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2014年1月24日星期五

E20-616 questions and answers

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Exam Code: E20-616
Exam Name: EMC (Symmetrix Installation and Troubleshooting Specialist)
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Total Q&A: 241 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-24

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NO.1 When looking at the DMX FA Back Adapter, you notice that one of the SFPs is blue. What does this
mean?
A. Long wave, multi mode port
B. Long wave, single mode port
C. Short wave, multi mode port
D. Short wave, single mode port
Answer: B

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NO.2 What does the Interleave Service Policy manage during a read operation?
A. Reads the tracks from M1 and M2 randomly
B. Reads the tracks from M1 and M2 alternatively
C. Reads the tracks only from M1
D. Tracks measurements of I/O on logical volumes and chooses the appropriate mirror
Answer: B

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NO.3 Click the exhibit button.
You are viewing the rear of the DMX1000 card cage. Which card is ECM1?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which component of a DMX-2 performs Front End, director-to-director communications?
A. CCM
B. ECM
C. LCC
D. PBC
Answer: A

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NO.5 How is DPR enabled?
A. By the EMC z/OS Storage Manager
B. In the bin file
C. Inlines Command
D. On the host by z/OS
Answer: B

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NO.6 A customer wants to change Host Directors to support SRDF. What distinguishes one director type
from another within a Symmetrix 8000 series?
A. Director model number
B. Director revision
C. Emulation code
D. Enginuity code level
Answer: C

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NO.7 When is the relationship between a data volume and a BCV created?
A. When the BCV is created in the bin file
B. When the BCV is established
C. When the BCV is split
D. When the BCV is varied on
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is a difference between a Symmetrix 8830 and a DMX-2?
A. An 8830 24-slot card cage is scalable
B. Disks on a DMX-2 are FC-AL
C. DMX-2 uses a cache interconnect multi-drop bus
D. Maximum system bandwidth on an 8830 is 16Gb/s
Answer: B

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NO.9 What is a major difference in director data flow between the Symmetrix 8000 series and a DMX-2?
A. An 8430 uses loop redundancy
B. An 8530's directors are connected to two data busses
C. Directors in a DMX-2 are connected to top high and bottom low
D. DMX-2 port bypass cards are connected directly to cache
Answer: B

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NO.10 Click the exhibit button.
You are viewing the rear of the DMX1000 card cage. Which card is CCM0?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: D

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NO.11 Click the exhibit button.
You are viewing the rear of a Symmetrix DMX22000/3000 Card Cage. Where will you find ECM1?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B

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NO.12 A customer's AC power fails to a Symmetrix 8430/8530. In this case, which components will the
battery subsystem sustain?
A. Card cage and disks
B. Communication cards and service processors
C. Disk drives and memory
D. Memory cards and service processor
Answer: A

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NO.13 Click the exhibit button.
The customer has handed you this service alert error message. What is the error?
A. Alarm signal set
B. PC failed to call home due to communication problems
C. Temperature problems
D. Mirror device is not ready at time of periodic test
Answer: D

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NO.14 On a DMX1000P, how many DAs are required?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Answer: B

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NO.15 A service processor fails to communicate with directors 1 through 8 in the DMX-2 series. Which
component can cause this failure?
A. CCM0
B. ECM0
C. ECM1
D. XCM
Answer: A

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NO.16 All the memory slots in a DMX-1000 are occupied. In this case, what is run from the procedure Wizard
to perform Memory Replacement?
A. Add Memory Board script to the Universal slot script, run Replace Memory Board Script, and replace
that board
B. Remove Memory Board script first and then Add Memory Board Script
C. Replace Memory Board script
D. Upgrade Memory Board script
Answer: B

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NO.17 A DMX-2 memory configuration containing four (4) memory boards is to be upgraded to larger size
cache boards. The upgrade results in a two (2) memory board configuration. How will the bandwidth of
the DMX-2 be affected by the upgrade?
A. Decreased by the smaller cache card count
B. Increased by the larger memory size
C. Unchanged, only memory size is affected
D. Will remain at the theoretical maximum
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which type of Symmetrix volume contains information on the dynamic mirror policy decisions, error
logging, event traces, code image storage, and a dedicated lost write area?
A. BCV
B. Data
C. DRV
D. SFS
Answer: D

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NO.19 A customer wants to set up an FA port for a 10km distance connection. Which optic mode will meet the
customer's need?
A. Long wave, Fibre Multi Mode port
B. Long wave, Fibre Single Mode port
C. Short wave, Fibre Multi Mode port
D. Short wave, Fibre Single Mode port
Answer: B

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NO.20 When will a customer's host be able to access the data on a BCV?
A. After the BCV is established
B. After the BCV is split
C. When the BCV is created in the Bin
D. While the BCV is syncing with the data volume
Answer: B

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2014年1月19日星期日

EMC certification E20-670 exam training programs

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Total Q&A: 180 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-19

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NO.1 Which portal provides timely and concise information for sales professionals in competitive situations?
Select the best response.
A. Solution Expert
B. Quote Builder
C. Sales Accelerator
D. Competitive Edge
E. Cisco Discovery
Answer: D

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NO.2 What type of approach is used to deploy, operate, and optimize Cisco solutions?
Select the best response.
A. Lifecycle advantages
B. Lifecycle services
C. Lifestyle services
D. Lifestyle advantages
E. Lifetime advantage
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which network topology best describes how EMC Centera nodes are networked together?
A. Bus
B. Mesh
C. Ring
D. Star
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which layer of the OSI model does FTP use?
A. Application
B. Data link
C. Network
D. Transport
Answer: A

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NO.5 What resource allows Cisco partners to get funding for preapproved activities, such as catalogs,
yellow pages, events, trainings, e-mail blasts, and advertising?
Select the best response.
A. Solution Expert
B. Quote Builder
C. Joint Marketing Fund
D. Cisco Discovery
E. Steps to Success
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which technology is best deployed to meet the needs of users who desire secure remote access to
corporate resources?
Select the best response.
A. VPN-enabled routers
B. Cisco Security Agent
C. Cisco Adaptive Security Appliances
D. Cisco Adaptive Security Device Manager
E. Cisco Intrusion Prevention System
Answer: C

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NO.7 On what type of network does the Cisco Unified Communication system reside?
Select the best response.
A. Independent voice, video, and data networks
B. Voice networks only
C. A single, joined voice, video, and data network
D. Data networks only
E. Wireless networks only
Answer: C

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NO.8 In the OSI model, which layer would a router be defined in?
A. Data link
B. Network
C. Network interface
D. Transport
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which stage of Cisco Lifecycle Services comprises services that ensure the design and deployment of
the desired network functionality?
Select the best response.
A. Prepare
B. Plan
C. Design
D. Implement
E. Operate
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which program has been specifically designed for small-sized and medium-sized businesses and
provides easy, cost-effective network support to help ensure reliable operations, contain costs, and
protect their investments?
Select the best response.
A. Cisco Software Application Support Services
B. Cisco Focused Technical Support Services
C. Cisco Smart Foundation Service
D. Cisco SP Base
E. Cisco SMARTnet Onsite
Answer: C

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NO.11 What are four layers in the ARPA (TCP/IP) architecture?
A. Application, session, transport, and physical
B. Application, transport, network, and network interface
C. Presentation, network, data link, and network interface
D. Presentation, transport, data link, and physical
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which port number is used to communicate to an SMTP server?
A. 20 or 21
B. 22
C. 25
D. 321
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which tool provides a complete guide that makes it easier for partners, regardless of their experience
level, to sell Cisco Unified Communications solutions to their customers?
Select the best response.
A. Solution Expert
B. Quote Builder
C. Sales Accelerator
D. Competitive Edge
E. Cisco Discovery
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which three of the following are benefits of Cisco TAC? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. Direct or indirect access to the global Cisco TAC organization
B. The ability to access teams of experts
C. Onsite engineering support
D. Minimizes risks associated with network downtime
E. Upgrades from base Cisco IOS Software to advanced feature set Cisco IOS Software
F. Project management and planning support
Answer: ABD

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NO.15 What is the key element in SMB solutions?
Select the best response.
A. They provide the lowest possible cost.
B. They reduce the cost and complexity associated with multiple services in a single device.
C. They reduce complexity by eliminating features.
D. Consumer-level products are suitable for SMB needs.
E. Reliability is not important since replacement products are inexpensive.
Answer: B

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NO.16 How many leading bits are used to determine the class of an Internet address?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
Answer: C

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NO.17 What feature does the Partner E-Learning Connection provide?
Select the best response.
A. Full versions of all Cisco technical-level classes
B. Live instructor-led, web-based classes
C. Flexible, web-based knowledge and learning
D. Hosted website that partners use to deliver e-learning to customers
E. Lists of training-partner class offerings
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which three products are targeted primarily for deployment in enterprise environments? (Choose
three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. Cisco 1800 Series ISRs
B. Cisco Catalyst 4500 Series Switches
C. Cisco Catalyst 2960 Series Switches
D. Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Switches
E. Cisco 7200 Series Routers
F. Cisco 2800 Series ISRs
Answer: BDE

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NO.19 What are the three commonly recognized top-level business drivers for data centers? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. Protecting the business from information outages
B. A need to decentralize IT assets
C. Increasing the rate of adoption of new, nonstandardized technologies
D. Optimizing the efficiency with which IT operates
E. An increased need for specialized IT silos
F. Growing IT systems
Answer: ADF

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NO.20 Which type of deployment utilizes ISRs with Cisco IOS Security feature sets to provide an ideal,
low-cost, yet capable and powerful platform?
Select the best response.
A. Small deployments
B. Large deployments
C. Medium deployments
D. Commercial deployments
E. Financial deployments
Answer: A

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NO.1 Which Performance Monitor Setting will give early warning that an interface is too busy?
A.IPThreshold
B.Restart Trap Window
C.UnicastThreshold
D.UtilizationThreshold
Answer:D

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NO.2 The EMEA NOC, America NOC, and Asia NOC each has visibility to regional NOCs. Each regional
NOC implements one or more Smarts applications and uses its own Smarts Service Assurance Manager
to provide an end-to-end view of the region. What needs to be configured to architect EMC Smarts
solutions to view all regions?
A.Hierarchical SAM configuration
B.Smarts Aggregation Adapter
C.Smarts Topology Split Manager
D.Standard SAM configuration
Answer:A

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NO.3 What does the context filter determine when defining a tool?
A.If the tool is grayed out
B.If the tool is visible
C.The acceptable state for tool use
D.Which attributes are passed
Answer:B

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NO.4 An organization is looking for a way to effectively scale in an intricate heterogeneous IT environment.
Which part of the Smarts A3 architecture will minimize the manual effort to accomplish this goal?
A.Automation
B.Abstraction
C.Analytics
D.Analysis
Answer:B

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NO.5 There is a firewall between the servers on which the Domain Managers are running. You are
troubleshooting a connectivity issue with the Smarts deployment. Which command is used to verify the
TCP ports on which the Domain Managers are listening?
A.brcontrol
B.sm_ping
C.sm_service show
D.sm_what
Answer:A

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NO.6 Which information is needed by IP Availability Manager to communicate with an EMC Celerra NAS in
addition to its IP address?
A.Control Station port number
B.Data Mover port number
C.Port number
D.Username, password
Answer:D

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NO.7 A customer's environment has many different networks that are being managed by Smarts. As a result
of this there are many DuplicateIP notifications. What is an effect on Smarts of having DuplicateIP
notifications?
A.Each duplicated IP object is unmanaged.
B.IP Domain Manager polls twice as often.
C.Network connections will not be represented correctly.
D.Root-cause analysis of other events will be correlated to these Duplicate IPs.
Answer:A

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NO.8 A switch appears down in Service Assurance Manager. After trying to troubleshoot the problem, an
operator finds out that the switch has been removed from service. Why didn't this switch automatically
become Unmanaged in Smarts?
A.IP Availability Manager needs to be restarted to remove this switch.
B.Other devices that were connected to this switch are still reachable by Smarts.
C.This switch requires rediscovery.
D.Unmanaging devices is a manual process.
Answer:D

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NO.9 Click the Exhibit button. A router monitored by these polling settings has just been polled, and the
operational status of Interface A is DOWN. Ten seconds after the initial poll, the interface operational
status changes to UP. How long will it take from the last poll for the IP Domain Manager to set this
interface's status to UP?
A.15 minutes
B.700 milliseconds
C.9 seconds
D.900 minutes
Answer:A

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NO.10 Which command can be used in a script that will stop the Service Assurance Manager SMARTS-SA?
A.dmquit -s SMARTS-SA --force
B.dmquit -n SMARTS-SA --norestore
C.sm_quit -n SMARTS-SA --norestore
D.sm_quit -s SMARTS-SA --ignore
Answer:A

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NO.11 Oper1, a user, would like to share a saved map with other users. What does the admin need to do?
A.Copy the saved map to \smarts\local\conf\console folder on the Global Manager
B.Copy the saved map to \smarts\local\conf\consoles folder on the Global Manager
C.Copy the saved map to \smarts\local\console folder on the Global Manager
D.Copy the saved map to \smarts\local\consoles folder on the Global Manager
Answer:D

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NO.12 A new Windows 2003 Enterprise Server from Vendor XYZ needs to be discovered. The Smarts admin
created an entry for this server in oid2type_Field.conf. .1.3.6.1.4.1.9999.1.12 { TYPE = Switch VENDOR
= XYZ MODEL = Widget5550 CERTIFICATION = TEMPLATE INSTRUMENTATION: Interface-Fault =
MIB2 Interface-Performance = MIB2 } After discovering this new server, which class will it be part of?
A.Host
B.It will not be added to the topology
C.Node
D.Switch
Answer:D

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NO.13 Which relationship of a switch is expanded to view the instances of its ports, in the Topology Browser?
A.ComposedOf
B.HostConnectionPoints
C.Overlaying
D.PartOf
Answer:A

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NO.14 Click the Exhibit button. The current weights.conf file contains: ClassWeight ICIM_ManagedElement 1
Which impact value would be calculated for this Router Down problem?
A.102
B.1000
C.1002
D.10002
Answer:C

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NO.15 Which relationship exists between a card and its ports?
A.ConnectedTo/ConnectedVia
B.HostsAccessPoints/HostedBy
C.MemberSystems/MemberOf
D.Realizes/RealizedBy
Answer:D

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NO.16 Which sm_server parameters are required when starting a Service Assurance Manager?
A.--name and --config
B.--name and --port
C.--server and --config
D.--server and --port
Answer:A

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NO.17 Which relationship exists between a card and its ports?
A.ConnectedVia/ConnectedTo
B.PackagedIn/Packages
C.Realizes/RealizedBy
D.Underlying/LayeredOver
Answer:C

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NO.18 To ensure that Discovery probes every IP address on a Class B IP network you set the Discovery filter
to 10.1.*.*. . However, you see that most devices in that range have not been discovered. Why?
A.MaximumHostBits parameter in discovery.conf is set to 8 by default.
B.Some of those IP addresses do not exist.
C.The systems have been throttled and placed on the Pending Device List.
D.You have run out of licenses.
Answer:A

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NO.19 At a customer site, many different networks are being managed by a single IP domain, which is
generating many DuplicateIP alerts in SAM. How can you avoid these DuplicateIP alerts?
A.Filter the Duplicate network
B.Use a different IP-AM for each network
C.Use a different SAM for each network
D.Use IP Tagging
Answer:D

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NO.20 A root-cause problem is presented that states one of a router interfaces is down. What is the
underlying issue?
A.Router interface is administratively down and operationally down.
B.Router interface is administratively up and operationally down.
C.Router is completely down.
D.SNMP Agent on that router is not responding.
Answer:B

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Exam Name: EMC (Technology Architect Backup and Recovery Solutions Design Exam)
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NO.1 A customer has an operational EMC NetWorker enviroment using an Avamar deduplication node. They
want to protect the Avamar deduplication node using replication. The customer has approached EMC for
advice on what considerations thaey should take into account.
What is a consideration in this envitonment.?
A. NetWorker automatically configures all replication targets associated with a given deduplication node
B. Scheduled replications of a NetWorker deduplication node must be set up in Avamar
C. Recovery from the replications node must be performed from Avamar Administror
D. Schedled replications of a NetWorker deduplication node must be set up in NetWorkwe
Answer: B

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NO.2 The EMC account team has been asked to design a NetWorkwwe backup solution with the following
requirements.
1. One copy of backup data needs to be stored locally.
2. An additional copy of backup data needs to be stored on tape at an offsite location.
What should be done to satisfy the new regulations with minimal impact to the current backup
performance?
A. Clone to tape and send the clone copy to the remote location
B. Back up the data concurrently to the remote and local locations
C. Archive the backup data to the remote location
D. Archive the data to the remote location before being backed up locally
Answer: C

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NO.3 Acustomer is piloting a Data Domain appliance and notices that performance in the writing of backups is
not optimal. Based on the System Show Performance metrics represented in the exhibit, which operation
will provide the most improved the most improved performance?
A. Reduce the read streams
B. Suspend verification
C. Disable cleaning
D. Disable replication
Answer: A

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NO.4 As illustrated in the exhibit, a customer has a backup environment that includes clients and server
managed by a backup media server. Data is written to a primary storage device and archived to an
application server. The customer has onsite retention strorage, which is replicated to a disaster recovery
site. In addition, archive-to-tape is requires.
Which components would you replace when initiating a Data Domain solution?
A. onsite retention storage and offsite disaster recivery storage
B. Backup media server and clients
C. Primary storage and onsite retention storage
D. Backup media server and archive application server
Answer: A

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NO.5 A customer has a Data Domain appliance that has reached 90% of maximum capacity. The customer
does not want to purchase any additional storage.
Wht will increase the average available capacity of the Data Domain appliance?
A. Decrease the backup retention period
B. Increase the snapshot expiration period
C. Increase the nurrter of strearns
D. Decrease the cleaning frequency
Answer: A

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NO.6 An EMC NetWorker customer wants to use the deduplication option. The requirement for a database
server in their enviroment is to perform deduplication backups for file system data and NetWorker tape
backups for database data. They want to allow a maximum of two parallel streams for file system backups
and a maximum of four steams for database backups.
How can this be accomplished?
A.
B.
C.
Group: Bsckups
Parallelism: 0
Client for FS backups
Parallelism: 2
Client for FS backups
Parallelism: 4
D.
Group: Bsckups
Parallelism: 4
Client for FS backups
Parallelism: 2
Client for FS backups
Parallelism: 4
Answer: C

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NO.7 A customer is using Data Protection Advisor (DPA) to moitor their backup enviroment. What is a
benefit of using remote Collectors?
A. Reduces the amount of information being transferred to the DPA server
B. Collects system-related statistics for a given host
C. Improves the collection performance of backup statistics
D. Provides more complete backup reports
Answer: B

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NO.8 An organization is backing up a combination of databases, e-mail, and file system data types in their
data center to a Data Domain appliance using a single backup server. The backup system administrator
creates separate subdirectories for each of the three data types under the default share.
What benefit is provided by this approach?
A. Analyze compression with more granularity
B. Simplity backup device configuration
C. Enhance performance of the database backup
D. Improve file system cleaning performance
Answer: B

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NO.9 An EMC Avamar customer s Gen-1 system with 4 TB of GSAN capacity has reached read-only
threshold. The customer indicates that the deduplicated backup data accounts for approximately 3.5 TB.
What is the most likely cause for the read-only threshold being reached?
A. Deduplication rate is less than expected, accounting for the remaining GSAN capacity
B. Combination of system overhead, logs, and checkpoints account for the remaining GSAN capacity
C. RAIN overhead accounts for the remaining available GSAN capacity
D. Checkpoints and logs account for the remaining GSAN capacity
Answer: C

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NO.10 Click the Calculator icon in the upper left-hand corner.
Acustomer has a new Avamar server with four 2 TB data nodes. This server is backing up two Avamar
clients. The first client has 8 GB of RAM and two file systems. The first file system has 3 million files
consuming. 75 TB. The second file system contains 5 million files consuming 1 TB of space.
The second client has 10 GB of RAM and one file system containing 4 million files consuming 1.2 TB of
space. Both clients will belong to the same backup group. How long will the steady-state backup group be
expected to run?
A. 5 hours
B. 6 hours
C. 7 hours
D. 8 Hours
Answer: B

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2013年11月25日星期一

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Exam Code: E20-340
Exam Name: EMC (Clariion solutiongs implementation)
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Total Q&A: 118 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-25

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NO.1 What software is used to assign IP addresses when installing a new CLARiiON?
A.Unisphere Initialization Utility
B.Unisphere Server Utility
C.Unisphere Service Manager
D.Unisphere Client
Answer: A

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NO.2 A customer has a CX4 series CLARiiON and is experiencing a problem with SPA. Upon arrival you
notice that the SPA Fault LED is amber and flashing at a rate of four times a second.
What is the boot state of SPA?
A.POST Starting OS
B.OS Booted
C.Executing BIOS
D.FLARE Driver Complete
Answer: A

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NO.3 What do drives 0_0_0 to 0_0_4 in a CX4 contain?
A.FLARE and vault
B.Linux OS and metadata
C.DART and vault
D.Enginuity and metadata
Answer: A

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NO.4 A customer would like to configure NTP using Unisphere. What is the minimum polling time allowed for
NTP?
A.30 minutes
B.60 minutes
C.15 minutes
D.10 minutes
Answer: A

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NO.5 A customer has a domain and for security reasons, management and CLI features can only be
performed from the SAN team workstations.
How would IP filtering be configured?
A.SAN team workstation IP addresses
B.SPA IP addresses
C.DNS IP addresses
D.Management stations ¯ I P add r esse
Answer: A

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NO.6 A customer would like to extend their CX4 cache after purchasing Flash drives.
Which Unisphere dialog should be used to configure this feature?
A.Storage System Properties, FAST Cache tab
B.Storage SP Properties, Cache tab
C.Storage SP Properties, SP Memory tab
D.Storage System Properties, SP Cache
Answer: A

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NO.7 What is the maximum number of disk drives that can be configured in a pool on a CX4-480.?
A.475
B.16
C.480
D.32
Answer: A

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NO.8 A customer has requested onsite assistance because they are currently unable to communicate with
SPA.
You arrive onsite and connect to the GbE Service LAN. What IP address do you use to connect to SPA?
A.128.221.1.250
B.192.168.1.250
C.128.221.1.251
D.192.168.1.251
Answer: A

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NO.9 How many front-end ports are required to provide failover between SPs for eight direct-attached hosts
on a CX4?
A.16
B.8
C.4
D.2
Answer: A

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NO.10 Refer to the exhibit.
What is the correct order of the management module components?
A.GbE Service LAN; B-GbE Management LAN; C-Service Port COM1; D-SPS Port COM2; E-NMI Button
B.GbE Management LAN; B-GbE Service LAN; C-Service Port COM1; D-SPS Port COM2; E-NMI Button
C.SPS Port COM2; B-NMI Button; C-Service Port COM1; D-GbE Service LAN; E-GbE Management LAN
D.GbE Service LAN; B-GbE Management LAN; C-SPS Port COM2; D-Service Port COM1; E-NMI Button
Answer: A

EMC   E20-340   E20-340   E20-340

NO.11 Which access restrictions are enabled if IP address filtering is configured on a CLARiiON?
A.Specific management clients
B.iSCSI ports, and ESRS communications
C.Unisphere service ports
D.iSCSI ports
Answer: A

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NO.12 How many CLARiiON arrays are qualified to be in a single domain?
A.100
B.96
C.48
D.128
Answer: A

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NO.13 When working with FLARE 30, which tool is required when upgrading FLARE or performing a DAE
upgrade?
A.Unisphere Service Manager
B.Unisphere Server Utility
C.Unisphere Initialization Utility
D.NDU Upgrade Tool
Answer: A

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NO.14 You are implementing Unisphere security on a CX4 CLARiiON with FLARE 30. The customer has
requested that all certificates be validated when naviseccli is used.
What level of certificate validation does EMC recommend be set for naviseccli?
A.Medium
B.High
C.Low
D.Ignore
Answer: A

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NO.15 Refer to the exhibit. Which port has a fixed IP and subnet mask?
A.A
B.B
C.C
D.D
E.E
Answer: A

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NO.1 What is the recommended method for migrating Web Content Management (WCM) Page Builder
templates, blueprints, managed links, and associated content from a production environment to a testing
environment?
A. archive and install a DocApp
B. perform a repository-to-repository copy operation through WebPublisher
C. execute cabinet dump and load
D. use a deep export/import through WebPublisher
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is required for using Business Object Framework 2 (BOF 2)?
A. a dfc.properties file on all client machines such as application servers
B. a DBOR.properties and a dfc.properties file on all client machines such as application servers and a
global registry repository
C. a DBOR.properties file on all client machines and a global registry repository
D. a global registry repository and a dfc.properties file on all client machines
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which is a supported path for upgrading a Content Server to D6?
A. 4i > 5.2.5 > 6
B. 5.2 > 5.2.5 > 6
C. 4i > 5.3 > 6
D. 5.2.5 > 5.3 > 6
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which file(s) handle client configuration in D6?
A. dmcl.ini only
B. dfc.properties only
C. dmcl.ini and dfc.properties
D. dmclfull.ini only
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is the supported procedure for rolling back an upgrade of Documentum Content Server?
A. uninstall the current version, then reinstall the previous version
B. run the uninstaller for the current version and run the Data Dictionary Publish job
C. remove the directory under %DOCUMENTUM%/product for the current version, change server.ini file
and dm_server_config, dm_docbase_config objects
D. restore the system from backup
Answer: D

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NO.6 A client has a Content Server, Site Caching Services (SCS), Content Transformation Services (CTS),
and Full-text Indexes installed on Windows/Oracle servers. The client wants to migrate Documentum
applications to Linux.
Which statement is true?
A. The client must migrate Oracle servers to Linux.
B. SCS is not supported on Linux.
C. CTS is not supported on Linux.
D. Content Server is not supported on Linux/Oracle.
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is the correct sequence of steps for upgrading Content Server and Full-text Index Server?
A. uninstall Full-text Index Server delete Index Agents upgrade Content Server install Index Agents install
Full-text Index Server
B. upgrade Content Server uninstall Full-text Index Server delete Index Agents install Index Agents install
Full-text Index Server
C. delete Index Agents uninstall Full-text Index Server upgrade Content Server install Full-text Index
Server install Index Agents
D. delete Index Agents upgrade Full-text Index Server upgrade Content Server install Index Agents
Answer: C

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NO.8 A client wants to upgrade a repository from 5.2.5 to 5.3. The repository has 8 million content objects
with an average size of 50K. The full text searching capability is required to be available within 24 hours of
the repository upgrade. The Full-text Index Server is installed on a separate server. The upgrade is
scheduled to happen in two months.
How can the client accomplish this objective?
A. configure an Index Agent in normal mode to operate against the 5.2.5 repository
create the Full-text Indexes
run the ftintegrity tool to identify documents that were not indexed, and resubmit those documents for
indexing
upgrade the Content Server and the repository
B. upgrade the Content Server and the repository
configure an Index Agent in normal mode to operate against the upgraded repository
create the Full-text Indexes
C. configure a 5.3 Index Agent in migration mode to operate against the 5.2.5 repository
create the Full-text Indexes.
run the ftintegrity tool to identify documents that were not indexed, and resubmit those documents for
indexing
upgrade the Content Server and the repository
shut down the migration-mode Index Agent and change it to a normal-mode Index Agent.
D. upgrade the Content Server and the repository
configure an Index Agent in migration mode to operate against the upgraded repository
create the Full-text Indexes.
shut down the migration-mode Index Agent and change it to a normal-mode Index Agent
Answer: C

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NO.9 What is the proper sequence of steps for upgrading Content Server and Document Transformation
Services (DTS)?
A. uninstall Content Server
uninstall DTS
install Content Server
install DTS
add DTS Support to repository
B. remove DTS Support from repository
uninstall DTS upgrade Content Server
install DTS
add DTS Support to repository
C. upgrade Content Server
remove DTS Support from repository
uninstall DTS
install DTS
add DTS support to repository
D. remove DTS Support from repository
upgrade Content Server
uninstall DTS
install DTS
add DTS support to repository
Answer: B

EMC test questions   E20-475   E20-475

NO.10 You are planning the upgrade of your Content Server software with Branch Office Caching Service
(BOCS) on a remote site. The repository has approximately one million objects with 400 GB of content
and 350 GB of full-text indexes. The BOCS cache has 20 GB of content.
What must be backed up before starting with the upgrade?
A. content, full-text index, and database
B. content, full-text index, and BOCS cache
C. full-text index, database, and BOCS cache
D. content, database, and BOCS cache
Answer: A

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NO.11 You are tasked with performing a Content Server upgrade.
To accomplish this, you do the following:
You first make a repository copy of the production repository by installing the Content Server.
You then create a new repository.
You then copy the database and file storage areas from production to the new environment.
To be successful, what must be true of the new repository copy after this operation is complete?
A. It must have the same Docbase ID as the production repository.
B. It must have a different owner than the production repository.
C. It must project to the same Connection Broker as the production repository.
D. It must have the same Database Connection string as the production repository.
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which file replaces the pre-D6 dmcl.ini?
A. dfc.properties
B. docbroker.ini
C. java.ini
D. dbor.properties
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which statement is true about the dump and load operation?
A. Aspects associated with a dumped object are not included in the dump file.
B. Content stored in external file storage may be included in a dump file, but blob or turbo storage may
not.
C. The source and target repositories must be the same version, but may use different code pages.
D. Objects in the target repository will always have the same r_object_id as the corresponding object in
the source repository.
Answer: A

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NO.14 Before upgrading the Content Server software, which job do you need to run to find sysobjects that
point to non-existent content?
A. Content Warning
B. Consistency Checker
C. Dmclean
D. State of the Repository Report
Answer: B

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NO.15 In addition to core software upgrade considerations, which component of a Documentum system are
most likely to require additional work?
A. software use cases
B. network topology
C. data center architecture
D. application customizations
Answer: D

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NO.16 After an upgrade from a pre 5.3 version to 5.3 or 6, what can you do to remove the Verity Full-text Index
components?
A. You delete the Verity Full-text Index components via Documentum Administrator after the upgrade.
B. The Content Server upgrade procedure deletes the Full-text. Just the empty/fulltext/Verity directory
needs to be deleted in the DOCUMENTUM directory.
C. You do not delete the Verity Full-text Index. The new Fast Full-text installation needs the data for
migration.
D. You delete the Documentum type dmi_tdk_index and the Full-text data in DOCUMENTUM/data
directory.
Answer: B

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NO.17 Your client's Content Servers are running on Sun/Oracle. These servers have numerous custom
applications installed and have been ugpraded several times. Security and regulatory considerations
preclude the copying of certain production data to non-production systems. The client's
configuration/change management processes and systems are incomplete or missing. You are tasked
with drafting a plan to copy a repository from the production environment to a development environment in
preparation for an upgrade.
Which process should you use to ensure that the new development environment is as similar to the
production environment as possible?
A. install Content Server in the development environment using the same docbase id as the production
environment
use the Oracle Import/Export tools to export the production database and import it into the
development environment
modify various configuration data to conform to the development environment
copy a subset of the production content to the development storage
B. install Content Server in the development environment using the same docbase id as the production
environment
use the Dump and Load utility to transfer data and metadata from the production environment to the
development environment
modify various configuration data to conform to the development environment
use DQL/DFC applications to delete potentially sensitive data from the development environment
C. copy the entire $DOCUMENTUM directory and all subdirectories from the production to the
development environment
use the Dump and Load utility to transfer data and metadata from the production environment to the
development environment
modify various configuration data to conform to the development environment
D. copy the entire $DOCUMENTUM directory and all subdirectories from the production to the
development environment
use the Oracle Import/Export tools to export the production database and import it into the
development environment
modify various configuration data to conform to the development environment
create a dm_location object and filestore in the production system pointing to the development
storage
use the Migrate Content method with an appropriate DQL qualifier to copy a non-restricted subset of
the production content to the development filestores
remove the new dm_location and dm_filestore objects
Answer: D

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NO.18 A client is migrating their repositories from Windows to Linux. The database server is Oracle. The
content file stores are on NAS and made available over CIFS. For the migration, the client has done the
following:
installed Content Server and Oracle client on Linux using an installation owner account with the same
name on Windows
copied the tnsnames.ora from Windows to Linux
configured replacement Connection Brokers
added Services entries for the repositories on the Linux Content Server environment
attached to the NAS storage using NFS
updated for each repository the web_server_loc, smtp_server, r_host_name, r_install_domain, and
projection target attributes for server config using SQL to reflect the new server name
Which minimal high-level steps does the client need to take to complete the migration?
A. copy all the configuration, and the aek.key files under %DOCUMENTUM%\dba Windows
to$DOCUMENTUM/dba on the Linux Content Server
update the user_auth_target, database_password_file, and Docbase Projection Target fields in each
server.ini
update the appropriate dm_location objects in the repositories using SQL to map to the new
locations</UL
B. copy all the configuration files under %DOCUMENTUM%\dba Windows to $DOCUMENTUM/dba on
the Linux Content Server
update the user_auth_target, database_password_file, and Docbase Projection Target fields in each
server.ini
update the appropriate dm_location objects in the repositories using SQL to map to the new locations
C. copy all the configuration, and the aek.key files under %DOCUMENTUM%\dba Windows to
$DOCUMENTUM/dba on the Linux Content Server
update the Docbase Projection Target fields in each server.ini
update the appropriate dm_location objects in the repositories using SQL to map to the new locations
D. copy all the configuration files under %DOCUMENTUM%\dba Windows to $DOCUMENTUM/dba on
the Linux Content Server
pdate the database_password_file, and Docbase Projection Target fields in each server.ini
update the appropriate dm_location objects in the repositories using SQL to map to the new locations
Answer: A

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NO.19 A client wants to upgrade their Documentum system from 5.3 SP3 to D6, but does not have the
resources to upgrade and test web applications such as Webtop and Content Server components within a
single downtime window. The client asks whether the upgrade can be phased, and if so which
components should be upgraded first.
What is the correct response to the customer's question?
A. Web applications must be upgraded before the Content Server.
B. Web applications must be upgraded after the Content Server is upgraded.
C. Web applications may be upgraded before or after the Content Server is upgraded.
D. Web applications do not need to be upgraded to make use of D6 features.
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which Application Server does D6 Content Server install for its internal use?
A. BEA Weblogic
B. Oracle AS
C. Apache Tomcat
D. IBM WebSphere
Answer: A

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Exam Name: EMC (Network Attached Storage (NAS) Specialist Exam for Storage Administrators)
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Total Q&A: 115 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-25

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NO.1 A network administrator needs to create a trunk on a Data Mover from dissimilar physical network
devices.
What networking configuration should be used to accomplish this?
A. LACP
B. Fail Safe Network
C. EtherChannel
D. SNMP
Answer: C

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NO.2 You enter the following command: nas_fs -create size=3M pool=clar_r5_economy
What will be the result?
A. The file system is created with a default file system name.
B. The file system and a mountpoint are created.
C. Only the mountpoint is created.
D. The file system is not created.
Answer: A

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NO.3 You are asked by management to create a project directory and track the individual user consumption
in this directory using Celerra quota features. No limits should be enforced.
What would be part of an appropriate procedure to satisfy this requirement?
A. Set up a user quota on the share; specify the limits with the keyword "none" in the CLI
B. Set up a tree quota on the new directory; set up a user quota on the quota tree; specify the limits for the
tree quota and user quota with a value of zero in the GUI
C. Set up a tree quota on the new directory; leave the two fields specifying the limits for the quota tree and
the user quota blank in the Unisphere GUI
D. Set up a user quota on the file system (accommodating the new directory); specify the limits with the
keyword "none" in the GUI
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is a minimum requirement when creating a file system using Manual Volume Management?
A. Metavolume
B. Mirror volume
C. Sliced volumes
D. Striped volumes
Answer: A

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NO.5 You are creating an auto-extend file system. What would happen if you leave the Maximum Capacity
option empty?
A. File system would grow to the pool capacity limit.
B. Data would be overwritten.
C. File system would fail to auto-extend.
D. Write I/Os would be saved in cache until more space is added.
Answer: A

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NO.6 A system administrator is trying to create a non-root file system of type UxFS, on a metavolume. What is
the minimum size to create the file system?
A. 4 GB
B. 1 MB
C. 2 GB
D. 2 MB
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which command would successfully extend a Data Mover root file system?
A. as root issue /nas/sbin/rootnas_fs -xtend root_fs_2 size=2G pool=clar_r5_performance
B. as nasadmin issue nas_fs -xtend root_fs_2 size=2G pool=clar_r5_performance
C. as root issue /nas/sbin/rootnas_fs -xtend root_fs_2 size=2K pool=clar_r5_performance
D. as nasadmin issue nas_fs -xtend root_fs_2 size=2G pool=clar_r5_performance
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which conditions must be met before tree quotas can be enabled?
A. File system and parent directories must exist, but the parent directory on which the tree quota is to be
applied must already exist.
B. File system and parent directories must exist, but the parent directory on which the tree quota is to be
applied must not exist.
C. Tree directory structure to be quoted must be populated with data.
D. Tree directory structure to be quoted must be at the root of the file system.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which statement describes the public network connection of a Celerra with a single Control Station?
A. Comprised of a single physical Ethernet connection
B. Is formed from dual redundant physical Ethernet connections
C. Comprised of a virtual Ethernet EtherChannel connection
D. Is formed from a virtual Ethernet LACP connection
Answer: A

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NO.10 A site administrator would like to have file system quota implemented. However, the administrator is
worried about users who create symbolic links.
How can symbolic links be excluded from the file system quota?
A. Use group and user quotas together
B. Use the filesize policy
C. Use the block policy
D. Use the excl option when configuring the quota
Answer: B

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NO.11 An administrator configured Data Mover network devices to transmit frames on all links for redundancy.
Which network configuration was used to accomplish this.?
A. LACP
B. Proxy ARP
C. Ethernet channel
D. RARP
Answer: A

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NO.12 When a Celerra quota is turned off, how does that affect the existing user and group quota information?
A. User and group quota statistics are deleted.
B. Group statistics are retained and user statistics are not.
C. User and group statistics are retained.
D. User statistics are retained and group statistics are not.
Answer: C

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NO.13 You are running out of capacity on your Celerra, and additional storage is already on order. Meanwhile,
which quota configuration would track user consumption?
A. User quotas on the file system
B. Group quotas on the tree
C. Tree quotas on the file system
D. User quotas on the tree
Answer: A

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NO.14 A site administrator needs to disable user and group quotas. What happens to the existing quota
configuration and metadata?
A. Maintained
B. Enforced
C. Deleted
D. Reset
Answer: A

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NO.15 Management asks you to set quota limits on a directory tree.
They want the default set to 500 MB with a possible overhead of 20%. They want to enforce these limits
on the sum of the logical size of objects in that quota tree. What is part of the correct answer?
A. Set the hard limit to 600 MB, and set the file size quota policy on the Data Mover.
B. Set the hard limit to 600 MB, and set the file size quota policy on the file system.
C. Set the hard limit to 500 MB, and set the file size quota policy on the file system.
D. Set the hard limit to 500 MB, and set the blocksize quota policy.
Answer: A

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