
C. Services
D. Hosts
Answer: D

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NO.17 An administrator needs to limit and monitor the access users have to the Internet and protect the
internal network. Which of the following would MOST likely be implemented?
A. A heuristic firewall
B. DNS caching on the client machines
C. A pushed update modifying users' local host file
D. A content-filtering proxy server
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which of the following logical access control methods would a security administrator need to modify in
order to control network traffic passing through a router to a different network?
A. Configuring VLAN 1
B. ACL
C. Logical tokens
D. Role-based access control changes
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which of the following access control technologies provides a rolling password for one-time use?
A. RSA tokens
B. ACL
C. Multifactor authentication
D. PIV card
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which of the following is MOST likely to be an issue when turning on all auditing functions within a
system?
A. Flooding the network with all of the log information
B. Lack of support for standardized log review tools
C. Too much information to review
D. Too many available log aggregation tools
Answer: C

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Exam Code: CN0-201
Exam Name: CompTIA (CompTIA CTP+ Certification Exam)
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Total Q&A: 302 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-11

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NO.1 Rick, an administrator of a TCP/IP network, wants to achieve the following goals: l Reduce congestion
of network traffic. l Optimize the utilization of the IP address space.
Which of the following technologies may help him to accomplish the task?
A. Pinging
B. Supernetting
C. Routing
D. Subnetting
Answer: D

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NO.2 Andrewis working for a television station in NorthAmerica and South America. What video standardis
more possibly be used with the video stored in the archives of these stations?
A. PAL
B. NTSC
C. SECAM
D. IEEE 1394
Answer: B

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NO.3 When a phoneislifted off-hook, it connects the two wires causing an electrical signal to flowfromthe
phone exchange to thephone. What is this electrical signal called?
A. Off-hook signal
B. Ground start signal
C. Loop start signal
D. On-hook signal
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following statements are true about session hijacking?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Use of a long random number or string as the session key reduces session hijacking.
B. It is used to slow the working of victim's network resources.
C. TCP session hijacking is when a hacker takes over a TCP session between two machines.
D. It is the exploitation of a valid computer session to gain unauthorized access to information or services
in a computer system.
Answer: ACD

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NO.5 Youwork as a NetworkAdministrator for McNeil Inc.Thecompany hasa TCP/IP-based network.
Performance of the network is slow because of heavy traffic.A hub is used as a central connectingdevice
in the network. Which of the following devices can be used in place of a hub to control thenetwork traffic
efficiently?
A. Repeater
B. Router
C. Switch
D. Bridge
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following protocols is used by VoIP applications for communication initiation in the
network?
A. TLS
B. NTP
C. SIP
D. SSH
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following devices is used to make decisions based on MAC addresses and is considered
the most appropriate device to use when limiting broadcast domains for devices that will process voice
data?
A. Layer 3 switch
B. Repeater
C. Layer 2 switch
D. MCU
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following are examples of interactive communication?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Video Conferencing
B. E-mail
C. Fax
D. Phone call
Answer: AD

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NO.9 H.323 is a group of protocols defined by the International Telecommunication Union for multimedia
conferences over Local Area Networks. H.323 uses ASN.1 binary code. Which of the following layers of
the OSI model is responsible for translating, processing, and reading ASN.1 and ASCII messages?
A. Transport layer
B. Application layer
C. Physical layer
D. Presentation layer
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following layers of the OSI model managescommunication between
communicationentities in a network?
A. Presentation
B. Network
C. Transport
D. Session
E. Application
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which of the following is an audio data compression algorithm for voice that compresses digital voice
in packets of 10 milliseconds duration?
A. G.711
B. H.320
C. H.323
D. G.729
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which of the following protocols provides sequence numbers to VoIP packets?
A. TCP
B. RTP
C. UDP
D. SCCP
Answer: B

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NO.13 You have just set up a wireless network for customers at a coffee shop. Which of the following are
good security measures to implement?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Not broadcasting SSID
B. MAC filtering the router
C. Using WEP encryption
D. Using WPA encryption
Answer: CD

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NO.14 You work as a network consultant for Net World International. You are designing a network for a client
company. The proposed network will use a class B address for its network. The network will be divided
into thirty-two subnets. Which of the following subnet masks will you use to design the network?
A. 255.255.252.0
B. 255.252.0.0
C. 255.255.248.0
D. 255.248.0.0
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which of the following ITU standards specifies PCM voice coding at 64 kbps?
A. G.726
B. G.728
C. G.729
D. G.711
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which of the following are endpoints in Cisco Unified Communications?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Switches
B. Routers
C. Gateways
D. IP phones
Answer: CD

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NO.17 Which of the following is a mechanism used by the Multimedia Extensions (WME) standard to avoid
contentions in a particular traffic category?
A. Sliding Window Protocol
B. Contention Window (CW)
C. Auto-Rate Fallback
D. Maximum Segment Size (MSS)
Answer: B

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NO.18 Voice over IP is an application that requires efficient use of bandwidth and reliability. VoIP must not
suffer the delays that can be seen at times with Web sites and Web applications. Which technology can
be used to help ensure the efficient transport of VoIP traffic?
A. RTP
B. QoS
C. DNS
D. RSTP
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which of the following devices is used to create VLANs in a small network?
A. Repeater
B. Switch
C. Hub
D. Bridge
Answer: B

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that faulty power supply is the cause of this problem. Which of the following troubleshooting tools should
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A. Continuity tester
B. Line tester
C. Volt meter
D. T-BERD 4000
Answer: C

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Last Update: 2013-12-11

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NO.1 Which of the following is important to standardize?
A. Information standards and applications
B. User names and hardware providers
C. Virtual machine images and applications
D. Virtual machine images and identity information standards
Answer: D

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NO.2 Digital identities for logging onto SaaS solutions should be issued by all the following EXCEPT:
A. A third-party identity provider.
B. The customer organization.
C. The SaaS provider.
D. A user.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following is the MOST important service management consequence of elastic capacity?
A. The need for better application development
B. The need for better security management
C. The need for good performance monitoring and management
D. The need to improve the fulfillment and provisioning process
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following consequences does IT outsourcing and cloud computing have in common?
A. Involvement of external staff
B. Improved flexibility
C. Reduced expense
D. Shorter time to market
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following is a typical concern for business and IT leaders when adopting cloud
computing?
A. Current cost structure of IT
B. Quality of web-based user interfaces
C. Security of current IT solutions
D. Technical maintenance of current IT assets
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following is the primary way to access PaaS?
A. Web services
B. Websites
C. Web hosting providers
D. Data integrations
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following IT processes is likely to become more important due to the adoption of cloud
computing?
A. Capacity management
B. Troubleshooting management
C. Project management
D. Request fulfillment management
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following does IT outsourcing and cloud computing typically have in common?
A. Pay as you go agreements
B. Short-term financial commitment
C. Tailor-made applications based on client needs
D. Vendor lock-in potential
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the following is the function of orchestration services?
A. Assemble functional requirements for application development
B. Configure application clusters with Web services
C. Enable and disable load balancers
D. Manage the starting and stopping of application server clusters
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following technologies are related to Web services?
A. HTML, IDM, JSON
B. HTML, IDM, XML
C. HTML, JSON, XML
D. DM, JSON, XML
Answer: C

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NO.11 How can an organization successfully implement a SaaS strategy?
A. Manage the risks associated with bringing in external providers
B. Continuously execute performance analytics to monitor providers
C. Open up internal databases with Web service access for easier access
D. Standardize on a limited set of virtual machines to increase security
Answer: A

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NO.12 Web hosting is a service that enables customers to deploy a website quickly. This is an example of:
A. IaaS.
B. SaaS
C. PaaS.
D. On-demand software.
E. None of the above.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Privacy is the right of________ to selectively disclose information about _________ and restrict the
further use of that information by any party.
A. companies, others
B. companies, themselves
C. individuals, others
D. individuals, themselves
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which of the following actions should a company take if a cloud computing provider ceases to uphold
their contract?
A. Consult the company's exit plan.
B. Move the company data to the backup provider that was selected earlier.
C. Re-host all critical applications on the company's internal servers.
D. Evaluate the company's strategic options for an alternative provider
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which of the following is a reason for business users lo be interested in cloud computing?
A. Desire for vendor lock-in reduction
B. Desire for improved security
C. Desire for improved user experience
D. Desire for reducing compliance issues
Answer: C

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NO.16 Why is it important to consider the cloud ecosystem when developing applications.?
A. Cloud providers will do application development.
B. The development process needs to change.
C. The role of the IT department will change.
D. This can speed up the development process.
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which of the following is an important new skill for an IT organization to develop in the context of cloud
computing?
A. Provisioning services
B. Incident management
C. Technology upgrade monitoring
D. Security and risk management
Answer: A

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NO.18 Cloud computing _____________capital cost to variable cost.
A. increases
B. reduces
C. shifts
D. equates
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which of the following does the server virtualization layer do?
A. It allows the underling physical server hardware to be shared
B. It allows the virtual machines to be dependent on each other
C. It allows the virtual machines to be load balanced
D. It prohibits the use of virtual machines by unauthorized users
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which of the following are essential steps to take when creating a virtual server?
A. Select a machine image to run, select an application set to run, select security credentials.
B. Select a machine image to run, select an application set to run, select the size of the virtual machine.
C. Select a machine image to run, select security credentials, select the size of the virtual machine.
D. Select an application set to run, select security credentials, select the size of the virtual machine.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: ADR-001
Exam Name: CompTIA (CompTIA Mobile App Security+ Certification Exam (Android Edition))
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Total Q&A: 102 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-11

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NO.1 Which of the following is the MOST reliable form of input validation?
A. Positive validation of input data using regular expression processing
B. Base64 encoding of input data
C. Validating the bounds of input data using a character set
D. HTML or URI encoding of input data and ensuring Unicode support
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following is fundamental to MOST transport layer encryption implementations?
A. Device passcode
B. Obfuscation
C. HTTPS
D. Keychain
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following can be performed to find security design flaws in mobile apps prior to
writing code?
A. Threat modeling
B. Penetration testing
C. Static source code analysis
D. Dynamic validation testing
Answer: A

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NO.4 When handling sensitive data with Android apps, which of the following storage strategies is
MOST secure?
A. Store data on device using encryption, with encryption key managed on the server
B. Prompt users to enable encryption
C. Store sensitive data locally in XML protected with file permissions
D. Store sensitive data on the server
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following methodologies is BEST for a developer to find input validation
weaknesses in their own mobile app source code?
A. Disassembly of mobile app executable
B. Threat modeling
C. Fuzz testing an app's attack surface
D. Single stepping an app through a debugger
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following will LEAST likely be detected through source code analysis?
A. Improper certificate validation
B. Buffer overflow vulnerability
C. Improper build process
D. Hardcoded credentials
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following attempts to inhibit an application from being trojanized and
proliferating?
A. Tamper protection in code.
B. Encrypting config file.
C. Ensure appropriate permissions are deployed to every component.
D. Login credentials delivered over network with HTTPS.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following techniques are useful in a secure software development process?
(Select TWO).
A. Cross platform compatibility testing with HTML5
B. Using hardware encryption to protect all data on the device
C. Static code analysis
D. Abuse/misuse case analysis
E. Implementation of two-factor authentication
Answer: C,D

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NO.9 Which of the following accurately explains why many people criticize the use of a unique
hardware ID such as IMEI/MEID to identify users? (Select TWO).
A. The hardware ID can be traced to an individual user and help track activity over time and across
apps
B. The hardware ID unlocks encryption on the device
C. Companies encode email addresses directly into the hardware ID
D. Hardware ID values are easily predictable
E. Users cannot selectively block apps' access to it
Answer: A,E

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NO.10 Which of the following is a reason to take mobile app security seriously when developing a
social networking app that does NOT accept payments? (Select TWO).
A. PCI-DSS regulations
B. Consumer privacy expectations and regulations
C. HIPAA regulations
D. FIPS compliance
E. Company reputation
Answer: B,E

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