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2013年12月31日星期二

Latest Juniper JN0-311 of exam practice questions and answers

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Exam Code: JN0-311
Exam Name: Juniper (WX, Associate(JNCIA-WX))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 123 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which two statements describe the criteria bandwidth detection uses to dynamically alter bandwidth
allocation? (Choose two.)
A. Throughput is raised as latency decreases.
B. Throughput is based on available bandwidth.
C. Throughput is lowered as latency decreases.
D. Latency is measured by SYNs returned for each metapacket.
Answer:AB

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NO.2 Which two configurations are made using the QoS Setup Wizard? (Choose two.)
A. Assign applications to traffic classes.
B. Use ToS/DSCP values for traffic classes.
C. Exclude subnets from QoS management.
D. Select dedicated vs. over-subscribed circuits.
Answer:AD

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NO.3 Which two secure remote access methods are available on the WX platforms? (Choose two.)
A. SSL
B. SSH
C. Telnet
D. HTTP
Answer:AB

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NO.4 Which three statistics does the Executive report summarize? (Choose three.)
A. latency and loss
B. compression results
C. traffic (by application)
D. CRC and alignment errors
E. user access (by username)
Answer: ABC

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NO.5 What is NSC's functionality?
A. Web caching
B. sequence caching
C. memory-based compression
D. next-generation compression
Answer: B

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NO.6 What are two ways to view the system log files on a WX device? (Choose two.)
A. Use the CLI and enter show log.
B. Use the CLI and enter show all.
C. Use the CLI and enter show logging.
D. In WebView, choose Admin > Tools > Display System Log.
Answer:AD

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NO.7 Which three locations in WebView allow you to confirm that the endpoints are configured properly?
(Choose three.)
A. Monitor > Endpoints
B. Acceleration > Endpoints
C. Device Setup > Endpoints
D. Compression > Endpoints
E. Admin > Maintenance > Display Configuration
Answer:ADE

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NO.8 Which statement is true about compression subnets?
A. Compression subnets are turned on by default.
B. Compression subnets advertise remote routes.
C. Compression subnets are usually LAN-side subnets.
D. Compression subnets are usually WAN-side subnets.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which two patented or patent-pending compression and caching technologies are used for WX/WXC
devices? (Choose two.)
A. Network Sequence Caching (NSC)
B. Molecular Sequence Caching (MSC)
C. Network Sequence Reduction (NSR)
D. Molecular Sequence Reduction (MSR)
Answer:AD

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NO.10 Which two environments would take advantage of TCP Acceleration (AFP)? (Choose two.)
A. satellite networks
B. low-latency networks
C. long-haul link with 95% compressibility.
D. long-haul link with 10% compressibility.
Answer:AC

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2013年12月3日星期二

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Exam Code: JN0-692
Exam Name: Juniper (Service Provider Routing and Switching Support, Professional)
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Last Update: 2013-12-03

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NO.1 An OSPF neighbor between routers R1 and R2 is stuck in loading state on R2. What are two
causes? (Choose two.)
A. OSPF is not enabled on the interfaces.
B. A firewall filter is blocking OSPF hellos on both sides.
C. The R1 router has received a corrupted link-state request packet.
D. The interface MTU is mismatched between the routers.
Answer: C,D

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NO.2 You recently added your autonomous system to an existing BGP confederation. You notice that
a route that had a local preference of 100 now has a local preference of 50. Which statement
explains the change?
A. BGP path attributes such as next hop, local preference, and MED are normally restricted to a
single AS but are allowed to propagate throughout the confederation's AS members.
B. The confederation has sub-ASs that require all IBGP routes to have a local preference of 50 or
below.
C. When your Junos devices joined the confederation, they lost IBGP connectivity to the route in
question; the local preference reverted to 50 once the BGP peering established.
D. The route is being shared through an EBGP peer, and the confederation is propagating the local
preference from the peer.
Answer: A

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NO.3 You have applied a customized EXP rewrite rule on router R1 on the egress of the interface
connecting to router R2. You want to verify if it is working properly. Which two methods would you
use to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A. Apply a rewrite rule on the ingress of R2 for packets coming in from R1 and count those packets
for the new EXP values with a firewall filter as they leave R2.
B. Use the traceroute utility.
C. Use an output filter on R1 that matches and counts on various EXP values on packets going to R2.
D. Use an input firewall filter on R2 that matches and counts on various EXP values on packets
coming from R1.
Answer: C,D

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NO.4 One of your router's OSPF adjacencies is down.
What are three reasons for this adjacency state change? (Choose Three)
A. A filter has just been configured on one of the OSPF routers.
B. The OSPF hello value is the same on both routers.
C. The controlling BFD session state has gone down.
D. The authentication key on both routers matches.
E. One of the physical interfaces has gone down.
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.5 Your OSPF network includes an NSSA. Which LSA type is injected into the NSSA by the ASBR?
A. Type 3
B. Type 5
C. Type 7
D. Type 9
Answer: C

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NO.6 You have recently added LDP-signaled VPLS to your network. The VPLS connections are
established and you have been asked to verify that the forwarding plane is working properly. Which
three commands would you use? (Choose three.)
A. ping mpls Idp <fec>
B. show vpls connections
C. traceroute mpls Idp <fec>
D. show vpls mac-table
E. show Idp statistics
Answer: A,C,D

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10. R1 and R2 are IS-IS Level 1 routers, but are not forming an adjacency.
Which two reasons would account for this happening? (Choose two.)
A. The remote router is configured for both IPv4 and IPv6.
B. The remote router does not have family iso enabled on its interface,
C. The remote router does not have family clns enabled on its interface.
D. The remote router is not configured to participate in the same Level 1 area
Answer: B,D

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NO.7 You have recently implemented a new Layer 2 VPN and it is not establishing. The show I2vpn
connections command displays an out-of-range state.
What is causing this problem?
A. The local site ID value is too high for the label block.
B. The VRF target community values do not match between sites.
C. The VRF route distinguisher values do not match between sites.
D. The local site ID is not defined.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Your currently configured regular expression does not match the AS path shown below:
2135.55 55 55 55 3796
Which three regular expressions would match this path? (Choose three.)
A. "."2135"
B. "2135.*"
C. "* 55(1, 3) *"
D. "2135 55(5) 3796"
E. "2135 55(1, 2) 3796"
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.9 You are asked to retain several routes from an external BGP neighbor in the routing table on
your local router, but you are not allowed to forward traffic to these destinations. You have
configured a forwarding table firewall filter to block these routes, and applied it under the (edit
forwarding-options] hierarchy, but the routes are still showing up in the forwarding table. What is
required to achieve this task?
A. Configure an EBGP import policy on your local router to block the routes.
B. Have the EBGP neighbor configure an export policy to block the routes.
C. Configure an export policy for the forwarding table to block the routes.
D. Use the no-install configuration statement within the EBGP neighbor group on your local router.
Answer: C

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2013年11月26日星期二

Latest Juniper JN0-201 of exam practice questions and answers

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Exam Code: JN0-201
Exam Name: Juniper (Juniper networks Certified internet associate.m(jncia-m))
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Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-26

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NO.1 What are two purposes of the AS_PATH attribute? (Choose two.)
A. route selection
B. loop avoidance
C. determining equal cost paths for reachablilty
D. defining the application of other BGP attributes
Answer: AB

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NO.2 Firewall filters can be used to accept, discard, or reject packets based on _____. (Choose three.)
A. protocol type
B. MAC address
C. TCP or UDP port
D. source and destination IP address
Answer: ACD

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NO.3 Why would you make a non-backbone area a stub or not-so-stubby area?
A. to aggregate routes learned from the ABR
B. to lower the cost of routes advertised by the ABR
C. to connect a non-contiguous area to the backbone
D. to decrease the size of the link-state database in that area
Answer: D

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NO.4 Three IS-IS routers on a broadcast segment have different priority values configured. Which router is
elected the DIS on that broadcast segment?
A. the router with the lowest priority
B. the router with the highest priority
C. the router with the highest System ID
D. the router with the highest IP address
Answer: B

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NO.5 During OSPF adjacency formation, in what state is a router when it is negotiating to be in charge of the
database synchronization process?
A. Init
B. 2Way
C. ExStart
D. Exchange
Answer: C

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NO.6 What are two ways that a valid IBGP peering session can be configured? (Choose two.)
A. via the accept x.x/y command
B. via TCP reachable physical interface addresses
C. via remote loopbacks with the local-address command
D. via UDP with the neighbor x.x.x.x command at the group level
Answer: BC

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NO.7 Assume that a comparable configuration is applied to your peer in AS 11 and that bi-directional TCP
reachability has been achieved. Which EBGP configuration will allow the BGP session to become
established?
A. routing-options { autonomous-system 64; } protocols { bgp { group external-peer11 { type external;
neighbor 10.0.3.6 { peer-as 11; } } }
B. routing-options { autonomous-system 11; } protocols { bgp { group external-peer1 { type external;
peer-as 11;{ neighbor 10.0.3.6; } }
C. routing-options { autonomous-system 11; } protocols { bgp { group external-peer11 { type external;
peer-as 64;{ neighbor 10.0.3.6; } group external-peer11 { type external; peer-as 64;{ neighbor
10.0.3.6; } } type external; peer-as 64;{ neighbor 10.0.3.6; } } peer-as 64;{ neighbor 10.0.3.6; } }
neighbor 10.0.3.6; } }
D. routing-options { }
E. routing-options { autonomous-system 64; }
F. routing-options { autonomous-system 64; }
G. routing-options { autonomous-system 64; } protocols {
H. routing-options { autonomous-system 64; } protocols { bgp { autonomous-system 64; } protocols { bgp
{ group external-peer101 { } protocols { bgp { group external-peer101 { peer-as 101; protocols { bgp
{ group external-peer101 { peer-as 101; neighbor 10.0.3.6; protocols { bgp { group external-peer101
{ peer-as 101; neighbor 10.0.3.6; } bgp { group external-peer101 { peer-as 101; neighbor 10.0.3.6; } }
group external-peer101 { peer-as 101; neighbor 10.0.3.6; } } peer-as 101; neighbor 10.0.3.6; } }
neighbor 10.0.3.6; } } } } }
Answer: A

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NO.8 By default, which command can be used to display information about packets that have been logged
with the syslog firewall filter action?
A. show log
B. show firewall
C. show log messages
D. show firewall log
Answer: C

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NO.9 How often are IS-IS Hello packets transmitted?
A. 3 seconds for DIS; 9 seconds for non-DIS
B. 9 seconds for DIS; 3 seconds for non-DIS
C. 10 seconds for DIS; 3 seconds for non-DIS
D. 10 seconds for all routers
Answer: A

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NO.10 What is the first step in BGP route selection?
A. The local router prefers the route with the shortest AS_PATH.
B. The router first verifies that it has a route to the BGP Next Hop IP address.
C. The local router prefers the route from the peer with the lowest peer ID address.
D. The local router prefers the route learned from an EBGP peer over a route learned from an IBGP peer.
Answer: B

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NO.11 How do you enable interface fe-0/0/0 under the [edit protocols isis] level to form both a Level 1 and
Level 2 adjacency?
A. set interface fe-0/0/0.0
B. set interface fe-0/0/0.0 all level
C. set interface fe-0/0/0.0 level 3 enable
D. set interface fe-0/0/0.0 level 1 level 2
Answer: A

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NO.12 Once the TCP connection is established, which message type initiates the BGP peering process?
A. Open
B. Active
C. Update
D. Keepalive
E. Notification
Answer: A

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NO.13 If all OSPF routers on a broadcast network have the same OSPF priority, what parameter is used to
determine the new BDR at the time of a DR failure?
A. area ID
B. router ID
C. loopback address
D. IP address of interface on broadcast network
Answer: B

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NO.14 Two Level 2 routers are exchanging Hello packets with different Area IDs. What occurs between these
routers?
A. An Adjacency forms.
B. An Adjacency does not form.
C. An Adjacency forms but traffic is not forwarded.
D. No IS-IS PDUs are sent.
Answer: A

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NO.15 What is the purpose of the OSPF link-state update packet?
A. describes a change to the OSPF hello timer
B. carries one or more link-state advertisements
C. establishes and maintains neighbor relationships
D. describes the contents of the entire link-state database
Answer: B

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NO.16 What command would you use to view an IS-IS adjacency?
A. show iso neighbor
B. show isis neighbor
C. show iso adjacency
D. show isis adjacency
Answer: D

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NO.17 What are the three components of the ISO NET address? (Choose three.)
A. Area ID
B. N-selector
C. System ID
D. AS number
E. ISO number
F. MAC address
Answer: ABC

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NO.18 What type of OSPF router is responsible for redistributing routes into OSPF?
A. ABR
B. ASBR
C. internal router
D. backbone router
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which CLI command is used to see the current OSPF link-state database?
A. show ospf database
B. show ospf neighbor
C. show protocols ospf
D. show ospf link-state
Answer: A

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NO.20 A firewall filter is applied as an input filter on a transit interface. What three types of traffic will this affect?
(Chose three.)
A. inbound traffic transiting the router
B. outbound traffic transiting the router
C. traffic destined to the Routing Engine
D. traffic destined to the interface address on which the filter is applied
Answer: ACD

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Exam Code: JN0-522
Exam Name: Juniper (FXV,Associate (JNCIA-FWV))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 160 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-26

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NO.1 Click the Exhibit button. In the exhibit, what is the correct address book entry for host C?
A.set address C 1.1.70.250/32
B.set address Partner C 1.1.70.250
C.set address Partner 1.1.70.250/32
D.set address Partner C 1.1.70.250/32
Answer:D

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NO.2 Which statement is correct about tunnel interfaces?
A.They can have overlapping IP addresses.
B.They need to be configured in the zone where the protected resources reside.
C.They can be unnumbered and used in policy-based translations if the interface is in route mode.
D.They can be unnumbered from any interface residing on the same virtual router as the protected
resources.
Answer:D

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NO.3 You enter the following command: set int e0/8 mip 1.1.8.32 host 10.1.10.32 netmask 255.255.255.255
How many MIP address translations have you just configured?
A.1
B.8
C.128
D.256
Answer:A

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NO.4 What is the purpose of the "Permitted IP" address on a ScreenOS device?
A.It defines a list of addresses that are trusted to perform management on the ScreenOS device.
B.It is used in policy rules to determine which user traffic is allowed through the ScreenOS device.
C.It defines which range of addresses that can access devices connected to the ScreenOS device.
D.It is the address that an external device uses to gain management access to a ScreenOS device.
Answer:A

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NO.5 What needs to be configured in Phase 2 of a route-based VPN, that does not need to be configured in a
policy-based VPN?
A.proxy-id
B.tunnel-binding
C.transport mode
D.custom proposals
Answer:B

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NO.6 Which command can you use to view the log of IKE negotiations and results?
A.get event type 536
B.get ike cookie
C.get sa active
D.debug ike basic
Answer:A

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NO.7 What are two benefits of configuring a ScreenOS device in transparent mode? (Choose two.)
A.There is no need to reconfigure the IP addresses of routers or protected servers.
B.There is no need to create MIPs or VIPs for incoming traffic to reach protected servers.
C.Policies are easier to create since you do not have to include source and destination IP addresses.
D.The product can support more VPNs and obtain greater throughput because there is less overhead to
manage.
Answer:A B

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NO.8 Your VPN tunnel does not pass traffic. You run the get ike cookie command and discover that there is no
cookie. Which two should be verified? (Choose two.)
A.routes
B.Phase 1 configuration options
C.Phase 2 configuration options
D.selected quick mode encryption algorithms
Answer:A B

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NO.9 Click the Exhibit button. Traffic from the Internet to the partner servers must use a VIP. In the exhibit,
what is true about the configuration of this feature?
A.You cannot use a VIP in this environment.
B.The VIP can be configured on the e0/4 interface.
C.The VIP can be configured in the Corporate or Internet zone using a different subnet than the physical
interface.
D.The VIP will work only if the destination ports in the incoming packet headers are mapped to the same
ports in the Corporate zone.
Answer:A

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NO.10 You want to minimize the number of IP addresses, subnets, and policies in use. How should you
configure your tunnel interface?
A.Configure the tunnel interface with an IP address with a 32 bit subnet mask.
B.Configure the tunnel interface with an IP address with a 30 bit subnet mask.
C.Configure the tunnel interface as unnumbered and place the interface in the same zone as the
designated interface.
D.Configure the tunnel interface as unnumbered, but place the tunnel interface in a different zone than the
designated interface.
Answer:C

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NO.11 Click the Exhibit button. In the exhibit, which two forms of address translation would have generated
the output shown? (Choose two.)
A.MIP
B.NAT-src with no DIP
C.Interface-based translation
D.NAT-src with a DIP, fixed-port disabled
Answer:B C

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NO.12 Assuming factory default settings, which statement describes the minimum requirements for WebUI
management access to the SSG 5?
A.Connect a PC addressed on the 192.168.1.0 subnet to any interface, open a browser and access
192.168.1.1.
B.Terminate the bootup sequence from the console device, open a browser on the console device and
access 192.168.1.1.
C.Connect a PC addressed on the 192.168.1.0 subnet, to the highest numbered interface and open a
browser and access 192.168.1.1.
D.Using the CLI, define an IP address on a physical interface, connect a PC to the interface and open a
browser to the interface address.
Answer:C

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NO.13 Which ScreenOS CLI command would be useful for troubleshooting a policy deny?
A.get flow debug
B.debug flow basic
C.exec flow analysis
D.debug session basic
Answer:B

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NO.14 Which ScreenOS CLI command is required to enable a policy during specified times, days, or dates?
A.set time
B.set clock
C.set calendar
D.set scheduler
Answer:D

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NO.15 Click the Exhibit button. In the exhibit, which routing command would allow host A to communicate with
host C? (Note: Assume a route from the SSG 20 to host A's subnet already exists.)
A.set route 0.0.0.0/0 int e0/3 gateway 177.11.56.254
B.set route 1.1.70.0 interface e0/3 gateway 177.11.56.254
C.configure route 1.1.70.0/24 gateway 177.11.56.254 int e0/3
D.set route 1.1.70.0/24 interface e0/3 gateway 177.11.56.254
Answer:D

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NO.16 What is the purpose of the VLAN1 interface?
A.It provides policy-based NAT for 802.1Q VLANs.
B.It provides an interface that can be used with 802.1Q VLANs in transparent mode.
C.It provides the ScreenOS device with a routable IP address while operating in route mode.
D.It provides an interface that can be used to remotely manage the ScreenOS device while operating in
transparent mode.
Answer:D

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NO.17 Which ScreenOS CLI policy statement keyword would enable a policy only during specified times, days,
and/or dates?
A.at
B.calendar
C.schedule
D.scheduler
Answer:C

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NO.18 Which ScreenOS CLI command would be used to view traffic logs?
A.get traffic
B.get log policy
C.get policy log
D.get log traffic
Answer:D

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NO.19 Click the Exhibit button. In the exhibit, if host A initiates a Web browsing session with host D, and the
E0/1 interface of the SSG 20 is in NAT mode, what will be the source address of the packet arriving at
host D?
A.10.1.1.1
B.10.1.10.5
C.143.45.56.1
D.143.45.56.254
Answer:C

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NO.20 Click the Exhibit button. In the exhibit, what is the correct command to configure a default route on the
SSG 20?
A.set route 0.0.0.0/0 vrouter untrust
B.set route 0.0.0.0/0 interface e0/4 gateway 143.45.56.254
C.set route 0.0.0.0/0 interface e0/4 next-hop 143.45.56.254
D.set route 0.0.0.0/0 interface 143.45.56.1 gate 143.45.56.254
Answer:B

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Total Q&A: 171 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-26

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NO.1 You are provisioning a new customer for access to your Layer 3 VPN. The customer is using
172.16.35.0/24 as their internal IP address space, which is also being used by an existing Layer 3 VPN
customer. The two customers share many PE routers in common across your network. Which mechanism
allows these duplicate addresses to exist in your network?
A. route origin
B. route target
C. route refresh
D. route distinguisher
Answer: D

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NO.2 You manage an MPLS network where the PE devices consist of multiple vendors.
You are asked to conceal the MPLS topology for all LSPs.
Which global configuration parameter will accomplish this?
A. Configure no-decrement-ttl on the ingress router only.
B. Configure no-propagate-ttl on the ingress router only.
C. Configure no-decrement-ttl on all routers within the MPLS network.
D. Configure no-propagate-ttl on all routers within the MPLS network.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, which type of traffic protection mechanism is used for the LSP?
A. fast-reroute
B. link-protection
C. node-link-protection
D. secondary
Answer: B

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NO.4 In which two ways does VPLS populate the MAC table? (Choose two.)
A. dynamically using BGP
B. dynamically using the source MAC address on received frames
C. dynamically using LDP
D. statically using CLI
Answer: B, D

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, which MPLS feature was used to make the LSP the preferred path for internal
routes.?
A. traffic engineering bgp-igp
B. traffic engineering shortcuts
C. traffic engineering mpls-forwarding
D. install active
Answer: C

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NO.6 Click the Exhibit button.
On your MX Series router, traffic using the critical scheduler is out of profile. All other data is currently in
profile. Referring to the exhibit, which statement is correct?
A. The critical queue is serviced before the less-critical queue.
B. The critical queue is serviced after the left-over queue.
C. The critical queue is serviced before the data queue.
D. The critical queue is serviced before the voice queue.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which CoS feature supports per-VLAN queuing and scheduling?
A. multilevel scheduling
B. hierarchical scheduling
C. tagged queuing
D. per-instance queuing
Answer: C

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NO.8 Click the Exhibit button.
All routers in the exhibit are running IS-IS level 2 routing. The wide-metrics-only parameter is configured
on all routers. Which metric does R1 see for the path to R4?
A. 136
B. 138
C. 310
D. 320
Answer: D

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NO.9 Click the Exhibit button.
Given the drop profile in the exhibit, what is the drop probability when the buffer reaches 90% full?
A. 60%
B. 70%
C. 85%
D. 90%
Answer: B

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NO.10 Click the Exhibit button.
You are asked to configure an OSPF network based on the topology shown in the exhibit. You must keep
the link-state database in Area 1 as small as possible. What will accomplish this?
A. Area 0 should be configured as a stub area so that it will not announce routes into Area 1.
B. Area 1 should be configured as an NSSA to limit the size of the link-state database.
C. Area 1 should be configured as a stub area with no-summaries to limit the size of the link-state
database.
D. Area 0 should be configured with a virtual link to R4 to limit the size of the Area 1 link-state database.
Answer: C

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NO.11 Click the Exhibit button.
As shown in the exhibit, you have an adaptive LSP that requires 85 Mbps. The LSP is configured with a
primary path and a secondary path in standby mode. All connections in the MPLS network are Fast
Ethernet. Which statement is correct?
A. The primary and secondary paths are in an up state and operational.
B. The primary and secondary paths are in a down state and not operational.
C. The secondary path is in a down state and not operational.
D. The primary path is in a down state and not operational.
Answer: A

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NO.12 You are the administrator for a network that uses IBGP. As the network grows, you must examine
options to support increased scale.
Which two scaling options should you consider? (Choose two.)
A. route reflection
B. areas
C. zones
D. confederations
Answer: B, C

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NO.13 Which two statements are true about OSPFv3? (Choose two.)
A. OSPFv3 uses a 32-bit router ID to uniquely identify a node in the network.
B. OSPFv3 uses a 128-bit router ID to uniquely identify a node in the network.
C. OSPFv3 routes are always preferred over OSPFv2 routes for all traffic.
D. OSPFv3 and OSPFv2 can be configured at the same time.
Answer: A, D

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NO.14 Your are the administrator for a network that uses IS-IS as its IGP. As the network grows, you find that
the protocol's default capabilities for setting metrics is limiting your options. Which feature can you
implement to provide a larger range of metric configuration capabilities?
A. extended metrics
B. wide metrics
C. expanded metrics
D. full metrics
Answer: D

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NO.15 Click the Exhibit button.
All networks shown in the exhibit contain more than one BGP speaking router. You operate ISP A.
You must ensure that customer Y sends their traffic to you over the directly connected link but customer Y
is not used for transit into your network. What do you do to accomplish this? A. Advertise routes to
customer Y with the well-known no-transit community.
B. Advertise routes to customer X with the well-known no-advertise community.
C. Advertise routes to customer Y with the well-known no-export community.
D. Advertise routes to customer X with the well-known as-transit community.
Answer: C

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NO.16 Click the Exhibit button.
Based on the configuration in the exhibit, which statement is correct?
A. The 172.20.20.0/24 route is installed in the inet.0 table with the next hop of the LSP.
B. The 172.20.20.0/24 route is installed in the mpls.0 table with the next hop of the LSP.
C. The 172.20.20.0/24 route is installed in the inet.3 table with the next hop of the LSP.
D. The 172.20.20.0/24 route is installed in the inet6.3 table with the next hop of the LSP.
Answer: C

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NO.17 Your multicast receivers are indirectly connected to an MX Series router. The receivers need to join
multicast group 224.2.2.2. What must be configured in IGMP to receive report messages from receivers
that are multiple hops away?
A. By default, IGMP accepts report messages from indirectly connected receivers.
B. Promiscuous mode must be enabled in IGMP.
C. Promiscuous mode must be disabled in IGMP.
D. DVMRP protocol must be configured.
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which operational mode command displays the number of configured forwarding classes?
A. show interfaces queue ge-1/0/0
B. show interfaces terse
C. show class-of-service interface
D. show forwarding classes
Answer: A

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NO.19 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, Area 1 is a not-so-stubby area.
Three networks are redistributed into Area 1 on R2.
You must summarize the redistributed network addresses in Area 1 so that only one network prefix is
re-advertised into Area 0. You must also summarize the loopback addresses of R1 and R2 into a single
address in Area 0.Which configuration sample on R3 and R5 will complete this task?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: C

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NO.20 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, ISP A is charged a higher rate for traffic sent to R2. You are asked to lower costs for ISP A
by configuring R1 to send traffic to R3 whenever possible.
What are two ways to do this? (Choose two.)
A. set protocols bgp group isp-b neighbor 192.0.2.6 local-preference 120
B. set protocols bgp group isp-b neighbor 192.0.2.6 local-preference 80
C. set protocols bgp group isp-b neighbor 192.0.2.10 local-preference 120
D. set protocols bgp group isp-b neighbor 192.0.2.10 local-preference 80
Answer: B, C

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2013年11月13日星期三

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NO.1 By default, where are changes stored when a save command is issued from the CLI during a
management session?
A.NVRAM
B.internal flash
C.PCMCIA card
D.Compact Flash Card
Answer: B

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NO.2 When a firewall receives the first packet in a series, what will it immediately do?
A.Check its route table.
B.Check its session table.
C.Determine if traffic is crossing zones.
D.Verify that it is not malformed or a fragment.
Answer: D

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NO.3 What are two benefits of configuring a ScreenOS device in transparent mode? (Choose two.)
A.There is no need to reconfigure the IP addresses of routers or protected servers.
B.There is no need to create MIPs or VIPs for incoming traffic to reach protected servers.
C.Policies are easier to create since you do not have to include source and destination IP addresses.
D.The product can support more VPNs and obtain greater throughput because there is less overhead to
manage.
Answer: AB

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NO.4 A ScreenOS firewall is running in transparent mode. The firewall receives a packet which has no entry
in its forwarding table.
What will the firewall do?
A.Flood out all ports.
B.Check its route table for interzone destination.
C.Perform a policy lookup to determine the interfaces to which the source address is permitted, and flood
the packet out of those interfaces.
D.Perform a policy lookup to determine the zones to which the source address is permitted, and flood the
packet out the interfaces bound to those zones.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, which interface would be used to forward traffic to host 1.1.7.5?
A.e0/1
B.e0/2
C.e0/3
D.e0/4
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which statement accurately describes the "config rollback" feature?
A.Once the "config rollback" feature is enabled, it allows the administrator to re-apply a previously saved
configuration file from flash.
B.The "config rollback" feature is enabled by default, it allows the administrator to re-apply a previously
saved configuration file from flash.
C.Once the "config rollback" feature is enabled, it allows the administrator to re-apply a locked
configuration file from a separate area in flash.
D.Once the "config rollback" feature is enabled, it allows the administrator to revert to the prior ScreenOS
image or configuration file in the event an upgrade operation aborts.
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is the purpose of the VLAN1 interface?
A.It provides policy-based NAT for 802.1Q VLANs.
B.It provides an interface that can be used with 802.1Q VLANs in transparent mode.
C.It provides the ScreenOS device with a routable IP address while operating in route mode.
D.It provides an interface that can be used to remotely manage the ScreenOS device while operating in
transparent mode.
Answer: D

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NO.8 In the packet forwarding decision process, how is the second packet handled differently than the first
in a series of allowed interzone packets?
A.The second packet causes an ARP query.
B.The second packet is checked against the policy table.
C.The second packet is forwarded without a sanity check.
D.The second packet is forwarded without checking the route table.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, which two forms of address translation would have generated the output shown? (Choose
two.)
A.MIP
B.NAT-src with no DIP
C.Interface-based translation
D.NAT-src with a DIP, fixed-port disabled
Answer: BC

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NO.10 What is the purpose of the "Permitted IP" address on a ScreenOS device?
A.It defines a list of addresses that are trusted to perform management on the ScreenOS device.
B.It is used in policy rules to determine which user traffic is allowed through the ScreenOS device.
C.It defines which range of addresses that can access devices connected to the ScreenOS device.
D.It is the address that an external device uses to gain management access to a ScreenOS device.
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which process describes how an addressed physical interface is moved into a Layer 2 zone?
A.Place the required interface into the VLAN zone.
B.Place the required interface into L2 zones such as V1-Trust, V1-Untrust
C.Remove the interface from the L3 zone such as Trust and place it into a L2 zone such as V1-Trust
D.Remove the address from the interface, remove the interface from the L3 zone, and then place
interface in the L2 zone.
Answer: D

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NO.12 Telnet management has been enabled on an interface in the untrust zone.
What else should be completed to limit telnet access to the ScreenOS device from trusted management
PCs?
A.Define a permitted IP address.
B.Define a policy from trust to untrust.
C.Define a trusted IP in the address table.
D.Define a manage IP address on this interface.
Answer: A

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NO.13 When changes are made to the running config during a WebUI management session, to what external
hardware component can the changes be saved?
A.FTP server
B.TFTP server
C.PC local disk
D.Compact Flash Card
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which command would you run to check IPSec Phase 1 active status?
A.get sa
B.get event 427
C.get sa active
D.get ike cookie
Answer: D

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NO.15 By default, from which hardware component is the startup copy of the ScreenOS loaded?
A.NVRAM
B.TFTP server
C.internal flash
D.PCMCIA card
Answer: C

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NO.16 You are configuring an interface in the untrust zone with an IP address, telnet enabled, and WebUI
management.
Which sequence of steps must be performed to make the interface operational at the end of the
configuration sequence?
A.Assign the interface to a zone, define the IP address, enable Web and telnet services.
B.Assign the interface to a zone, define the IP address, accept default management services.
C.Assign the interface to a virtual router, define the IP address, enable Web and telnet services.
D.Assign the interface to a zone, define the IP address, define a manage IP address, accept default
management services.
Answer: A

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NO.17 When managing a ScreenOS device using the WebUI and performing an image upgrade, from which
hardware component will the ScreenOS image be loaded?
A.TFTP server
B.PC local disk
C.internal flash
D.Compact Flash Card
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which statement is correct regarding administrator privileges?
A.Any administrator can change their privileges on an as-needed basis.
B.Administrator privileges can only be established and changed by the root administrator.
C.Administrator privileges can be established and changed by the root and all-privilege administrator.
D.Administrator privileges can only be established by the root and can be changed by the root and
all-privilege administrator.
Answer: B

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NO.19 An operational firewall needs a configuration loaded and executed while it is passing user data.
Which CLI command will perform this process without interrupting traffic?
A.save config from tftp 1.1.7.250 15June06.cfg to flash
B.save config from tftp 1.1.7.250 15June06.cfg to ram
C.save config from tftp 1.1.7.250 15June06.cfg merge
D.save config from tftp 1.1.7.250 15June06.cfg to flash
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which command is used when configuring web management on the VLAN1 interface for a client
connected to an e3 interface in the DMZ zone?
A.set int eth3 manage web
B.set zone v1-dmz manage web
C.set int dmz zone manage web
D.set int VLAN1 zone dmz manage web
Answer: B

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NO.21 Which type of NAT is performed when you implement interface-based NAT?
A.source IP address translation
B.destination IP address translation
C.source IP and port address translation
D.destination IP and port address translation
Answer: C

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NO.22 When performing an image upgrade using the CLI, which three locations would be a source for this
image? (Choose three.)
A.FTP server
B.TFTP server
C.internal flash
D.PC local disk
E.Compact Flash Card
Answer: BCE

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NO.23 A ScreenOS firewall has the correct interfaces addressed and active. A policy is written allowing
interzone FTP traffic from a directly connected client. But the traffic does not cross the firewall from the
client to the server.
What is the most likely problem with the firewall?
A.The ScreenOS firewall has no physical connection to the FTP server.
B.The ALG option on the ScreenOS firewall has not been enabled for FTP traffic.
C.The ScreenOS firewall does not have a route defined to the FTP servers' subnet.
D.The ScreenOS firewall does not have a route defined to the FTP clients subnet.
Answer: C

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NO.24 Which two statements are true in regards to a ScreenOS firewall in transparent mode? (Choose two.)
A.VPNs can terminate to the VLAN1 interface IP address.
B.Static routes must be configured if multiple virtual routers are going to be used.
C.It can be installed in a network without the requirement to reconfigure IP addressing schemes.
D.You must use the console port to manage the device as you cannot manage the device using an
Ethernet port.
Answer: AC

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NO.25 You are looking at the event log of the responding device and it says,
"Rejected an initial Phase 1 packet from an unrecognized peer gateway"
What are three likely reasons for the failure? (Choose three.)
A.The peer ID is misconfigured.
B.The default gateway is missing.
C.The preshare keys are mismatched.
D.The gateway address is misconfigured.
E.The outgoing interface is misconfigured.
Answer: ADE

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NO.26 What will change the root admin password?
A.set admin password
B.set root-admin password
C.set admin password
D.set admin user password
Answer: A

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NO.27 Which ScreenOS WebUI button reorders policies?
A.Shift
B.Move
C.Reorder
D.Transfer
Answer: B

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NO.28 In the command, save config from tftp 1.1.7.250 abcd.cfg merge, which function does the merge
parameter specify?
A.The config file from the TFTP server will replace the configuration in RAM.
B.The config file from the TFTP server will replace the startup configuration file in internal flash.
C.The merge parameter is not valid for TFTP files, it is only valid for configuration files stored in internal
flash.
D.The config file from the TFTP server will be combined with the configuration file in RAM and the
combined result will be saved in internal flash.
Answer: D

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NO.29 What is the purpose of the "Manage-IP" address on a ScreenOS device?
A.It defines a list of addresses that are trusted to perform management on the ScreenOS device.
B.It is used in policy rules to determine which device is allowed to manage the ScreenOS device.
C.It is the address that an external device uses to gain management access to a ScreenOS device.
D.It defines a list of device addresses that can manage the ScreenOS device without being authenticated
prior to session establishment.
Answer: C

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NO.30 When configuring a firewall in a critical environment where a local backup configuration is quickly
needed, what should be completed on a periodic basis?
A.Execute exec config rollback.
B.Execute save config to last-known-good.
C.Execute save regularly or create a script that does this.
D.Execute save software from flash to pcmcia .
Answer: B

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Exam Code: JN0-321
Exam Name: Juniper (DX, Associate(JNCIA-DX))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-13

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NO.1 An enterprise uses a Webtiered application that provides NTLM enduserauthentication.What is the
required Cluster option?
A. DSR
B. Connect Method
C. Connection Binding
D. Sticky Load Balancing
Answer: C

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NO.2 A health care organization has a Juniper DX placed in front of a web server. Theycurrently have
listensideSSL enabled to encrypt traffic from the client to the DX appliance. Due to privacyconcerns, they
havedecided to enable SSL from the client to the server for endtoend SSL. Which twosteps are required
toenable endtoend encryption? (Choose two).
A. Disable clientside SSL on the DX and enable Unified SSL.
B. Enable targetside SSL on the DX.
C. Configure a Redirector on the DX to redirect browsers to the HTTPS port.
D. Enable SSL on the web server.
Answer: BD

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NO.3 Your administrator wants to centralize logs from the DX appliance and Cluster. Whichtwo protocols
areavailable to export those logs? (Choose two.)
A. SMTP
B. syslog
C. SCP
D. TFTP
Answer: BC

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NO.4 What do you need to upgrade the DXOS?
A. an upgrade .tar file placed on your SCP server
B. an upgrade CD provided by your Juniper Networks representative
C. an upgrade .pac file placed on your TFTP or SCP server
D. an upgrade .gz file placed on your FTP server
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which two are initial configuration steps using the console? (Choose two.)
A. Enable HTTPS for WebUI access.
B. Agree to the license.
C. Configure fullyqualified domain name.
D. Configure console port parameters.
Answer: BC

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NO.6 Which three statements are correct using nitro.apprule on any web application? (Choosethree.)
A. Nitro.apprule provides advance http security on HTTPS applications.
B. Nitro.apprule provides caching on HTTP and HTTPS applications.
C. Nitro.apprule provides transaction guarantee on HTTP application.
D. Nitro.apprule improves client response time on HTTP applications.
E. Nitro.apprule provides advanced authentication on HTTPS applications.
Answer: ABD

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NO.7 Which HTTP return code should be verified when configuring the cache?
A. 302
B. 200
C. 304
D. 501
Answer: B

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NO.8 In which section of the WebUI does the administrator create and apply AppRules?
A. SLB
B. Cluster
C. Forwarder
D. Redirector
Answer: B

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NO.9 An enterprise has an internal web application that needs stickiness managed by aCluster. All
employeesaccess the application through a proxy. What is the correct sticky load balancing policy?
A. url persistency
B. cookie persistency
C. urlhash
D. default persistency
Answer: B

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NO.10 In the WebUI, which method will determine if a Cluster target host is available?
A. Click Statistics > Cluster Groups
B. Click Dashboard > Cluster group name
C. Click Services > Cluster Groups
D. Click Log > Audit
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which protocols are used to export and import configurations?
A. TFTP or SCP
B. TFTP or SMTP
C. FTP or SCP
D. FTP or TFTP
Answer: A

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NO.12 When running SSL on a nonweb application, where are the secure connections made?
A. between the client and the DX appliance and between the DX appliance and the target servers
B. directly between the client and the target server(s)
C. between the client and the DX appliance
D. between the DX appliance and the target server(s)
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which two functions require the use of the CLI? (Choose two.)
A. running a tcpdump
B. adding a VLAN
C. adding a cluster
D. adding a target server
Answer: AB

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NO.14 Which two benefits does the Juniper DX provide? (Choose two.)
A. It offloads TCP connections from servers.
B. It spools email messages.
C. It offloads SSL from servers.
D. It compresses images.
Answer: AC

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NO.15 Which AppRule type is used to configure 3G caching?
A. PTH
B. RS
C. RTH
D. PTC
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which CLI command is used for analysis and troubleshooting of real time trafficcapture?
A. tcpdump
B. show server stats
C. tsdump
D. vmstat
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which system elements are exported when using the system snapshot feature?
A. tsdump, tcpdump, current debug and memory states
B. current memory states
C. system process data, system logs, system debug statistics and system passkeys
D. system software, users, configuration, licenses, app rules, SSL certificates and keys
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which steps are required to use the Juniper DXs ActiveN functionality?
A. Enable DSR for your cluster, create ActiveN blades, create ActiveN groups and addblades,
enableActiveN, synchronize configuration.
B. Disable DSR for your cluster, create ActiveN blades, create ActiveN groups and addblades,
enableActiveN, synchronize configuration.
C. Enable DSR for your cluster, create ActiveN blades, create ActiveN groups and addblades,
selectActiveN load balancing policy, enable sticky.
D. Disable DSR for your cluster, create ActiveN blades, create ActiveN groups and addblades,
selectActiveN load balancing policy, enable sticky.
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which statement is true about "sticky" load balancing for Clusters?
A. The "clientip" setting does not apply to clusters, it only pertains to a Forwarder.
B. When set to "clientip" it uses the client's IP address to bind the client to a particular target server.
C. When set to "clientip" it ensures that all subsequent requests are directed to the same client that made
the initial request.
D. When set to "clientip" it allows a DX sticky cookie to be sent to and stored by the client based on the IP
address.
Answer: B

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NO.20 In the Juniper DX Unified Failover configuration, the VMAC is active on whichdevice(s)?
A. The Standby DX(s)
B. The Master DX and the Active Server(s)
C. The Master DX
D. All DXs in the Unified Failover group
Answer: C

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