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Exam Code: 50-890
Exam Name: Novell (Novell network management:netware 6.5)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 191 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-14

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NO.1 Which statements are true regarding subordinate reference replicas? (Choose 2)
A.There can be multiple subordinate references per partition.
B.Subordinate references must reside on every server in the tree.
C.Subordinate references link a parent partition with its child partition.
D.Subordinate references can be changed to be a master replica without losing any information.
E.Subordinate references should be removed to help reduce traffic across the communication channel.
Correct:A C

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NO.2 In Public Key Cryptography, the _____________ key is used to decrypt an encrypted
transmission. Answer:
A.PRIVATE
Correct:A

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NO.3 Click the Point and Click button to begin. Click the Server Management Console management
task you would use to recover a forgotten pass phrase.
Correct:

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NO.4 You just deleted the DATA volume from your NetWare 6.5 server. You realize that this was a
mistake and you need to restore it. By default, how long do you have before the volume is
automatically purged?
A.12 hours
B.36 hours
C.48 hours
D.72 hours
E.96 hours
F.It's too late, the volume has been purged. You must recreate it and restore data from a back up device.
Correct:E

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NO.5 In which container is the organizational CA object found in your eDirectory tree?
A.KAP
B.NMAS
C.[ROOT]
D.Security
E.The same container where the server has been installed.
Correct:D

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NO.6 Which parameter allows you to set the location in your eDirectory tree where user accounts
exist, allowing older versions of the Novell Client that aren't directory-aware to authenticate to the
server?
A.User Context
B.Primary Server
C.Bindery Context
D.Preferred Server
E.Emulation Context
F.Compatibility Mode Driver
G.NetWare 3 Emulation Mode
Correct:C

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NO.7 Deployment Manager fails when run from the NetWare 6.5 Operating System CD on your
Windows 2000 Professional workstation with Novell Client 4.83 installed. What is the cause?
A.Deployment Manager requires Windows XP Home edition.
B.Deployment Manager is not compatible with Novell Client 4.83.
C.You must upgrade to Internet Explorer 6.0 or later on the workstation.
D.Deployment Manager is not compatible with Windows 2000 Professional.
E.Deployment Manager must be installed on the workstation before running the program.
F.The version of Deployment Manager on the Operating System CD only runs on Windows 95/98
workstations.
Correct:B

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NO.8 You recently completed a Remote Upgrade to NetWare 6.5 on a server located in your
organization's Baltimore, MD. office. You realize that you forgot to install MySQL on the server
during the upgrade. Which NetWare utilities can you use to remotely install this product? (Choose
2)
A.iMonitor
B.iManager
C.ConsoleOne
D.Deployment Manager
E.NetWare Administrator
F.NetWare GUI Install utility using Remote Manager
Correct:D F

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NO.9 In a time provider group, which server carries the most weight when voting on a time?
A.Master
B.Primary
C.Reference
D.Secondary
E.Single reference
Correct:C

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NO.10 Which is an example of the single reference time synchronization method for a network that
has 15 NetWare 6 servers?
A.1 primary time server and 14 secondary time servers
B.2 primary time servers and 13 secondary time servers
C.1 single reference time server and 14 secondary time servers
D.2 single reference time servers and 13 secondary time servers
E.1 reference time server, 2 primary time servers, and 12 secondary time servers
F.1 single reference time server, 1 primary time server, and 13 secondary time servers
Correct:C

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NO.11 Which time server type adjusts its clock 50% per polling interval?
A.Master
B.Primary
C.Secondary
D.Reference
E.Single reference
F.Secondary reference
Correct:B

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NO.12 Which statements about using both SLP and configured lists for time synchronization are true?
(Choose 2)
A.Using both adds extra traffic on the network.
B.Using both provides fault tolerance for time synchronization.
C.Time doesn't synchronize if both SLP and configured lists are used.
D.Using both allows IP and IPX servers to synchronize with each other.
E.Using both shortens the amount of time it takes to synchronize time throughout the network.
Correct:A B

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NO.13 You are upgrading a NetWare 6.0 server to NetWare 6.5. What command should you use to
mount the NetWare 6.5 Operating System CD as a volume on your NetWare 6.0 server?
A.CD MOUNT ALL
B.LOAD NTFS.NLM
C.LOAD NTFS.NSS
D.LOAD CDROM.NSS
E.LOAD CD9660.NSS
F.LOAD CD9660.NLM
G.LOAD ISO9660.NSS
H.LOAD ISO9660.NLM
I.MOUNT -T ISO9660
Correct:E

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NO.14 You want to upgrade a NetWare 6 server with Support Pack 2 to NetWare 6.5. The server
hardware uses a Pentium III 500 MHz Celeron CPU, 512 MB RAM, an 8 GB hard disk drive with a
200 MB DOS partition, and a USB mouse. Can this server be upgraded?
A.Yes, the server meets all prerequisite requirements.
B.No, NetWare 6.5 requires a PIII 750 MHz CPU or later.
C.No, NetWare 6.5 isn't compatible with Celeron processors.
D.No, the server's CPU is too slow and the hard disk drive is too small.
E.No, the server's DOS partition is too small and USB mice aren't supported.
F.No, the server doesn't have enough RAM and must have Support Pack 3 or later applied.
G.No, the server's DOS partition is too small and must have Support Pack 3 or later applied.
Correct:G

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NO.15 What is another name for the server certificate?
A.WEP key
B.Key material object
C.Certificate authority
D.Certificate signing request
Correct:B

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NO.16 Your organization is implementing an e-commerce web site where external customers can shop
for and purchase products. It's imperative that you establish a secure web site to do this. Which
type of certificate authority should you use?
A.Public Certificate Authority
B.Internal Certificate Authority
C.External Certificate Authority
D.Integrated Certificate Authority
Correct:C

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NO.17 Click the Exhibit button. You've configured your NetWare 6.5 server to function as a Dynamic
NAT router between two network segments, as shown in the exhibit. The workstations on the
private segment are running Windows 2000. The workstations on the public segment are running
Windows XP. A user on the public segment whose IP address is 209.5.1.2 wants to access a
shared folder on a workstation installed on the private segment whose IP address is 10.0.0.2. Will
the user be able to accomplish this?
A.No, Dynamic NAT doesn't support Windows shared folders.
B.No, Dynamic NAT isn't supported by Windows 2000 systems.
C.No, you must issue the SET ALLOW DYNAMIC PASSTHRU=ON command on the server first.
D.Yes, Dynamic NAT routing allows bi-directional shared folder access between segments.
E.No, Dynamic NAT doesn't allow hosts on the public segment to access hosts on the private segment.
Correct:E

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NO.18 Which command will enable Transition Tracking System (TTS) on an NSS volume named DATA?
A.TTS
B.NSS /TTS=DATA
C.TTS VOLUME=DATA
D.NSS /TRANSACTION=DATA
E.NSS /TRANSACTIONTRACKING=DATA
Correct:D

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NO.19 You are a regional network administrator remotely upgrading a NetWare 5.1 server to NetWare
6.5. The NetWare 5.1 server has 512 MB of RAM, a 180 GB RAID 5 disk array with a 1 GB DOS
partition, and Support Pack 6 installed. Your user object has the Supervisor right to the container
where the server resides and the Browse right to the root of the tree. Will the upgrade be
successful?
A.No, the DOS partition is too small.
B.No, the server doesn't have enough RAM.
C.Yes, the system meets all prerequisite requirements.
D.No, you must have the Supervisor right to the root of the tree.
E.No, you must first install Support Pack 7 on the NetWare 5.1 server.
F.No, you can't remotely upgrade a server that uses a RAID disk array.
G.No, you can't perform a Remote Upgrade on a NetWare 5.1 server. You must use an In-Place Upgrade.
Correct:D

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NO.20 You're configuring an SLP Directory Agent on your NetWare 6.5 server. You want to statically
configure your server to communicate with another Directory Agent whose IP address is 10.0.0.4.
This server resides on a different network segment than your server. Which of the following is the
correct command to enter in the SLP.CFG file to accomplish this?
A.DA=10.0.0.4
B.SLPDA=10.0.0.4
C.DA IPV4 10.0.0.4
D.DA IPV4, 10.0.0.4
E.SLPDA IPV4 10.0.0.4
F.SLPDA IPV4, 10.0.0.4
Correct:D

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Exam Code: 50-V37
Exam Name: Novell (CSE RSA enVision Essentials (new update))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 97 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-14

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NO.1 When planning an RSA enVision installation, which statements below about the Site Name are
important considerations? (Check two answers.)
A.The Site Name must match an enVision domain name
B.The Site Name must be unique within an enVision domain and cannot be the same as the customer's
NetBIOS domain name
C.The Site Name must not contain any numeric or punctuation characters
D.The Site Name must have the same suffix as the Windows domain in which it resides
E.The Site Name must not match the name of any existing Windows domain in the network
Answer:B E

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NO.2 If a customer has a specific syslog that they would like to use as part of a demonstration, you can load it
into enVision for reporting and querying using which of the following? (Check the one best answer.)
A.The lsdata utility to import the syslog file
B.Copying the syslog file into the IPDB data directory
C.Using the Data Injector utility to collect data from the syslog file
D.Using the Custom Reports ?View External Data function of the administrative GUI
Answer:C

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NO.3 When would you expect a difference between the log information captured by RSA enVision and the
log information generated by a device? (Check the one best answer.)
A.When the source IP address of the device is unknown to enVision.
B.When the device is configured to send only certain events to syslog.
C.When "Collect All Logs" is left unchecked in the Manage Devices screen.
D.When the device is a known device and enVision recognizes the events to be non-critical.
Answer:B

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NO.4 After creating a customized Report Menu system, which RSA enVision service(s) need to be re-started?
A.Only the NIC Webserver Service
B.The NIC Webserver and NIC Server Services
C.The NIC Webserver, NIC Server and NIC Locator Services
D.The NIC Webserver, NIC Server, NIC Locator, and NIC Packager Services
Answer:A

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NO.5 The UDS development process involves which of the following tasks? (Check two answers.)
A.Verifying XML syntax and parsing
B.Using XML to convert device logs to IPDB format
C.Mapping a device name to an existing enVision device
D.Creating an XML file to define header and message information
Answer:A D

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NO.6 When opening a connection in Event Explorer, you can define which of the following features? (Check
the three correct answers.)
A.Devices
B.Event categories
C.Log messages
D.Time frame
E.Local collector
Answer:A B D

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NO.7 Which RSA enVision module is used to configure the enVision system as well as to monitor its health
and performance? (Check the one best answer.)
A.Overview module
B.Alerts Module
C.Analysis Module
D.Reports Module
Answer:A

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NO.8 In RSA enVision UDS development, Value Maps, Regular Expressions, and Functions are types of
which of the following? (Check the one best answer.)
A.Data Reduction
B.XML Parsing Rules
C.Conditional Variables
D.Summary Data Buckets
Answer:C

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NO.9 What does RSA enVision do when it is set to auto-discover new devices? (Check the one best answer.)
A.Adds new supported devices automatically to the list of monitored devices in the Manage Monitored
Devices screen
B.Temporarily holds in the "New Device" cache and begins to collect data after it is approved by an
administrator
C.RSA enVision alerts members of the "administrators" group to add a new device to the list of monitored
devices
D.RSA enVision automatically exports device attributes to an XML file for an administrator to review
Answer:A

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NO.10 When creating a new enVision user account, which User Group is the account added to by default?
(Check the one best answer.)
A.Report-users
B.Administrators
C.Temporary-users
D.All-applications-users
Answer:D

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NO.11 In the RSA enVision UDS process, what is the purpose of performing Data Reduction steps? (Check the
one best answer.)
A.Improve speed and efficiency of data processing
B.Compress unsupported device data prior to storage
C.Apply ISO-approved abbreviations to message text strings
D.Decrease the rate that unsupported device data is collected
Answer:A

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NO.12 Why would the checkbox of a device type be grayed out On the Manage Device Types screen? (Check
the one best answer.)
A.It's not licensed
B.Device is unknown but data can be collected
C.Device is known but not compatible with enVision
D.Device is associated with a monitored device within the NIC domain
Answer:D

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NO.13 What are three steps that are part of the device interpretation process using UDS? (Check the three
best answers.)
A.Configure devices to send log data to RSA enVision
B.Device identification (i.e. vendor, device name, class, sub-class, etc.)
C.Identification of device collection method
D.Message definition
E.List of known vulnerabilities
F.Data parsing
Answer:B D F

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NO.14 The administrator can use the RSA enVision's user authentication feature to complete what tasks?
(Check two answers.)
A.Use an existing Microsoft Active Directory authentication server
B.Associate administrative users with an authentication server
C.Require enVision users to change passwords on a periodic basis
D.Enforce a pre-defined set of 'prohibited passwords' based on a dictionary file
E.Utilize existing domain authenticated user accounts as the basis for enVision user accounts
Answer:A E

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NO.15 When setting up a Check Point firewall device, which of the following is a good practice that should be
completed first? (Check the one best answer.)
A.Stop and restart the Check Point Firewall Service
B.Stop and restart the enVision NIC Collector Service
C.Verify that the Check Point Log Viewer is receiving events
D.Set an 8-character key to establish an authenticated connection
Answer:C

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NO.16 What two tasks does UDS complete when the command "uds reate" is executed to create a device?
(Check the two best answers.)
A.Creates the files .ini, client.txt, vendor.txt and msg.xml
B.Immediately starts collecting data from the new device
C.Identifies all associated devices that have been configured
D.Create all directory structures required for the device
E.Lists all devices to verify that the device does not already exist
Answer:A D

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NO.17 When initially setting up a multiple appliance site, only the D-SRV unit is connected to a LAN ?all of the
other units in the site then connect directly to the D-SRV.
A.True
B.False
Answer:B

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NO.18 True or false. If a conflict exists with the default enVision collection port after appliance installation, the
Collector Service can be modified to configure event collection on a different port.
A.True
B.false
Answer:A

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NO.19 How many Remote Collectors (RC) can each Database Server (D-SRV) support? (Check the one best
answer.)
A.Eight (8)
B.Ten (10)
C.Sixteen (16)
D.Thirty two (32)
Answer:C

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NO.20 What happens if an event source device type is not immediately recognized by RSA enVision? (Check
the one best answer.)
A.It will be defined as "unknown" and for a limited time enVision will collect event data it generates
B.Data from that device will be discarded until the device type can be defined
C.An alert is generated by default to call an administrator's attention to the device
D.The UDS Service will create a parsing XML file for the device and place data in the NIC Parse Cache
Answer:A

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Exam Code: 050-730
Exam Name: Novell (Certified Novell Identity Manager Administrator)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 117 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-14

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NO.1 When using Designer, a perspective is a collection of related views and editors. Which perspective
should be open the first time you run the application?
A. Debug perspective
B. Designer perspective
C. Java/Java Browsing perspective
D. Java Type Hierarchy perspective
E. Plug-in Development perspective
Answer: B

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NO.2 When using Designer, which modeling mode is used to do all low-level operations with driver sets,
drivers, policies and applications?
A. Table Mode
B. System Mode
C. DataFlow Mode
D. Architect Mode
E. Developer Mode
Answer: E

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NO.3 What is the minimum RAM system requirement for Designer?
A. 128 MB
B. 256 MB
C. 512 MB
D. 1024 MB
E. 2048 MB
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which statement is true.?
A. When an event occurs in the Identity Vault, Identity Manager creates an XML document that describes
the Identity Vault event and submits it through the Publisher channel to a driver shim.
B. When an event occurs in the Identity Vault, Identity Manager creates an XML document that describes
the Identity Vault event and submits it through the Subscriber channel to a driver shim.
C. When an event occurs in a connected system, Identity Manager creates an XML document that
describes the Identity Vault event and submits it through the Subscriber channel to a driver shim.
D. When an event occurs in the Identity Vault, a driver shim creates an XML document that describes the
Identity Vault event and submits it through the Subscriber channel to Identity Manager.
E. When an event occurs in a connected system, a Driver Shim creates an XML document that describes
the Identity Vault event and submits it through the Subscriber channel to Identity Manager.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which view enables you to view the filters that allow the data to flow between all of the systems and
the Identity Vaults as well as view how passwords flow through the different systems?
A. Project view
B. Outline view
C. Dataflow view
D. Navigator view
E. Policy Set view
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which statements are true? (Choose 2.)
A. When an event is being sent to a driver, it is a notification.
B. When an event is being sent to a driver, it is a command.
C. When an event is being sent to Identity Manager, it is a command.
D. When an event is being sent to Identity Manager, it is a notification.
E. Events and commands are handled the same way within an IDM 4 environment.
Answer: B,D

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NO.7 Which task within Novell iManager allows administrators to view all objects that are associated with a
particular Novell IDM driver?
A. Object Inspector
B. Driver Inspector
C. DriverSet Inspector
D. Driver Cache Inspector
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which view do you use to access Policy Simulator? (Choose 2.)
A. The Tasks view
B. The Outline view
C. The Project view
D. The Navigator view
E. The Policy Flow view
Answer: B,E

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NO.9 When data changes in the Identity Vault or a connected application, which processes the changes?
A. Drivers
B. Remote Loader
C. Identity Vault
D. Metadirectory Engine
E. Connected application
Answer: D

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NO.10 An Identity Manager Job can only interact with which driver channel?
A. Input
B. Sender
C. Output
D. Receiver
E. Publisher
F. Placement
G. Subscriber
Answer: G

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NO.11 Identity Manager uses a MetaDirectory Engine to process Identity Vault data and events. What
component assures changes in the Identity Vault are not lost if a connected system goes offline?
A. Partition
B. Obit flag
C. Change Log
D. Event Cache
Answer: D

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NO.12 What does a Driver object contain? (Choose 2.)
A. Packages
B. Driver Set
C. Policy Objects
D. Application driver shim
E. Subscriber and Publisher objects
Answer: C,E

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NO.13 Which installation mode is supported by the integrated installer?
A. Silent mode
B. Non-root mode
C. Console mode
D. AutoYaST mode
E. Standalone mode
Answer: A

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NO.14 When you start Designer for the first time or start Designer without a project listed, which should you
first do?
A. Make sure that the Debug perspective is selected.
B. Make sure that the Plug-in perspective is selected.
C. Make sure that the Designer perspective is selected.
D. Make sure that the Java/Java Browsing perspective is selected.
E. Make sure that the Java Type Hierarchy perspective is selected.
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which statements about the Integrated Installer are true? (Choose 2.)
A. It automatically handles dependencies
B. It automatically installs all of the drivers
C. The iManager plug-in needs to be manually installed
D. It exists only for the Windows operating system family
Answer: A,B

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Exam Code: 50-V37-ENVCSE01
Exam Name: Novell (CSE RSA enVision Essentials (new update))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 97 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-23

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NO.1 Which RSA enVision module is used to configure the enVision system as well as to monitor its health
and performance? (Check the one best answer.)
A.Overview module
B.Alerts Module
C.Analysis Module
D.Reports Module
Answer:A

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NO.2 What happens if an event source device type is not immediately recognized by RSA enVision? (Check
the one best answer.)
A.It will be defined as "unknown" and for a limited time enVision will collect event data it generates
B.Data from that device will be discarded until the device type can be defined
C.An alert is generated by default to call an administrator's attention to the device
D.The UDS Service will create a parsing XML file for the device and place data in the NIC Parse Cache
Answer:A

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NO.3 The administrator can use the RSA enVision's user authentication feature to complete what tasks?
(Check two answers.)
A.Use an existing Microsoft Active Directory authentication server
B.Associate administrative users with an authentication server
C.Require enVision users to change passwords on a periodic basis
D.Enforce a pre-defined set of 'prohibited passwords' based on a dictionary file
E.Utilize existing domain authenticated user accounts as the basis for enVision user accounts
Answer:A E

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NO.4 True or false. If a conflict exists with the default enVision collection port after appliance installation, the
Collector Service can be modified to configure event collection on a different port.
A.True
B.false
Answer:A

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NO.5 In the RSA enVision UDS process, what is the purpose of performing Data Reduction steps? (Check the
one best answer.)
A.Improve speed and efficiency of data processing
B.Compress unsupported device data prior to storage
C.Apply ISO-approved abbreviations to message text strings
D.Decrease the rate that unsupported device data is collected
Answer:A

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NO.6 How many Remote Collectors (RC) can each Database Server (D-SRV) support? (Check the one best
answer.)
A.Eight (8)
B.Ten (10)
C.Sixteen (16)
D.Thirty two (32)
Answer:C

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NO.7 If a customer has a specific syslog that they would like to use as part of a demonstration, you can load it
into enVision for reporting and querying using which of the following? (Check the one best answer.)
A.The lsdata utility to import the syslog file
B.Copying the syslog file into the IPDB data directory
C.Using the Data Injector utility to collect data from the syslog file
D.Using the Custom Reports ?View External Data function of the administrative GUI
Answer:C

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NO.8 What does RSA enVision do when it is set to auto-discover new devices? (Check the one best answer.)
A.Adds new supported devices automatically to the list of monitored devices in the Manage Monitored
Devices screen
B.Temporarily holds in the "New Device" cache and begins to collect data after it is approved by an
administrator
C.RSA enVision alerts members of the "administrators" group to add a new device to the list of monitored
devices
D.RSA enVision automatically exports device attributes to an XML file for an administrator to review
Answer:A

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NO.9 When would you expect a difference between the log information captured by RSA enVision and the
log information generated by a device? (Check the one best answer.)
A.When the source IP address of the device is unknown to enVision.
B.When the device is configured to send only certain events to syslog.
C.When "Collect All Logs" is left unchecked in the Manage Devices screen.
D.When the device is a known device and enVision recognizes the events to be non-critical.
Answer:B

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NO.10 Why would the checkbox of a device type be grayed out On the Manage Device Types screen? (Check
the one best answer.)
A.It's not licensed
B.Device is unknown but data can be collected
C.Device is known but not compatible with enVision
D.Device is associated with a monitored device within the NIC domain
Answer:D

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NO.11 When setting up a Check Point firewall device, which of the following is a good practice that should be
completed first? (Check the one best answer.)
A.Stop and restart the Check Point Firewall Service
B.Stop and restart the enVision NIC Collector Service
C.Verify that the Check Point Log Viewer is receiving events
D.Set an 8-character key to establish an authenticated connection
Answer:C

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NO.12 The UDS development process involves which of the following tasks? (Check two answers.)
A.Verifying XML syntax and parsing
B.Using XML to convert device logs to IPDB format
C.Mapping a device name to an existing enVision device
D.Creating an XML file to define header and message information
Answer:A D

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NO.13 After creating a customized Report Menu system, which RSA enVision service(s) need to be re-started?
A.Only the NIC Webserver Service
B.The NIC Webserver and NIC Server Services
C.The NIC Webserver, NIC Server and NIC Locator Services
D.The NIC Webserver, NIC Server, NIC Locator, and NIC Packager Services
Answer:A

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NO.14 In RSA enVision UDS development, Value Maps, Regular Expressions, and Functions are types of
which of the following? (Check the one best answer.)
A.Data Reduction
B.XML Parsing Rules
C.Conditional Variables
D.Summary Data Buckets
Answer:C

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NO.15 When opening a connection in Event Explorer, you can define which of the following features? (Check
the three correct answers.)
A.Devices
B.Event categories
C.Log messages
D.Time frame
E.Local collector
Answer:A B D

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NO.16 When planning an RSA enVision installation, which statements below about the Site Name are
important considerations? (Check two answers.)
A.The Site Name must match an enVision domain name
B.The Site Name must be unique within an enVision domain and cannot be the same as the customer's
NetBIOS domain name
C.The Site Name must not contain any numeric or punctuation characters
D.The Site Name must have the same suffix as the Windows domain in which it resides
E.The Site Name must not match the name of any existing Windows domain in the network
Answer:B E

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NO.17 When initially setting up a multiple appliance site, only the D-SRV unit is connected to a LAN ?all of the
other units in the site then connect directly to the D-SRV.
A.True
B.False
Answer:B

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NO.18 What two tasks does UDS complete when the command "uds reate" is executed to create a device?
(Check the two best answers.)
A.Creates the files .ini, client.txt, vendor.txt and msg.xml
B.Immediately starts collecting data from the new device
C.Identifies all associated devices that have been configured
D.Create all directory structures required for the device
E.Lists all devices to verify that the device does not already exist
Answer:A D

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NO.19 What are three steps that are part of the device interpretation process using UDS? (Check the three
best answers.)
A.Configure devices to send log data to RSA enVision
B.Device identification (i.e. vendor, device name, class, sub-class, etc.)
C.Identification of device collection method
D.Message definition
E.List of known vulnerabilities
F.Data parsing
Answer:B D F

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NO.20 When creating a new enVision user account, which User Group is the account added to by default?
(Check the one best answer.)
A.Report-users
B.Administrators
C.Temporary-users
D.All-applications-users
Answer:D

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Exam Code: 50-663
Exam Name: Novell (Novell edirectory and active directory)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 136 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-23

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NO.1 When installing Windows 2000 Professional, which of the following are members of
the Administrators local group by default? (Choose 2.)
A. Guests
B. Power Users
C. Administrator
D. Backup Operators
E. The initial user performing the installation
Answer: C,E

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NO.2 Which statement is true regarding the initial user account on a Windows 2000
Professional workstation?
A. When this account is created, it cannot be deleted.
B. This account is manually created by the administrator.
C. This account can only be created on a Windows NT server.
D. This account must be created in order to create additional user accounts.
E. This account is created automatically if Windows 2000 Professional is installed as a
member of a workgroup.
Answer: E

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NO.3 Which are advantages of the mandatory Windows 2000 Professional login process?
(Choose 2.)
A. Users can have more than one account.
B. Users can have individual configurations.
C. Users are required to enter a password to access files.
D. Users can better share files with others on the network.
E. Users can better administer their NetWare file system rights.
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 Which default user accounts are created on a Windows 2000 server? (Choose 2.)
A. Guest
B. Administrator
C. Backup Operator
D. Account Operator
E. Domain Administrator
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 What is the primary mechanism supporting the Kerberos v5 protocol?
A. Key Generation Center
B. Key Distribution Center
C. Ticket Granting Service
D. Key Distribution Control
E. Mutual Authentication Center
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which statement is true regarding the HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG subtree in a
Windows 2000 Registry?
A. It holds information about software configurations.
B. It contains all configuration data about the computer.
C. It holds information about the active hardware profile.
D. It holds data about the current user logged in to the workstation.
E. It contains security information about all users in the directory database.
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is required before eDirectory can be installed on Windows 2000? (Choose 2.)
A. NTFS
B. ConsoleOne
C. eDirectory manager
D. SLP Directory agent
E. Administrative rights
Answer: A,E

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NO.8 When compared to Windows 2000 Advanced Server, Windows 2000 Datacenter
Server provides which advantages? (Choose 3.)
A. The Process Control tool
B. Support for up to 128 GB RAM
C. 4-node clustering and load balancing services
D. Support for Physical Address Extension (PAE)
E. Support for all Pentium III Coppermine Processors
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.9 Which are advantages of the mandatory Windows 2000 Professional login process?
(Choose 2.)
A. It requires users to have passwords.
B. It allows users to have individual configurations.
C. It allows an individual to be a member of multiple groups.
D. It allows multiple users to be simultaneously logged in to the same Windows 2000
Professional machine.
E. It allows users to secure files on the local Windows 2000 Professional machine so
other local users can't access those files.
Answer: B,E

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NO.10 Which groups are created during the installation of Windows 2000 Professional, but
do not contain members until specified? (Choose 2.)
A. Users
B. Guests
C. Power Users
D. Administrators
E. Backup Operators
Answer: C,E

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NO.11 Your network environment includes 1 Windows 2000 server, 5 Windows 2000
workstations, 5 Macintosh computers, and 2 printers. You need to share company
records that are stored on the server. Which file system would you choose during a
Windows 2000 Server installation?
A. HPFS
B. NTFS
C. OS/2
D. FAT-16
E. FAT-32
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which statements about Windows 2000 native mode are true? (Choose 2.)
A. Native mode allows backward compatibility.
B. After you make the switch to native mode, it cannot be undone.
C. After you make the switch to native mode, you can switch back to mixed mode at any
time.
D. You can switch to native mode if there are Windows NT domain controllers within the
domain.
E. Native mode allows you to take advantage of all features and capabilities of Active
Directory.
Answer: B,E

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NO.13 Which objects displayed in ConsoleOne can be modified and allow you to add
eDirectory users to an Active Directory group? (Choose 2.)
A. Group
B. Server
C. Organization
D. eDirectory User
E. Organizational Unit
Answer: A,D

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NO.14 Which groups are created by default when a Windows 2000 server is installed?
(Choose 3.)
A. Guests
B. Network Users
C. Administrators
D. Backup Operators
E. Domain Operators
F. Server Administrators
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.15 Which Registry subtree holds information about the active hardware profile?
A. HKEY_USER
B. HKEY_CURRENT_USER
C. HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT
D. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE
E. HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG
Answer: E

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NO.16 When would Windows 2000 Server be a good choice over Windows 2000
Professional? (Choose 2.)
A. When a web server is needed
B. When Terminal services are needed
C. When plug-and-play support is needed
D. When local security for files is needed
E. When multiple processors exist in a machine
Answer: A,B

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NO.17 Which groups are created during the installation of Windows 2000 Professional, but
do not contain members until specified? (Choose 2.)
A. Users
B. Guests
C. Power Users
D. Replicators
E. Administrators
Answer: C,D

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NO.18 Erica needs guest access to a Windows 2000 server. What do you need to do to allow
Erica to log in using the Guest account?
A. Create the Guest user account.
B. You do not need to do anything.
C. Enable the Guest user account, which was created by default.
D. Create a user account for Erica and assign temporary rights to the Guest account.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which are features of Windows 2000 Advanced Server? (Choose 2.)
A. It supports up to 4 GB RAM.
B. It supports multiple processors.
C. It provides clustering technologies.
D. It supports Windows 95 device drivers.
E. It supports RAID technology for software virus protection.
Answer: B,C

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NO.20 Which statement defines the Windows 2000 Advanced Server term "scaling up"?
A. An increase in accessibility of a server via the LAN
B. Increasing the client access license count for a server
C. Distributing the load of network requests through server technology
D. The increased performance and capacity gained by adding processors and memory to
a server
Answer: D

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NO.21 Which tasks can a Windows 2000 administrator perform by default on a Windows
2000 server? (Choose 3.)
A. Format a floppy disk
B. Manage security policies
C. Create shared directories
D. Merge eDirectory partitions
E. Perform administration tasks in all domains
F. Create partitions of Active Directory containers
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.22 Which group is only installed during the installation of Windows 2000 Professional
or a member server?
A. Users
B. Guests
C. Replicators
D. Power Users
E. Administrators
F. Backup Operators
Answer: D

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NO.23 What is the maximum RAM capacity of Microsoft Windows 2000 Datacenter
Server?
A. 1 GB
B. 16 GB
C. 32 GB
D. 64 GB
E. 128 GB
Answer: D

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NO.24 You would like to run the default Microsoft Management Console. Enter the
command that you would use in the Open box to start this utility.
Answer: mmc

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NO.25 When a user logs in to Windows 2000 Professional, which component verifies that
the username and password are correct?
A. WinLogon
B. WinVerify
C. Local security database
D. HKEY_CURRENT_USER
E. Security Accounts Manager
Answer: C

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NO.26 Which 2 advantages are provided by Windows 2000 Advanced Server over
Windows 2000 Server? (Choose 2.)
A. Higher performance server capability
B. Internet Information Server 5.0 included
C. The ability to link servers to handle larger loads
D. Enhanced Microsoft Management Console functions
E. The ability to handle up to 10 processors and up to 8 GB RAM
Answer: A,C

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NO.27 Which tasks can a Windows 2000 administrator perform by default? (Choose 3.)
A. Set up printing
B. Manage the file system
C. Create users and groups
D. Partition Active Directory containers
E. Create groups but not users in all domains
F. Perform administration tasks in all domains
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.28 What Registry editor supports full editing of the Windows 2000 Registry?
A. REGEDIT
B. REGEDT32
C. REGEDIT64
D. Registry Manager Console (RMC)
E. Microsoft Management Console (MMC)
Answer: B

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NO.29 Which groups are created by default when a Windows 2000 server is installed?
(Choose 3.)
A. Users
B. Guests
C. Backup Operators
D. Domain Operators
E. Network Operators
F. Server Administrators
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.30 Which statements are true regarding the process of logging in to Windows 2000
Server? (Choose 2.)
A. The login process cannot be disabled.
B. A password for the Administrator user is required.
C. The Ctrl + Esc keystroke initiates the login process.
D. The Ctrl + Alt + Del keystroke initiates the login process.
E. The login process must be manually enabled when the workstation is connected to a
network.
Answer: A,D

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Exam Code: 50-892
Exam Name: Novell (Novell zenworks 6.5 desktop management)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 247 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-15

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NO.1 With reference to ZENworks Desktop Management imaging, which term refers to an archived
collection of files to be added to an existing Windows installation on target workstation without overwriting
the existing hard drive contents? (Choose 2.)
A. Add-on image
B. File-only image
C. Workstation image
D. Application overlay
E. Image-safe data area
F. Application transform
Answer: AD

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NO.2 Which tasks can the ZENworks 6.5 Desktop Management Remote Management service accomplish?
(Choose 3.)
A. Remotely boot a powered-off managed workstation.
B. Remotely blank out the managed workstation's screen.
C. Remotely run executables on the managed workstation.
D. Remotely modify the managed workstation's CMOS settings.
E. Remotely access the SCSI ROM BIOS on workstations with SCSI adapters.
Answer: ABC

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NO.3 Which statements are true about ZENworks 6.5 Desktop Management site lists? (Choose 2.)
A. The Novell Client must be installed to use them.
B. They must be configured differently depending on which client is being used.
C. Users can access applications locally even if they authenticate across the WAN.
D. They can be implemented, regardless of whether users authenticate using the Novell Client or a
ZENworks middle-tier server.
Answer: CD

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NO.4 Which file can you edit on the managed workstation to configure the TCP port used by the Remote
Management Agent?
A. Rm.cfg
B. Zrm.ini
C. Rmcfg.ini
D. ZenRm.cfg
E. Remote.ini
F. RemMan.cfg
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which objects can you associate with a workstation package? (Choose 3.)
A. User
B. Group
C. Alias
D. Server
E. Printer
F. Profile
G. Container
H. Workstation
I. Workstation Group
Answer: GHI

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NO.6 Which utility can be used to create an MST file?
A. iManager
B. Schemax
C. SnAppShot
D. ConsoleOne
E. AdminStudio
Answer: E

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NO.7 Which file system rights should users have to the Personality Migration Personality Store directory on
your NetWare server? (Choose 4.)
A. Read
B. Erase
C. Write
D. Create
E. Modify
F. File Scan
G. Access Control
Answer: ACDF

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NO.8 Which type of policy package contains the Workstation Import policy?
A. User policy package
B. Server policy package
C. Container policy package
D. Workstation policy package
E. Service Location policy package
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which type of ZENworks Personality Migration saves the personality in a file which can be then
transferred to a different computer?
A. Imaged migration
B. Hosted migration
C. Stored migration
D. Delayed migration
E. Deferred migration
F. Real-time migration
G. Suspended migration
Answer: E

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NO.10 Which statements are true about NAL application fault tolerance? (Choose 2.)
A. It is configured to handle server failure.
B. It is configured to optimize server utilization.
C. You do not need to create and define application objects.
D. Duplicate application object files must be stored on a different server.
E. Duplicate application objects must be stored on the same server as the application objects.
Answer: AD

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NO.11 You are configuring the Dynamic Local User policy in a user package for users in your eDirectory tree.
Company policy dictates that any local user accounts created on workstations by the Dynamic Local User
policy must be immediately deleted when users log out. Which type of Dynamic Local User accounts
should you configure the policy to use?
A. Volatile
B. Temporary
C. Transient
D. Nonvolatile
E. Non-persistent
F. The Dynamic Local User policy doesn't support this type of account.
Answer: A

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NO.12 User MHoffmann.LEADS.SALES.SLC.DA is a member of the ProjectLeads.DA group. You have
associated a user policy package with the DA container that configures user desktops to use the
Corplogo.bmp background. You've also associated a user policy package with the SALES.SLC.DA
container that configures user desktops to use the Corplogo2.bmp background. You've also associated a
user policy package with ProjectLeads.DA that configures user desktops to use the Corplogo3.bmp
background. When MHoffmann logs in, which background will be applied to her workstation?
A. Corplogo.bmp
B. Corplogo2.bmp
C. Corplogo3.bmp
D. The container and group associations are in conflict and, therefore, no background will be applied.
Answer: C

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NO.13 You're configuring a container login script in your eDirectory tree to automatically distribute the ZPMS
Update Agent to your users' workstations. You've copied the Update Agent files from the Update Server to
the Sys:\Public directory on your DA1 NetWare 6.5 server. Which file should you call from within your
login script to install the Update Agent?
A. Setup.bat
B. NetInstall.bat
C. ZPMSAgent.msi
D. UpdateAgent.bat
E. ZPMSUpdateAgent.exe
F. ZENUpdateAgentInstall.bat
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which parameter in the Settings.txt file is used to specify the address of your Imaging server?
A. IPADDR
B. SERVER
C. PXEADDR
D. TFTPSRVR
E. PROXYADDR
F. PXESERVER
G. SERVERADDR
H. IMAGESRVRADDR
Answer: E

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NO.15 What must be installed and configured on the server along with the Middle Tier Server in order for it to
function? (Choose 2.)
A. MySQL
B. Rsync
C. iSCSI
D. iManager
E. NetStorage
F. A web server
G. Workstation Imaging
H. Workstation Inventory
Answer: EF

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NO.16 Which Novell application launcher (NAL) settings are applied if custom settings for the user object and
it's parent container are configured?
A. The default settings only
B. The container's custom settings only
C. The user's custom settings will override any conflicts
D. The container's custom settings will override any conflicts
Answer: C

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NO.17 You're configuring a Remote Control session with a remote managed workstation over a slow
connection. Which Color Quality option should you choose for best performance?
A. Normal
B. 8 colors
C. Greyscale
D. 16 colors
E. 256 colors
F. 64k colors
Answer: D

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NO.18 To configure user-defined policies using the ADM files for workstation objects, which policy do you
configure?
A. iPrint
B. Remote control
C. Computer extensible
D. Workstation imaging
E. ZENworks Desktop Management agent
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which eDirectory object do you use to generate Inventory reports in ConsoleOne?
A. User
B. Server
C. Workstation
D. Inventory server
E. Inventory database
F. User policy package
G. Workstation policy package
Answer: E

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NO.20 You need to deliver applications to your users and workstations that reside in remote locations outside
your organization's firewall. What is required to accomplish this using ZENworks 6.5 Desktop
Management?
A. Load Nal.nlm with the -N switch.
B. Implement the ZENworks Middle-Tier server.
C. Load Appman.nlm with the -PASSTHROUGH switch.
D. Enable dynamic NAT passthrough on the server where ZENworks is installed.
Answer: B

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