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Exam Code: TB0-122
Exam Name: Tibco (TIBCO BusinessEvents 5 Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 112 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which three TIBCO BusinessEvents objects can be stored in cache servers? (Choose three.)
A. Scorecards
B. Global Variables
C. Rule Functions
D. Concepts
E. Events
F. Rules
Answer: A,D,E

Tibco   TB0-122   TB0-122

NO.2 Which two functions does the studio-tools.exe utility provide? (Choose two)
A. Imports version 2.x projects
B. Imports version 3.x projects
C. Analyzes decision tables
D. Validates decision tables
E. Exports decision tables to Microsoft Excel
F. Imports decision tables from Microsoft Excel
Answer: A,E

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NO.3 Which TIBCO BusinessEvents add-on software enables queries using a language that is SQL-like?
A. Decision Manager
B. Event Stream Processing
C. Views
D. Data Modeling
Answer: D

Tibco   TB0-122   TB0-122

NO.4 How do you override the default event for a JMS destination?
A. Map incoming messages directly to an event in TIBCO BusinessEvents
B. Map incoming messages only through the_ns_field in the message
C. Map incoming messages only through the_nm_fieldinthemessage
D. Map incoming messages through two fields (_ns_,_nm_) in the message
Answer: D

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NO.5 What are three features of Pattern Matcher? (Choose three.)
A. The Pattern service can be started and stopped anytime inside the engine,
B. The Pattern service can only be run inside an Inference agent.
C. The Pattern service starts automatically when the engine starts.
D. The Pattern service can run in Inference agent or Query agent.
E. Each agent has a separate instance of the Pattern service.
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.6 Which two JMS message types are supported by TextMessageSerializer? (Choose two.)
A. MapMessage
B. BytesMessage
C. StreamMessage
D. TextMessage
Answer: A,D

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NO.7 Which two channels represent configurable physical connections to a resource? (Choose two.)
A. JMS
B. FTP
C. HTTP
D. Local
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 Which object management type should be used when cacheLoadconceptById () has been defined
explicitly to load objects?
A. In-memory
B. Cache only
C. Cache + Memory
D. Berkeley DB
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which three statements about a CDD are true? (Choose three.)
A. A CDD can be associated with only one Object Management type at any given time.
B. Deployment requires both a CDD and the project.
C. Deployment requires both CDD and EAR files.
D. A project can have a one-to-many relationship with a CDD.
E. A CDD needs to be rebuilt when a new rule is added to the project.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.10 Which file must be configured with system-level settings before the TIBCO BusinessEvents engine
starts?
A. TRA
B. CDD
C. Site Topology
D. be-engine.xml
Answer: A

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NO.11 Concept A contains Concept B. Concept A is using Cache Only mode of object management.
Which object management mode is recommended for Concept B to use?
A. Memory Only
B. Memory Only or Cache + Memory or Cache Only
C. Memory Only or Cache Only
D. Cache + Memory or Cache Only
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which two statements are true about a new installation of TIBCO BusinessEvents? (Choose two.)
A. An existing Eclipse installation can be used.
B. An existing Eclipse installation cannot be used.
C. TIBCO BusinessEvents can be installed for use with TIBCO Business Studio business modeling
software.
D. TIBCO BusinessEvents cannot be installed for use with TIBCO Business Studio business modeling
software.
Answer: A,C

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NO.13 When does an RTC cycle end.?
A. When an external action causes changes to the RETE network
B. When TIBCO BusinessEvents builds (or refreshes) a rule action agenda
C. When a rule action is executed
D. When the rule action agenda is empty
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which statement is true about rules?
A. To assert a new set of concept instances it must be returned as arrays of objects from a rule
B. Executing a rule action may prevent the execution of other rules matching the criteria.
C. Returning an event instance from a rule sends the event to its default destination.
D. All rules matching the conditions at the given time will be triggered in parallel.
Answer: B

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NO.15 In Cache Object Management settings, what does the property cache Agent Quo rum specify?
A. The number of members in the cluster that hold the backup data
B. The size of the limited cache
C. The minimum number of storage-enabled nodes that must be active in the cluster at startup
D. The maximum size of the object table cache
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 251-250
Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Staorage Foundation 5.0 for UNIX)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 208 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 When creating a new volume with the New Volume Wizard in VEA, which layout options are
available to create a layered volume? (Choose two.)
A.concatenate-mirror
B.stripe-mirror
C.mirror-stripe
D.mirror-concatenate
E.concatenate-stripe
F.stripe-concatenate
Correct:A B

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NO.2 The upgrade scripts are being used to upgrade Volume Manager. Which file's existence would
indicate that the upgrade_start script had been run, but the upgrade_finish has yet to be run?
A./UPGRADE_START/.start_runed
B./VXVM5.0-UPGRADE/.start_runed
C./etc/vx/.start_runed
D./etc/vx/.upgrade_runed
Correct:B

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NO.3 Which statements are true about deporting a disk group? (Choose two.)
A.The volumes are unavailable.
B.The disk group is available for importing.
C.The disk group is deported and online.
D.The file systems are destroyed.
E.The file systems are accessible.
Correct:A B

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NO.4 Which statements are true about renaming the disk object? (Choose two.)
A.New disk names must be unique within the disk group.
B.All subdisks will be renamed together with the disk.
C.The disk group needs to be offline.
D.The new disk name must be unique within the system.
E.Subdisks names will remain the same.
Correct:A E

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NO.5 Which command upgrades the datadg disk group from version 50 to the current disk group
version?
A.vxdg -T 50 upgrade datadg
B.vxdg upgrade datadg
C.vxdg currvers datadg
D.vxdg 50 currvers datadg
Correct:B

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NO.6 What occurs when you add an initialized disk to an existing disk group? (Choose two.)
A.The public and private regions are created on the disk.
B.An empty volume is created on the disk by default.
C.The disk group configuration database is updated.
D.Volume Manager performs a rescan to recognize all newly configured disks.
E.The disk is stamped with the system host ID.
Correct:C E

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NO.7 After initializing a disk for use in Volume Manager, which command is used to create a disk
group named datadg on a device shown as device_tag and using a disk media name of datadg01?
A.vxassist create datadg datadg01=device_tag
B.vxdg create datadg datadg01=device_tag
C.vxdg init datadg datadg01=device_tag
D.vxassist datadg init datadg01= device_tag
Correct:C

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NO.8 Which states are displayed in the output of vxprint? (Choose two.)
A.Data
B.Kernel
C.File System
D.Volume
E.User
Correct:B D

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NO.9 In the output of the vxdisk list command, there are no entries in the DISK and GROUP columns.
However, you see online invalid in the output of the STATUS column. What does the online invalid
status indicate?
A.The disk is failing and needs to be replaced for future use in Volume Manager.
B.The disk is incompatible with the current release of Volume Manager.
C.The disk is available for initialization or encapsulation by Volume Manager.
D.The disk is available for use and has encapsulated data deported on another system.
Correct:C

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NO.10 Which command is used to change the stripe unit size and number of columns for the datavol
volume in the datadg disk group?
A.vxvol datadg convert datavol stripeunit=32k ncol=5
B.vxassist datadg convert datavol stripeunit=32k ncol=5
C.vxvol datadg relayout datavol stripeunit=32k ncol=5
D.vxassist datadg relayout datavol stripeunit=32k ncol=5
Correct:D

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NO.11 Which commands display plex, volume, and kernel states? (Choose two.)
A.vxcat
B.vxdisplay
C.vxinfo
D.vxprint
E.vxstate
Correct:C D

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NO.12 Which command removes the datadg02 disk from the datadg disk group?
A.vxassist datadg rmdisk datadg02
B.vxdg datadg rmdisk datadg02
C.vxassist datadg remove disk datadg02
D.vxdg datadg remove datadg02
Correct:B

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NO.13 Which command displays the amount of free space in the configuration database of the datadg
disk group?
A.vxdg -g datadg free
B.vxdg -g datadg list
C.vxdg free datadg
D.vxdg list datadg
Correct:D

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NO.14 Which command grows the datavol volume by an additional 30 MB and resizes the file system at
the same time?
A.vxassist -g datadg growby datavol 30m
B.vxresize -g datadg datavol 30m
C.vxresize -g datadg datavol +30m
D.vxassist -g datadg growto datavol 30m
Correct:C

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NO.15 Which vxsnap command option recreates a space-optimized instant snapshot?
A.restore
B.reattach
C.refresh
D.reassociate
Correct:C

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NO.16 Which statement is true about adding a mirror to an existing striped volume?
A.A concatenated plex is added to the volume by default.
B.You can use any disks in the disk group to contain the new plex.
C.Synchronization of the new plex is required.
D.You should add the new plex to a different disk group for redundancy.
Correct:C

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NO.17 Which command displays the number of paths to the datadg01 disk?
A.vxdisk list datadg01
B.vxdg list datadg01
C.vxpath list datadg01
D.vxdmpadm list datadg01
Correct:A

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NO.18 What are valid mount options for a Veritas file system? (Choose two.)
A.nolargefiles
B.shared
C.logtmp
D.delaylog
E.logdelay
Correct:A D

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NO.19 Which vxassist parameter is used to set the number of data plexes in a non-layered mirrored
volume?
A.nplex
B.numplex
C.nummirror
D.nmirror
Correct:D

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NO.20 Which command can be used to remove a mirror from a volume? (Choose two.)
A.vxedit
B.vxassist
C.vxremove
D.vxevac
E.vxmirror
Correct:A B

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Exam Code: 250-312
Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Server)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 246 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 A financial institution has a two-hour backup window and is required to restore individual e-mails
within 20 minutes if their Microsoft Exchange Server fails.
Which Service Level Agreement (SLA) meets the Recovery Point Objective (RPO) and Recovery Time
Objective (RTO) requirements?
A. RTO 2 hours, RPO 20 minutes, Granular Recovery Technology enabled
B. RTO 20 minutes, RPO 2 hours, Granular Recovery Technology enabled
C. RTO 20 minutes, RPO 2 hours, Individual E-mail Recovery enabled
D. RTO 2 hours, RPO 20 minutes, Individual E-mail Recovery enabled
Answer: B

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NO.2 Refer to the exhibit.
Annual accounting history must be archived for 120 days and marketing history must be archived for 90
days.
Which setting allows reporting for marketing and accounting history?
A. change Keep alert history to 90 days
B. change Keep job logs to 120 days
C. change Keep job history selection for keep job history to match current OPP
D. change Keep job history for selected number of days to 120
Answer: C

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NO.3 A medium-sized paper company with several remote offices deploys Symantec Backup Exec 12 for
Windows Servers Central Admin Server Option (CASO) in their data center. The company's SLA requires
that the backup environment be restored to an alternate location in the event of a data center outage.
Which CASO catalog location option meets this company's SLA?
A. Centralized Catalog
B. Distributed Catalog
C. Replicated Catalog
D. Exported Catalog
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which three statements are true about the attributes of a device pool? (Choose three.)
A. The All Available Drives device pool can be deleted.
B. A drive can belong to more than one device pool.
C. A device pool can contain different types of drives.
D. Device priority can be set on a device pool.
E. Multiple backup jobs can be targeted to the same device pool.
Answer: BCE

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NO.5 Using the silent mode method, how can a backup administrator push-install Backup Exec Remote
Agent for Windows Systems simultaneously to multiple machines?
A. create a command file that reads a number from a .txt file
B. create a command file that reads remote computer names from a .txt file
C. use the Push Install Wizard to add the number of simultaneous installs
D. use the Push Install Wizard to add the parameters for the silent installation
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which two alert category types can be disabled? (Choose two.)
A. Warning alerts
B. Attention Required alerts
C. Error alerts
D. E-mail Failure alerts
E. Informational alerts
Answer: AE

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NO.7 A single tape-drive robotic library is attached to the Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers
(Backup Exec) media server but fails to display in the Backup Exec Devices window. The library is in the
correct location under the Robotic Libraries tree, but instead of listing the drive underneath it, there is a
listing of Unknown Drive. The drive name is listed under Stand-alone Drives.
What must be done to solve this problem?
A. Restart the Backup Exec Server service and scan for new devices in Windows Device Manager.
B. Power down the Backup Exec Server and the attached robotic library, then power up the robotic library
before powering up the Backup Exec Server.
C. Run the Backup Exec Device Configuration Wizard and drag the correct drive name to the position
under the robotic library.
D. Because the robotic library is unserialized and not supported by Backup Exec, replace the robotic
library with a supported robotic library.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which compression type produces the least network traffic in a multi-server backup environment?
A. compression with de-duplication
B. software compression
C. hardware compression
D. compression with encryption
Answer: B

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NO.9 A large enterprise provides a six-hour backup window at night, but requires failed systems to be
restored immediately.
Which SLA meets the Recovery Point Objective (RPO) and Recovery Time Objective (RTO)
requirements?
A. RPO 0, RTO 0
B. RPO 6 hours, RTO 6 hours
C. RPO 6 hours, RTO 0
D. RPO 0, RTO 6 hours
Answer: C

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NO.10 Refer to the Exhibit.
Which method provides the most current restore point?
A. tape replication
B. tape backup
C. system rebuild
D. system deduplication
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which three versions of Microsoft SQL does Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers support?
(Choose three.)
A. Microsoft SQL Server Desktop Edition (MSDE) 2000
B. Microsoft SQL 2005 Express Edition
C. Microsoft SQL Server 2000 SP2
D. Microsoft SQL Server 2000 SP3a or later
E. Microsoft SQL Server 7.0
F. Microsoft SQL 2005
Answer: BDF

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NO.12 Which three summaries can be found on the Job Monitor's System Summary view? (Choose three.)
A. device and media summary
B. alerts summary
C. licensing summary
D. installed patch summary
E. job summary
Answer: ABE

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NO.13 Which database application is included with Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers?
A. Microsoft SQL 2005 Express
B. Microsoft SQL Server 2000 SP2
C. Microsoft SQL Desktop Edition 2000
D. Microsoft SQL Server 2005
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which technology provides the most efficient Recovery Point Objective (RPO)?
A. Remote Administration Option
B. Intelligent Disaster Recovery Option
C. Backup Exec System Recovery
D. Continuous Protection Server
Answer: D

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NO.15 Refer to the exhibit.
Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers option is required to manage all backups from the
data center?
A. Shared Storage Option
B. Active Directory Recovery Option
C. Central Admin Server Option
D. Executive Desktop Option
Answer: A

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NO.16 A web-based retailer's mission-critical servers must be online constantly, providing zero downtime in
which to run a backup.
Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers component is required in order to meet the SLA?
A. Advanced Disk-based Backup Option
B. Continuous Protection Server Option
C. Volume Shadow Copy Services Option
D. Central Admin Server Option
Answer: B

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NO.17 An attempt to install the Remote Agent for Linux and UNIX Servers on a UNIX server fails.
Which log can be reviewed to determine the cause of the installation failure?
A. /var/tmp/vxif/installralus/installralus.log
B. /var/logs/ralus/installralus.log
C. /install/symantec/logs/ralus.log
D. /usr/openv/symantec/logs/install.log
Answer: A

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NO.18 What does the Backup Exec Environment Check utility verify to ensure that the installation process can
complete successfully? (Choose two.)
A. Is a previous version of Backup Exec installed?
B. Is there enough storage space for disk-based backups?
C. Is an SMTP Server available?
D. Are there Microsoft SQL database account privileges?
E. Are there sufficient logon account privileges?
Answer: AE

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NO.19 Which two Calendar Schedule settings can you use to schedule a job to run on the first and fifteenth of
every month? (Choose two.)
A. Specific Dates
B. Recurring Week Days
C. Recurring Days of the Month
D. Day Interval
E. Time Window
Answer: AC

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NO.20 Which media set property defines the amount of time that data can be added to a piece of media?
A. Append Period
B. Overwrite Protection Period
C. Retention Period
D. Media Update Period
Answer: A

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NO.21 Which two statements are accurate regarding full backups and copy backups? (Choose two.)
A. Full backups and copy backups of the same resource include the same data.
B. Full backups and copy backups are different names for the exact same backup method.
C. Full backups and copy backups can be configured to reset the archive bit of backed up files.
D. Full backups can reset the archive bit of backed up files; copy backups are unable to reset the archive
bit.
E. Copy backups can reset the archive bit of backed up files; full backups are unable to reset the archive
bit.
Answer: AD

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NO.22 Which account enables Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers to access resources for
backup?
A. administrative
B. logon
C. service
D. domain
Answer: B

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NO.23 Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers component manages devices and media?
A. Advanced Device and Media Manager
B. Media Operations Manager
C. Enterprise Media Manager
D. Advanced Tape Device Manager
Answer: A

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NO.24 Which two factors define a backup Service Level Agreement (SLA)? (Choose two.)
A. Recovery Point Objective
B. Recovery Time Objective
C. Recovery Method
D. Recovery Retention Period
E. Recovery Priority Objective
Answer: AB

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NO.25 Refer to the exhibit.
A backup administrator must recover all Microsoft Word documents (.doc) created after January 1, 2005
from the F:\CEO directory, including subfolders.
How is this accomplished?
A. enter F:\CEO for the Path; enter *.doc for the File; select Include subdirectories; enter 1/1/2005 for
From box; enter today's date for To box; select Include for Type
B. enter F:\CEO for the Path; enter *.* for the File; enter 1/1/2005 for the From Box; leave the To box blank;
select Include for Type
C. enter F:\*.* for the Path; enter \CEO\*.doc for the File; select Include subdirectories; enter 1/1/2005 for
the From box; enter today's date for the To box; select Exclude for Type
D. enter \* for the Path; enter *.doc for the File; select Include subdirectories; enter 1/1/2005 for the From
box; enter today's date for the To box; select Include for Type
Answer: A

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NO.26 A global company must use a "follow-the-sun" backup strategy, which means that the backup servers
are constantly performing backups. The SLA requires that both DHCP and Active Directory remain
available.
Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers component is required in order to meet the SLA?
A. Data Protection Option
B. Advanced Open File Option
C. Central Admin Server Option
D. Agent for Enterprise Vault Option
Answer: B

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NO.27 What are two benefits of enabling Database Maintenance in Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows
Servers? (Choose two.)
A. deletes aged reports
B. exports the database to XML
C. removes alert history
D. decreases the size of the database
E. opens the database for sharing
Answer: CD

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NO.28 Which two Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Server agents/options support remote installation
from an existing media server? (Choose two.)
A. Active Directory Recovery Agent
B. Advanced Open File Option
C. Desktop and Laptop Option
D. Library Expansion Option
E. Shared Storage Option
Answer: BC

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NO.29 Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers agent/option provides Microsoft Virtual Server
support?
A. Shadow Copy
B. Virtual Machine
C. System State
D. Remote Agent
Answer: D

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NO.30 Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers (Backup Exec) utility can be used to change
the user account listed in the Backup Exec services?
A. Services
B. BEServices
C. ServicesMgr
D. BEDIAG
Answer: C

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Exam Code: ST0-030
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Mail Security 8300 Series (STS))
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Total Q&A: 88 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 What is the function of the Symantec Mail Security 8300 Transformation Engine?
A. Based on configured policies, performs the required actions on the message
B. Based on configured policies, scans the message for attributes and violations
C. Based on default policies, stores spam and virus messages
D. Based on default policies, provides automated synchronization from LDAP
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which two Symantec Mail Security 8300 Control Center components can be used to store email
security violations? (Select two.)
A. Suspect virus quarantine
B. Email virus logging
C. Message audit logs
D. Email spam quarantine
E. Instant message quarantine
Answer: AD

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NO.3 What is a content filtering capability of Symantec Mail Security 8300?
A. True file type scanning
B. Advanced phishing capability
C. Custom sieve editor
D. Word stemming analysis
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the recommended deployment location for Symantec Mail Security 8300?
A. In front of the external firewall
B. Behind the existing Exchange server
C. At the SMTP gateway
D. Integrated with the existing gateway SMTP server
Answer: C

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NO.5 What must be true in the DNS set up to establish load sharing via DNS round robin across multiple
SMTP gateway servers?
A. The preference numbers or weightings of the MX records must be the same.
B. The Ptr records for the servers must point to the same hostname.
C. The load sharing attribute must reference a valid hardware load balancer with an externally routable IP
address.
D. The preference numbers of the A records must be set to 10.
Answer: A

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NO.6 How does the LDAP synchronization process treat mail-enabled groups?
A. As a user list
B. As a distribution list
C. As domain groups
D. As an LDAP list
Answer: B

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NO.7 Under which condition is the 'Strip and Hold in Suspect Virus Quarantine' action available for use?
A. If a message is unscannable for viruses
B. If a message contains a suspicious attachment
C. If a message contains a mass-mailing worm
D. If a message contains a virus
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is the key purpose of the Alerts feature of the Control Center?
A. Sends email alerts to administrators or other parties
B. Sends SNMP notifications to administrators or other parties
C. Informs Symantec Mail Security 8300 administrators of antispam attacks detected by Symantec
D. Sends email notifications to senders who violate configured email security policies
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which Symantec Mail Security 8300 component retrieves new and updated spam filters from
Symantec Security Response through secure HTTPS file transfer?
A. Conduit
B. Uplink
C. LiveUpdate
D. Sequencer
Answer: A

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NO.10 On which two areas on the Control Center can you view license expiration status? (Select two.)
A. On the Control Center Dashboard
B. On the Licenses page
C. On the Alerts page
D. On the License Summary Report
Answer: AB

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NO.11 Which statement is true about Content Compliance policies?
A. Available linked compound conditions include AND, OR, XOR, and NOT.
B. They are evaluated in the order listed on the main page of the Compliance tab.
C. There is a set limit to the number of conditions per compliance policy.
D. The order of conditions in a filter is important when a filter matches a message.
Answer: B

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NO.12 What is the function of the DNS MX record?
A. Specifies the IP addresses for gateway email servers that process Internet traffic
B. Redirects internal IM traffic to the 8300 Series to enforce IM security
C. Specifies the hostnames that accept SMTP email for a domain and the priority in which the hostnames
should be tried
D. Identifies the IP addresses associated with host names
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which two statements are true regarding the reporting features in Symantec Mail Security 8300?
(Select two.)
A. reporting statistics data for email and IM are tracked by default
B. centralized reporting across more than one Scanner requires a dedicated reporting appliance
C. reports can be scheduled on a daily or weekly basis
D. reports can be saved to a favorites list for easy access
E. report data retention is managed on the same schedule and frequency as log retention
Answer: CD

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NO.14 Which three are functions of the Control Center? (Select three.)
A. Consolidates logging information
B. Houses Email Spam Quarantine messages
C. Generates encrypted structured data indexes
D. Executes email policies
Answer: ABC

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NO.15 What is a key prerequisite for enabling the end-user Email Spam Quarantine feature?
A. Selecting the 'Delete messages sent to unresolved email addresses' option
B. Importing a list of allowed users on the Quarantine Setup page
C. Defining an LDAP source for synchronization
D. Defining an LDAP source for authentication
Answer: D

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Exam Code: ST0-10X
Exam Name: Symantec (Veritas Storage Foundation 5 for Unix (STS))
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Total Q&A: 198 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 The vxprint command output for volume vol07 indicates that it has three plexes. How will you
determine which plexes are used for data?
A.Note the lengths. Data plexes are all the same length.
B.Note the STATE field. Non-data plexes will be indicated by the value: LOG.
C.Note the STATE field. Data plexes will be indicated by the value: MIRROR.
D.Note the RECORD TYPE field. Data plexes are designated with PL.
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is the minimum number of plexes required for true mirroring to provide redundancy of data?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.Four
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which structure records are stored in the private region? (Each correct Answer presents part of the
solution. Select three.)
A.Disk group configuration
B.Disk and disk group ID
C.File system metadata
D.Disk group kernel log
E.Partition tables
Answer: ABD

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NO.4 You want to allow non-layered volume to change to layered stripe-mirror volume while remaining online.
What is the correct procedure to perform this conversion?
A.Convert the volume, stop the volume, remount the file system, and start the volume.
B.Unmount the file system, stop the volume, convert the volume, start the volume, and remount the file
system.
C.Resync the volume, convert the volume, and mirror the volume.
D.Stop the volume and then convert the volume.
Answer: C

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NO.5 You place six physical disks under Volume Manager control to create 10GB of volume. You want to
use this volume as an archive directory. You need to create a volume that will store three copies of the
archived data. Which command will you use to create a volume with three plexes?
A.vxassist make archivevol 30g layout=stripe-mirror nmirror=3
B.vxassist make archivevol 30g layout=stripe-mirror ncolumn=3
C.vxassist make archivevol 10g layout=stripe-mirror nmirror=3
D.vxassist make archivevol 10g layout=stripe-mirror ncolumn=3
Answer: C

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NO.6 You have large number of mirrored volumes, and the resynchronization process on mirrored volumes
will take lot of time. You want to address enable Dirty Region Logging (DRL) and find out the cause why it
takes a long time for resynchronization. You want to check the status of DRL logging to see if it is already
enabled.
How will you accomplish this task?
A.Use the vxprint command with the -F%drllogging $DCOVOL option
B.Use the vxprint command with the -F%drllogging $DRLVOL option
C.Use the vxprint command with the -F%dcologging $DCOVOL option
D.Use the vxprint command with the -F%drllogging $$DCONAME option
Answer: D

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NO.7 You are monitoring a file system on a Solaris operating system using Veritas Volume Manager when
the following kernel message appears: WARNING: msgcnt x: mesg 069: V-2-69: memory usage specified
by the vxfs:vxfs_ninode and vxfs:vx_bc_bufhwm parameters exceeds available memory; the system may
hang under heavy load. You need to resolve this error. What should you do?
A.Increase the value of one or both parameters to 100% of physical memory or to 100% of kernel virtual
memory
B.Remove either the physical memory parameter or the kernel virtual memory parameter.
C.Leave the parameters at current levels and disregard the system message because it is a false
message.
D.Reduce the value of one or both parameters to less than 50% of physical memory or to 66% of kernel
virtual memory
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which three are the database agents that are supported by Storage Foundation High Availability
version? (Select three.)
A.Informix
B.DB/2
C.Ingress
D.Oracle
E.Sybase
F.SQL
Answer: BDE

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NO.9 How many free partitions do you need to encapsulate a boot disk?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which physical storage device is the equivalent to a virtual volume?
A.A disk
B.A partition
C.A block
D.A directory
Answer: B

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NO.11 The 'Administer' button in the Storage Foundation Management Server user interface for a host is
continually red, and the vxsvc32 agent is listed as DOWN.
How do you solve this problem?
A.Reconfigure the Storage Foundation management Server.
B.Reinstall the agent.
C.Restart Storage Foundation Management Server.
D.Change the types.ini configuration file on the Central Management Server.
Answer: D

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NO.12 You need to create a volume for the HR department. You need to mount a file system with a high
demand for I/O throughput. You are aware that spanning the volume across multiple disks will increase
the I/O performance. Which risk should you be aware of when spanning the volume across multiple
disks?
A.Write throughput degradation
B.Single disk failure causes volume failure
C.Requirement for disk redundancy
D.Poor I/O performance
Answer: B

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NO.13 You are auditing a current storage environment that is not utilizing storage tiering. The information
gained from the audit is to be used in a new storage tiering design that will have 4 tiers (Tiers 1-4). You
need to determine the location for archive data which needs to be accessible but is not used heavily.
Where should you store this data?
A.Tier 1: High-end storage arrays with fast, reliable network connections.
B.Tier 2: High-end arrays, but performance is not a priority.
C.Tier 3: Mid-range to low-end storage arrays with fast, reliable network connections.
D.Tier 4: low-cost media, such as tape, with little consideration given to performance.
Answer: C

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NO.14 You are working with the Storage Foundation Intelligent Storage Provisioning feature, to create a new
mirrored volume. To prevent system failure, you want to ensure that you are able to perform a recovery of
mirrored volumes in minimum response time.
What should you do?
A.Create a Dirty Region Log.
B.Create a Data Change Map log.
C.Create a RAID-5 log.
D.Create a Snap object log.
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which form of Disk Spanning allows you to map data in equally-sized chunks alternating across
multiple disks and is also known as interleaving?
A.Striping
B.Concatenation
C.Mirroring
D.Parity
Answer: A

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NO.16 What is the default limit to the number of subdisks that can be attached to a single plex?
A.1024
B.2048
C.4096
D.Unlimited
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which two restrictions does relayout place on the administration of a volume while it is in progress?
(Select two.)
A.During a relayout, you cannot create a sparse plex.
B.During a relayout, you cannot change the number of mirrors in a volume.
C.During a relayout, you cannot change the number of subdisks in a volume.
D.During a relayout, you cannot create a snapshot of a volume.
E.During a relayout, you cannot create a backup of a volume.
Answer: AD

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NO.18 You are responsible for administering the Storage Foundation for Sybase server. You want to remove a
mounted volume. What should you do first to ensure you are able to remove the mounted volume?
A.Remove the snapshot from the associated volume.
B.Recursively remove all plexes and subdisks.
C.Disassociate the snapshot from the associated volume.
D.Unmount the file system.
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which command will you use to determine the operating mode of vxconfigd?
A.vxdctl enable
B.vxdctl mode
C.vxmode
D.ps -ef |grep vxconfig
Answer: B

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NO.20 You have installed Storage Foundation 5.0 Standard server with a number of hosts. You want to
centrally monitor and manage the hosts. You also want to generate reports for the hosts and the storage
resources that the hosts consume. What should you do?
A.Install the Veritas Quick I/O option on Storage Foundation 5.0 server.
B.Install Veritas Storage Foundation Management Server on Storage Foundation 5.0 server.
C.Install Veritas Storage Foundation Management Host on Storage Foundation 5.0 server.
D.Upgrade Storage Foundation 5.0 Standard to Storage Foundation 5.0 Enterprise.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: ST0-096
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Backup Exec 2010(STS))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 160 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which two database versions can be used to store the Symantec Backup Exec 2010 Database
(BEDB)? (Select two.)
A.Microsoft SQL Server Desktop Engine 2000 SP3a
B.Microsoft SQL Express 2005 SP3
C.Microsoft SQL 2000 SP3a
D.Microsoft SQL 2008
E.Microsoft SQL 2005 SP2
Answer: BD

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NO.2 Which type of backup is used for an online database and other files that are open and in use by other
applications?
A.snapshot
B.flat
C.active
D.hot
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which Symantec Backup Exec 2010 utility automatically scans a computer targeted for installation and
reports on system requirements?
A.Backup Exec Installation Check
B.Backup Exec Diagnostic Check
C.Backup Exec Environment Check
D.Backup Exec Prerequisite Check
Answer: C

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NO.4 How can an administrator install the Backup Exec Database (BEDB) when installing Symantec Backup
Exec 2010 on a Windows 2008 Read-Only Domain Controller (RODC)?
A.locally, using Microsoft SQL Express
B.remotely, using Microsoft SQL Server 2005
C.remotely, using MySQL
D.locally, using Microsoft SQL 2005 in read-only mode
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which two options are available for Symantec Backup Exec 2010? (Select two.)
A.Symantec Backup Exec SAN Media Server Option
B.Symantec Backup Exec Deduplication Option
C.Symantec Backup Exec Inline Tape Copy Option
D.Symantec Backup Exec Granular Recovery Option
E.Symantec Backup Exec Advanced Disk-based Backup Option
Answer: BE

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NO.6 If LiveUpdate fails to install a patch, which file contains information to troubleshoot this issue?
A.Bkupinst.log
B.Bkupinst.htm
C.Liveupdate.htm
D.Liveupdate.log
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which job can Symantec Backup Exec 2010 be configured to run when certain Symantec ThreatCon
levels are reached?
A.virus scan
B.backup
C.duplicate backup
D.restore
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which added functionality becomes available when Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM),
Symantec Endpoint Protection (SEP), and Symantec Backup Exec 2010 (BE) are installed on the same
computer?
A.BE jobs can invoke a virus scan without using a script.
B.BE will display information from SEPM.
C.SEPM can initiate BE restore jobs.
D.SEP will quarantine virus-infected files and initiate a backup.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which components make up the basic Symantec Backup Exec 2010 installation?
A.Central Administration Server (CAS), media server, storage devices, and media
B.media server, Administration Console, domain controller, and clients
C.Central Administration Server (CAS), Administration Console, storage controllers, and media
D.media server, Administration Console, storage devices, and clients
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which versions of Symantec Backup Exec is supported for direct upgrade to Symantec Backup Exec
2010?
A.version 8.x and later
B.version 9.x and later
C.version 10.x and later
D.version 11.x and later
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which two Symantec Backup Exec 2010 Agents can use Granular Recovery Technology? (Select two.)
A.Active Directory Recovery Agent
B.Agent for Microsoft SharePoint
C.Agent for Lotus Domino
D.Agent for Oracle on Windows or Linux Servers
E.Agent for Enterprise Vault
Answer: AB

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NO.12 Which Symantec Backup Exec 2010 option allows backup of a NetApp filer?
A.Advanced Disk-Based Backup Option
B.NDMP Option
C.NAS Option
D.Remote Agent for NDMP devices
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which two functions does the Symantec Backup Exec 2010 media server perform? (Select two.)
A.controls and manages backup and restore operations
B.controls authentication and access to the SAN disk storage
C.controls role-based security
D.attaches to and controls storage device hardware
E.creates image-based system backups
Answer: AD

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NO.14 Which two rights does Symantec Backup Exec 2010 assign to the Backup Exec Service Account
during installation? (Select two.)
A.Log on as a service
B.Log on as administrator
C.Create a token object
D.Create a token administrator
E.Manage operator rights
Answer: AC

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NO.15 What are two supported processor types for installing and running a Symantec Backup Exec 2010
media server? (Select two.)
A.AMD
B.Itanium
C.RISC
D.Xeon
E.SPARC
Answer: AD

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NO.16 Which option is included with a server license in Symantec Backup Exec 2010?
A.Advanced Open File Option (AOFO)
B.Advanced Disk-based Backup Option (ADBO)
C.Central Admin Server Option (CASO)
D.Granular Recovery Technology Option (GRT)
Answer: A

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NO.17 What does Symantec Backup Exec 2010 use to track contents of media?
A.catalogs
B.job logs
C.media headers
D.media sets
Answer: A

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NO.18 What is stored directly in the Symantec Backup Exec Database (BEDB)?
A.alerts
B.job logs
C.license information
D.role-based security credentials
Answer: A

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NO.19 What is the trial period for Symantec Backup Exec 2010?
A.7 days
B.30 days
C.60 days
D.120 days
Answer: C

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NO.20 What is supported by Symantec Backup Exec 2010?
A.Windows NT 4.0
B.Lotus Domino
C.Tivoli Storage Manager
D.Microsoft Data Protection Manager
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 250-314
Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Backup Exec 2010)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 158 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 How is publishing disabled for a remote server on which the Remote Agent for Windows Systems is
installed?
A. run Backup Exec Utility on the media server and clear the "Enable the Remote Agent to publish
information to the media servers" check box under the Publishing tab
B. run the Remote Agent Utility on the media server and clear the "Enable the Remote Agent to publish
information to the media servers" check box under the Publishing tab
C. run Backup Exec Utility on the remote server and clear the "Enable the Remote Agent to publish
information to the media servers" check box under the Publishing tab
D. run the Remote Agent Utility on the remote server and clear the "Enable the Remote Agent to publish
information to the media servers" check box under the Publishing tab
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which setting in Tools -> Options can be changed to affect how long job history and job logs are kept?
A. Job Status and Recovery
B. Log management
C. Database maintenance
D. Preferences
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which utility can collect the Symantec Backup Exec 2010 log files?
A. VxGather.exe
B. VxCollect.exe
C. SGMon.exe
D. SymCollect.exe
Answer: A

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NO.4 How should an administrator determine why a job failed?
A. review catalogs
B. inspect the Job Monitor
C. review the job log
D. inspect policy history
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which two views are available in the Job Monitor in Symantec Backup Exec 2010? (Select two.)
A. Job List
B. Calendar
C. System Summary
D. Alerts
E. System Detail
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 Which two configuration changes can be made in order to reduce network traffic within a Central
Administration Server (CAS) environment? (Select two.)
A. keep the catalog files centralized
B. increase the interval time for job status updates
C. ensure that jobs created on the Managed Media Server (MMS) are monitored from the CAS
D. ensure jobs logs and histories are being sent to the CAS less frequently
E. enable some alerts to be rolled up to the CAS less frequently
Answer: B,D

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NO.7 A backup administrator has noticed that backups to a tape drive are running slow. What should be
done to improve performance?
A. enable the option 'Write SCSI pass-through mode', which allows Symantec Backup Exec 2010 to write
directly to the drive
B. configure the buffer size to be a higher value than what is currently configured
C. set the Remote Agent Priority to High which dedicates more CPU cycles for the backup
D. lower the buffer count on the tape device to ensure data is written to the device more quickly
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is the purpose of a temporary staging area in Symantec Backup Exec 2010?
A. uses a cache area to apply encryption to data during backup
B. allows individual items to be recovered from a tape-based image
C. allows database backups to be cataloged enabling granular recovery
D. uses available system RAM to process datadeduplication during backup
Answer: B

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NO.9 A restore job fails with access denied errors. What is the next step that should be taken?
A. start the Backup Exec Remote Agent on the appropriate machine
B. enable restore rights in Logon Account Management
C. check the restore job credentials for appropriate rights
D. change the logon account for the Backup Exec Remote Agent
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which process is used to install Symantec tape device drivers after attaching a new tape library on a
Symantec Backup Exec 2010 media server?
A. right-click on the device inside the Devices view and choose Install Tape Drivers
B. use Windows Device Manager to install Symantec drivers
C. use the Tape Device Configuration Wizard to install Symantec drivers
D. use the Tape Driver Install Wizard to install Symantec drivers
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which file is created when the user selects the Save contents of database to the Backup Exec data
directory option?
A. BEDB.DAT
B. BEDB.BAK
C. BEDB_DAT.MDF
D. BEDB_Log.LDF
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which two data categories are available through standard reports in Symantec Backup Exec 2010?
(Select two.)
A. alerts
B. policy templates
C. jobs
D. accounts
E. catalogs
Answer: A,C

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NO.13 What is used to perform database maintenance tasks on the Symantec Backup Exec 2010 database?
A. VXGather.exe
B. DBUtility.exe
C. BEConfigure.exe
D. BEUtility.exe
Answer: C

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NO.14 To ensure that the Symantec Backup Exec database is kept within the maximum database size
limitations, which two options should be set to control the amount of data that is groomed? (Select two.)
A. alert history
B. catalogs
C. install files
D. job history
E. backup-to-disk files
Answer: A,D

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NO.15 Which Restore Selections view displays a list of protected servers regardless of which media contains
the data?
A. View by Computer
B. View by Server
C. View by Resource
D. View Selection Details
Answer: C

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NO.16 An administrator needs to restore several different versions of an existing file. Which option should be
chosen?
A. Restore Redirection
B. Restore Versions
C. File Versioning
D. File Redirection
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which two statements are true about the "Recovered Jobs" Error Handling rule? (Select two.)
A. It is only used in a Central Administration Server (CAS) environment.
B. It is enabled by default.
C. It is used to recover all failed jobs.
D. It retries the job based on the "Recovered Jobs" error handling rule settings.
E. It terminates the active job and sends an alert.
Answer: B,D

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NO.18 Which two notification delivery methods can receive job logs as part of the notification process? (Select
two.)
A. pager
B. printer
C. email
D. fax
E. Instant Messenger
Answer: B,C

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NO.19 Which two features are customizable in backup reports? (Select two.)
A. page orientation
B. report header
C. report font
D. page size
E. report footer
Answer: B,E

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NO.20 In the Job Monitor tab, when is the "Created On" column visible?
A. when Detailed Monitoring is enabled
B. when there is a Central Administration Server (CAS)
C. when the Date field is added to the View properties
D. when the backup job state is Running
Answer: B

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