2013年10月2日星期三

EMC certification E20-880 exam training programs

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Exam Code: E20-880
Exam Name: EMC (VNX Solutions Expert Exam for Technology Architects)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 128 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-02

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NO.1 A SQL Data Warehouse database is replicating between two VNX storage systems with Incremental
San Copy. The production database is on 15, 15k rpm SAS drives and the Reserved LUN Pool uses five
NL-SAS drives. The database is continuously updated locally and replicated once a day to maximize the
benefits of write folding. Replication takes place from 6 PM until 10 PM. At 6 PM the storage administrator
notices an increase in response time of the application, which steadily improves until 10 PM.
What should be done to improve performance during replication without affecting recovery data
granularity?
A. Put the Reserve LUN Pool on a similar disk and RAID type as the source volume.
B. Create a clone of the source volume and replicate the clone.
C. Expand the number of drives in the source volume to accommodate the increased I/O from the
replication session.
D. Adjust the San Copy throttle to minimize the impact to the production application.
Answer: A

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NO.2 You are migrating a backup application that runs on physical servers to a VDC. The VDC storage is
currently a VNX configured with NL-SAS drives only. Your customer is concerned about the cost to
achieve reasonable performance. You are designing the VMs that will support the application.
Based on cost, which would be the first solution you would recommend?
A. VMware Paravirtual SCSI virtual adapter
B. Virtual adapter is BusLogic Parallel
C. FAST VP Pool (Flash and SAS drives)
D. SAS RAID Group
Answer: A

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NO.3 A customer is about to implement your VNX for File design for a file-sharing environment. The design
specifies both NFS and Windows clients that access file systems in a multi-threaded manner. All file
systems will be created using the Automatic Volume Manager. The customer is most concerned with disk
efficiency, and wants to use all storage in each pool entry before creating another.
Which value would you change to meet this requirement?
A. is_greedy
B. slice
C. is_dynamic
D. stripesize
Answer: A

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NO.4 A customer has created a thin LUN, enabled compression on a LUN Pool, and installed their Exchange
environment. The Exchange application is showing poor performance.
Which workload characteristic of Exchange would produce poor access times on a compressed LUN?
A. Small random writes
B. Small random reads
C. Sequential reads
D. Uncompressed or host based data
Answer: A

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NO.5 A company has added a large number of users to a VMware VDI deployment. The users are
complaining that the system (VNX-Block) is slow, especially when they start their shift. You have been
tasked to provide an economical solution.
Which technology would you use to improve performance?
A. FAST Cache
B. FAST VP
C. FAST
D. Fast VPN
Answer: A

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NO.6 A customer would like to use five Ethernet ports on a VNX to increase the port and switch availability.
Two non-stackable Ethernet switches are available for the VNX and both support Full Duplex
communications.
How should the customer configure the VNX for the network?
A. Fail Safe Networking and Link Aggregation
B. Link Aggregation only
C. EtherChannel and Fail Safe Networking
D. EtherChannel only
Answer: A

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NO.7 A customer has a VNX system to provide storage for a VMware Cluster with five ESX hosts. Each ESX
host has one dual-port FC HBA connected to two FC switches. They are using VMware native failover
functionality for high availability and load-balancing.
The customer requires higher availability for the ESX host connectivity to the storage system.
What would you recommend to the customer?
A. Use dual HBAs with dual ports on each ESX host.
B. Use a host-based load balancing solution.
C. Use high quality stackable FC switches.
D. Current configuration ensures the best availability.
Answer: A

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NO.8 A customer would like to configure their VNX for File for the highest possible level of client availability.
There are five Ethernet ports on a single DataMover and a single Ethernet switch available for client
communications.
What availability features would you recommend to the customer?
A. Link Aggregation Control Protocol only
B. EtherChannel port aggregation and Fail Safe Networking
C. Fail Safe Networking and Link Aggregation Control Protocol
D. EtherChannel port aggregation only
Answer: A

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NO.9 A VNX storage system is being configured to provide storage for an Exchange 2010 implementation for
2,000 users. Performance and reliability are more important than cost for the customer.
What RAID configuration should be used?
A. A RAID 1/0 Group, spread across two DAEs on two separate storage system busses
B. Two RAID 5 Groups in a striped metaLUN across two DAEs, one from each back end bus
C. A RAID 1/0 Group on a single DAE
D. A RAID 6 Group which can accommodate two simultaneous drive failures
Answer: A

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NO.10 A customer is in the design phase of their SQL server implementation. They request your guidance
concerning the number of disk drives needed to properly configure the database for performance. The
current utilization of the database is shown below:S
-85% reads and 15% writes
-10K SAS disks
-RAID 1/0
-1150 IOPS
What is the minimum number of disk spindles required to service the random I/O requests during usage of
the SQL Server database?
A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 14
Answer: B

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NO.11 A client has asked for assistance with designing his Exchange environment. The environment today is
fully virtualized and Exchange will be as well. The client is concerned about local recovery and has
decided to make VMware snapshots of their VMFS File system housing Exchange. The VMware servers
are all attached through fiber to a VNX.
What volume type is required to meet the customer's protection needs?
A. Virtual Mode RDMs
B. Physical Mode RDMs
C. VMFS
D. Dedicated RAID Group LUNs
Answer: A

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NO.12 A customer has designed an environment using block based LUNs presented to individual hosts. They
have configured a pool to start using both thick and thin LUNs. One of the standalone servers is an
archive server running on Windows. They want to maximize capacity on the standalone server since the
data is no longer accessed. They have no more drives to increase LUN capacity.
How can the customer increase available capacity to the archive server?
A. Compress the data on the block based LUN
B. Add capacity to the existing LUN
C. Delete old files
D. Back up the files, reconfigure the LUN, and restore the data
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which action would be most effective in reducing the performance impact of a Snapshot on a Source
LUN?
A. Using faster disks for the Source LUN
B. Using faster disks for the Reserved LUN Pool
C. Increasing the Snapshot chunk size
D. Increasing the Snapshot write-aside size
Answer: A

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NO.14 Your customer is designing a Proof of Concept with SQL Server attached to a VNX. The storage
design includes seven LUNs on a RAID Group. The system is generally very heavily loaded, with a
particularly high load on the cache. This is a very carefully controlled environment and your customer has
asked for assistance in planning the layout of the LUN location on the physical spindles.
Where in the RAID Group would you recommend placing the two heavily used LUNs for a short-stroked
architecture?
A. Adjacent to each other at the beginning
B. One at beginning and one at the end
C. Adjacent to each other in the middle
D. Evenly placed, as non-adjacent as possible
Answer: A

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NO.15 You are working with a customer to design a VNX for Block solution for their SQL database. They
currently have a CX4-480. In the past they have co-located their database and log files. In the new VNX
design, the database will be placed in a FAST VP enabled pool. The transaction logs will be placed on a
traditional RAID Group. Your customer needs help determining the number of spindles they need to
satisfy the needs of their transaction logs.
You know the following: -Transactionperiod:8 hours (business day) -Throughput during transaction
period:240 GB
How many RAID 1/0 15K spindles will the transaction log volume require?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 10
D. 16
Answer: D

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NO.16 A pair of VNX storage arrays is replicating between two data centers over an iSCSI connection. The
SQL Admin has noticed that a small OLTP database with a write size of 4k periodically experiences
increased disk response times. The Storage Admin reports that during the same period, replication
sessions are taking longer to complete. The Network Admin reports degraded performance between the
sites during the same period.
Why is the SQL application seeing increased disk response times from the local array?
A. Increased latency causes the MirrorView/A update cycles to take longer, increasing COFW activity.
B. The 64 KB chunk size for MirrorView/A does not match the small transaction size of the database,
increasing the bandwidth required between the arrays.
C. The MirrorView/A update cycle time is too short. It should be increased to improve write folding.
D. The MirrorView/A buffer size should be adjusted to match the smaller write I/O size.
Answer: A

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NO.17 A customer is in the design phase of their SQL server implementation. They request your guidance
concerning the number of disk drives needed to properly configure the database for performance. The
current utilization of the database is shown below:
-80% reads and 20% writes
-10K SAS disks
-RAID 5
-1150 IOPS
What is the minimum number of disk spindles required to service the random I/O requests during usage of
the SQL Server database?
A. 12
B. 14
C. 18
D. 20
Answer: B

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NO.18 As a result of suffering a catastrophic failure, your customer has requested a DR solution. The solution
must introduce a higher level of availability for their Exchange 2010 system. You have recommended a
strategy that involves Replication Manager with native DAG.
In what state(s) of the database would the replication occur?
A. Either active or passive
B. Active only
C. Passive only
D. Neither active nor passive
Answer: A

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NO.19 Your customer has a new VNX solution configured with Flash, SAS, and NL-SAS drives. The customer
requires their OLTP, VDI, Software Development, and Regulatory Compliance workloads to be distributed
between the different drive types. Due to limited drive quantities only one workload type can be configured
using Flash drives.
According to best practices which configuration best assigns the workloads.?
A. VDI on Flash drives; OLTP on SAS; Software Development on SAS; Regulatory Compliance on
NL-SAS
B. OLTP on Flash drives; VDI on SAS; Regulatory Compliance on SAS; Software Development on
NL-SAS
C. OLTP on Flash drives; VDI on SAS; Software Development on SAS; Regulatory Compliance on
NL-SAS
D. VDI on Flash drives; OLTP on SAS; Regulatory Compliance on SAS; Software Development on
NL-SAS
Answer: A

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NO.20 A customer is checking a NAR file in Unisphere Analyzer. They see that a RAID Group with only a single
LUN is shown with consistently large Disk - Average Seek Distances.
What could this indicate?
A. Randomness of the I/O
B. Write utilization
C. LUN misalignment
D. Applicationburstiness
Answer: A

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2013年10月1日星期二

IBQH IBQH001 exam study materials

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Exam Code: IBQH001
Exam Name: IBQH (International Board for Quality in Healthcare)
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Total Q&A: 300 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-01

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NO.1 At an infection control meeting, the discussion was focused on the new neurosurgery department
which will be opened soon. Regarding the infection control measures, which must be taken to minimize
the risk of transmission of Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (CJD) and other prion diseases which of the
following statements is incorrect?
A. Flash sterilization is not effective in sterilizing equipment contaminated by prions
B. For semi critical items, immersion in 1 N sodium hydroxide for an hour is sufficient
C. Steam sterilization by gravity displacement autoclave 132 ¡ãC for 30 minutes is te preferred method
D. Prevacuum sterilizer at 134¡ãC for 18 minutes is effective
Answer: B

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NO.2 Company procedures require the creation of a lessons learned document. Which of the following is the
best use of this document?
A. Planning record for the current project
B. Planning for future projects
C. Informing the team about what the project manager has done
D. Informing the team about the project management plan
Answer: B

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NO.3 In the matrix management organization, which of the following is true?
A. The functional manager is responsible for improvement of employees ¯ sk ill s
B. The project manager is responsible for the employees' annual appraisal
C. The employee is responsible for his or her own skills improvement
D. The project manager is responsible for employees' skills improvement
Answer: A

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NO.4 The most important procedure for the prevention of infection from germs and viruses is
A. Wearing gloves
B. Wearing surgical mask
C. Effective hand washing
D. Wearing protective eyewear
Answer: C

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NO.5 Standard precautions are measures of infection control that are used to reduce or eliminate exposure
to infectious agents .They include all of the following except
A. Work practices
B. Engineering controls
C. Personal protective equipment
D. Isolation of patients infected by contagious diseases
Answer: D

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NO.6 To establish effective infection control in a health care facility which of the following is critical?
A. A physician and a nurse with responsibilities for infection control
B. A manual of critical infection control policies and an educational program for staff
C. Senior management commitment
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.7 Your company's largest client has just completed an audit of your quality system. Three major
deficiencies were identified, and you risk losing this client if the problems are not corrected. As quality
manager the best plan of action is
A. Identify and correct the root cause of the deficiencies and implement changes to improve the quality
system
B. Reprimand the employees that caused the deficiencies
C. Wait until another client finds the same deficiencies, and then form a task team to investigate the
problems
D. Promise the client that the problems will be corrected
Answer: C

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NO.8 Effective communication is needed for
A. getting things done
B. Conferring with others to come to terms with them or to reach an agreement
C. The exchange of information
D. Taking decisions independently
Answer: C

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NO.9 Project success depends on a number of interrelated factors including time, cost, and scope control.
The success of any project depends primarily on.?
A. Customer compromise in defining his needs
B. Exceeding customer requirements through gold plating.
C. Customer satisfaction
D. Customer-supplier relationship
Answer: C

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NO.10 In a debate about the use of clean disposable gloves versus not using any gloves while giving
subcutaneous injections, which of the following can mostly help the infection control physician make a
decision?
A. Risk assessment
B. National guidelines
C. Cost benefit and availability of the gloves in the healthcare facility
D. The decision provided by the infection control committee
Answer: A

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NO.11 One of the most important duties that the project manager performs is
A. Cost management
B. Integration management
C. Quality management
D. Risk management
Answer: B

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NO.12 The Infection control team in a hospital carried out a survey to estimate the incidence of health care
workers colonized by MRSA. During presenting the data in a meeting of the team, what is the most
important information they should look for while analyzing the results of the survey?
A. Gender of the HCW colonized by MRSA
B. The ward where MRSA colonized HCW work
C. Type of patients they serve
D. Site of MRSA colonization (nose, hands or other site)
Answer: B

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NO.13 A project is defined as
A. An endeavor, which is planned, executed, and controlled, performed by people, and constrained by
limited resources
B. A process of considerable scope that implements a plan
C. A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product or service
D. An objective based effort of temporary nature
Answer: C

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NO.14 A case of hepatic cirrhosis was admitted to the ER. The patient had an attack of hematemesis few
minutes after admission and a large blood spill covered the floor .The nurse in charge brought the blood
spill kit and removed the blood. All the following are component of the blood spill kit except
A. Diluted chlorine solution
B. Goggle and plastic apron
C. Sterile gloves
D. Absorbent disposable tissue
Answer: C

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NO.15 To make a risk assessment of a procedure to choose your personal protective equipment, all of the
following must be kept in consideration except
A. The nature of the procedure
B. The risk of exposure to blood or body fluids
C. The risk of exposure to pathogenic micro-organisms
D. The race of the patient
Answer: D

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NO.16 All of the following occur during the planning process group except
A. Develop project charter
B. Create WBS
C. Estimate costs
D. Sequence activities
Answer: A

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NO.17 An infection control team conducted a refreshment training day for surgeons and nurses of the
operating theatre. All of the following were recommended for sound infection control practice in their
everyday practice except
A. Open foot wear must never be worn in the operating room
B. Personnel attending the patient should not leave the theatre until gown, mask, gloves and goggles are
all removed
C. If the gloves are torn, they should be removed immediately and other sterile gloves are worn
D. Double sterile gloves are recommended for all surgeons involved in the surgery
Answer: C

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NO.18 Project management processes can be organized into
A. Initiating, planning, executing, controlling, and closing
B. Initiating, planning, contracting, executing, and administration
C. Designing, developing, testing, implementing and controlling
D. Initiating, designing, planning, executing, controlling, and Implementation
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which organization is closest to a functional organization?
A. Strong matrix organization
B. Balanced matrix organization
C. Projectized organization
D. Weak matrix organization
Answer: D

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NO.20 During the team building phase in paediatric department, which of the following best describes the
actions of the team?
A. The group is uncertain of their duties
B. Members prioritize and perform tasks
C. The team leader usually delegates
D. The team functions run smoothly
Answer: A

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NO.1 Which methods of service integration within PRPC requires the configuration of a listener? (Choose
Two)
A. BPEL
B. HTTP
C. JMS
D. MQ
E. dotNet
Answer: C,D

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NO.2 Which statement is true regarding how locking works with covers? (Choose One)
A. By default, the cover does not get locked when you open a covered object, but this is configurable
B. By default, the cover is locked when you open a covered object, but this is configurable
C. The cover must always be locked when working on the cover or one of its covered work objects
because updates occur on the cover throughout processing of the covered work objects
D. Cover object locking is identical to that of other work objects, in that it is only locked when it is opened
by a requestor
Answer: B

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NO.3 A customer implementation necessitates the usage of Message-driven beans. Which of these
platforms can the solution be deployed on? (Choose Two)
A. JBoss (EAR Deployment)
B. WebLogic (WAR Deployment)
C. WebSphere (EAR Deployment)
D. Tomcat (WAR Deployment)
E. All of the above
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 What determines which table a work object is persisted to? (Choose One)
A. The Data-Admin-DB-Table record for the class group the work object belongs to and the access group
the current user belongs to
B. The RuleSet the class belongs, and Data-Admin-DB-Table definitions
C. The Data-Admin-DB-Table record associated to the class group the work object belongs to
D. The RuleSet the class belongs to
Answer: C

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NO.5 A PRPC installation has 3 nodes. An Agent rule has a single agent listed which takes data from an
external system. It would cause contention issues if it ran on more than one node. What is the
recommended way to ensure the agent only runs in one cluster? (Choose One)
A. Delete the Agent schedule on two nodes
B. Disable the Agent schedule on two of the nodes, either from the Agent Schedule rule form or using the
System Management Application
C. Disable the master agent on two nodes
D. In your Agent activity call a decision table to verify host name of the system (application)
Answer: B

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NO.6 Where can you view the contents of the Rule Instance Cache? (Choose One)
A. Using the SMA you can view the contents of the instance cache which are displayed in the form of an
Excel file
B. Using the Developer Portal you can view the contents of the instance cache which are displayed in the
form of an excel file and is accessed from the tools > instance cache menu
C. By viewing the XML files from the TEMPDIR\PRGenJava\XML directory
D. By viewing the XML files from the pzInsKey column by using JDBC code
Answer: A

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NO.7 The BLOB is stored in the pzPVStream column of a table and contains the data associated with the
instance. Which two statements are false? (Choose Two)
A. Since it is a column in a table in a database, you can extract the BLOB and use it in another system
B. The BLOB contains the same clear text xml you see when clicking the rule data or the View XML option
in the clipboard
C. The PzPVStream
can be eliminated by use of simple tables (those without embedded pages and
page lists)
D. The BLOB enables a single table to store complex data structures that would normally require multiple
tables in a normalized database
Answer: A,B

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NO.8 Why does PRPC create a Data-Agent-Queue instance when you create a Rule-Agent-Queue instance?
(Choose One)
A. Data-Agent-Queue instances are not locked so they allow you to control the behavior of Agents in a
locked RuleSet at runtime
B. Data-Agent-Queue instances are created by PRPC to support the new Queue For Agent functionality
which was provided since PRPC v5.4
C. Data-Agent-Queue instances are created automatically by PRPC whenever the Queue-For-Agent
method is used in an activity step to queue work for the Agent
D. Data-Agent-Queue instances are data instances which are used by the Queue Manager functionality to
allow for concurrent access to a queued piece of work by agents running on multiple nodes
E. Data-Agent-Queue instances represent the master definition of PRPC agents and have been
deprecated as of PRPC v5.4 in favor of using Rule-Agent-Queue
Answer: A

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NO.9 What does the system pulse do? (Choose Three)
A. It is used by PRPC to synchronize changes to the Data-Agent-Schedule instances whenever a
Rule-Agent-Queue instance is modified
B. It invalidates rule caches on a per node basis using entries in the pr_sys_updatescache table
C. It processes changes to the Lucene indexes that support full text searches
D. It synchronizes the lookup list cache deletions and any rule-file-deletes
E. It is used by PRPC to send out information to PAL on a weekly basis so that performance analysis can
be performed over a period of time
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.10 PegaRULES is installed on a multi-node system, and a copy of the various caches is stored on each
node. Each of these nodes must be updated with rule changes. Which functionality in PRPC manages the
update process? (Choose One)
A. Node-Pulse
B. Rule Cache
C. System-Update
D. System-Pulse
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which of the following are virtual memory based caches? (Choose Three)
A. Rule Cache
B. Rules Assembly Cache
C. Rule Resolution Cache
D. Lookup List Cache
E. Static Content Cache
F. Dictionary Cache
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.12 Which statement best describes the Rules Assembly Cache? (Choose One)
A. The Rules Assembly Cache is a disk based cache that stores the generated XML and resulting class
files, post compilation since what finally gets executed is XML, not java code
B. The Rules Assembly Cache is a memory based cache that reduces PegaRULES database traffic as it
contains copies of rules recently accessed or recently updated by developers
C. The Rules Assembly Cache is a memory based cache that allows Process Commander to rapidly
identify compiled Java CLASS files that correspond to compiled and assembled rules
D. The Rules Assembly Cache is a memory based cache used by PRPC to feed the Instance Cache as
the Instance Cache is the instance of a given rule for which code has been generated
Answer: C

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NO.13 What does the rollback method do? (Choose Two)
A. Cancels/Withdraws any pending obj-save and obj-delete methods
B. Rollback is not supported by PRPC when using a WAR deployment. The only way you can do a
rollback is by using the compensating actions method
C. Rollback is a way to rollback an object to a previous state using the History instance for a work object
D. Rolls back the deferred stack of operations for the specified page
Answer: A,D

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NO.14 Select the valid modes an Agent can have since PRPC 5.4? (Choose Three)
A. Normal
B. Legacy
C. Standard
D. Advanced
E. Modes are not required to be selected for Agents in PRPC 5.4
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.15 When a rule executes what is really executed.? (Choose One)
A. XML which is stored in the BLOB
B. Java code which is compiled from the XML stored in the BLOB
C. A class file which is stored in the BLOB
D. A serialized java object which is stored in the BLOB
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which statements in regards to commits in PRPC are false? (Choose Two)
A. All database updates require that the requestor holds a lock on the object
B. The system performs commits automatically when processing for a submit operation of a flow action
completes, for both connector and local flow actions
C. Commit operations can trigger the execution of Declare-Trigger rules
D. Assuming distributed transaction is not configured and the deferred operation list contains operations
for only one database. When the system commits all deferred operations for the requestor, if any of the
writes fail, they all fail
E. The deferred operations will be committed when you use the write-now option with the obj-save
method because this causes a commit to occur
Answer: A,E

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NO.17 PRPC can be installed using a WAR or EAR configuration. Which of the following does NOT require an
EAR configuration? (Choose One)
A. JMS message services support need to be provided
B. Support for two-phase commits is required
C. Support for EJB services need to be provided
D. J2EE security is required
E. JSR-94 support is required
Answer: E

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NO.18 Which one of the following statements is true regarding the PRPC threading model? (Choose One)
A. PRThreads are similar to Java threads and the types include STANDARD, DEVELOPER, and
OPENPORTAL
B. A PRThread is essentially a namespace which allows a Requestor to have separate clipboard pages
that do not interact with each other
C. Multiple PRThreads can be executed concurrently depending on whether multi-threading is enabled
D. All of the above
Answer: B

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NO.19 What four steps must be taken to unit test a connector within a flow when the target interface/system is
not yet available? (Choose Four)
A. Create a Simulation activity
B. Set the connector to simulate in the Simulation data instance and specify the activity
C. Use Tracer and set a breakpoint
D. Define a Connect Simulation instance
E. Test the flow with simulation enabled
F. Create a new Integrator task
Answer: A,B,D,E

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NO.20 What purpose and effect does the Obj-Refresh-and-Lock method have? (Choose One)
A. It has no effect if a lock is held and has not expired
B. It will reacquire a lock and will always refresh the contents of the object from the Database
C. If the lock is not held, the method will acquire a lock and always replace the step page contents with
the current values from the database
D. This method has been deprecated as of PRPC 5.3 in support of the Obj-Browse method which handles
refresh and locking automatically
E. This method is highly efficient and will only refresh the object if the content on the clipboard is older
than the current state in the database and will also force lockthe object regardless ofholds the lock
Answer: A

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Exam Code: M70-301
Exam Name: Magento (Magento Front End Developer Certification Exam)
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Total Q&A: 108 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-01

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A. "Is Anchor" set to "Yes"
B. "Show Filters" set to "Yes"
C. "Category Links" set to "No"
D. "Is Active" set to "No"
Answer: A

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need to make a change to the ___ area of Magento.
A. XML
B. Admin Panel
C. CSS
D. Block
Answer: B

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B. app/design/frontend/base/default/template/customsearch/form.mini.phtml
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D. app/design/frontend/my_package/my_theme/template/catalogsearch/form.mini.phtml
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Answer: D

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NO.4 Where can you assign a root category for a new store in your Magento installation?
A. Global
B. Website
C. Store
D. Store View
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which four of the following page elements can be updated from the Magento Admin in
System-> Configuration-> Design? (Choose FOUR.)
A. Breadcrumb Separator
B. Copyright
C. Favicon
D. Logo
E. Navigation
F. Page Title
G. Top Links
Answer: B,C,D,F

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NO.6 Which two of the following code samples contain correct XML code for adding style.css to a
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A. <action method= "add"><stylesheet>css/styles.css</stylesheet></action>
B. <action method="addCss"><stylesheet>css/styles.css</stylesheet></action>
C. <action method="addltem"><name>css/styles.css</name></action>
D. <action method= "addltem"><type>css</type><name> css/styles.css </name></action>
E. <action method="addltem" ><type>skin_css</ type><name> css/styles.css</name></action>
Answer: B,E

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NO.7 Which three types of file are contained in the folder "skin/" in Magento? (Choose THREE.)
A. CSS
B. Image
C. JavaScript
D. Layout
E. Template
F. Translate
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.8 What is the function of the attribute output= "to Html" when applied to a <block> tag?
A. Renders a block without any other explicit calls
B. Specifies the sequence of blocks on the page
C. Marks a block as a structural block
D. Marks a block as a content block
Answer: A

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Exam Code: CTAL-TM-001
Exam Name: ISQI (ISTQB Certified Tester Advanced Level - Test Manager)
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Last Update: 2013-10-01

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NO.1 Since the system is in the medical domain and therefore in the safety critical area, testing needs to be
rigorous and evidence is required that the system has been adequately tested. Identify THREE measures
that would typically be part of the test approach in this domain and which are not always applicable in
other domains! 1 credit
A. High level of documentation
B. Failure Mode and Effect Analysis (FMEA) sessions
C. Traceability to requirements
D. Non-functional testing
E. Master test planning
F. Test design techniques
G. Reviews
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.2 Considerable attention will be given in this project to defining exit criteria and on reporting back on their
status. Which combination of TWO exit criteria from the list would be best to use? 1 credit
I. Total number of defects found
II. Percentage of test cases executed
III. Total test effort planned versus total actual test effort spent
IV. Defect trend (number of defects found per test run over time
A. (i) and (ii)
B. (i) and (iv)
C. (ii) and (iii)
D. (ii) and (iv)
Answer: D

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Topic 2, Scenario 2 "Reviews"
A software development organization wants to introduce some specific improvements to its test
process. Currently, most of their testing resources are focussedon system testing. They are
developing embedded software, and do not have a simulation environment to enable them
toexecute software modules on the development host. They have been advised that introducing
inspections and reviews could be the most appropriate step forward.

NO.3 You have been given responsibility for the non-functional testing of a safety-critical monitoring &
diagnostics package in the medical area. Which of the following would you least expect to see addressed
in the test plan? 1 credit
A. Availability
B. Safety
C. Portability
D. Reliability
Answer: C

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NO.4 Explain how the above mentioned report may differ from a report that you produce for the project
manager, who is a test specialist Select TWO items from the following options that can be used to report
to the project manager and would not be included in a report to senior management. 1 credit
A. Show details on effort spent
B. List of all outstanding defects with their priority and severity
C. Give product risk status
D. Show trend analysis
E. State recommendations for release
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 Identify the THREE types of formal peer reviews that can be recognized. 1 credit
A. Inspection
B. Management review
C. Walkthrough
D. Audit
E. Technical review
F. Informal review
G. Assessment
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.6 As part of the improvement program, the organization is also looking at tool support. Which type of tool
could be used to ensure higher quality of the code to be reviewed? 1 credit
A. Review tool
B. Test execution tool
C. Static analysis tool
D. Test design tool
Answer: C

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NO.7 A test log is one of the documents that need to be produced in this domain in order to provide evidence
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factor for the level of detail of the test logs being produced? 1 credit
A. Level of test execution automation
B. Test level
C. Regulatory requirements
D. Experience level of testers
Answer: D

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NO.8 What is the main reason why reviews are especially beneficial in the above-mentioned scenario? 2
credits
A. They ensure a common understanding of the product.
B. They find defects early.
C. They enhance project communication.
D. They can be performed without exercising the code.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Consider the typical objectives of testing. Which of the following metrics can be used to measure the
effectiveness of the testing process in achieving one of those objectives? 1 credit
A. Average number of days between defect discovery and resolution
B. Percentage of requirements covered
C. Lines of code written per developer per day
D. Percentage of test effort spent on regression testing
Answer: B

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NO.10 Topic 1, Scenario 1 "Medical Domain"
You are working as a test manager in the medical domain leading a team of system testers. You are
currently working on a major release of the product which gives customers many new features and
resolves a number of problem reports from previous releases.
1.You are about to release a test progress report to a senior manager, who is not a test specialist. Which
of the following topics should NOT be included in the test progress report? 1 credit
A. Product risks which have been mitigated and those which are outstanding.
B. Recommendations for taking controlling actions
C. Status compared against the started exit criteria
D. Detailed overview of the risk-based test approach being used to ensure the exit criteria to be achieved
Answer: D

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Exam Code: CTAL-TM_001
Exam Name: ISQI (ISTQB Certified Tester Advanced Level - Test Manager)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 65 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-01

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NO.1 You have been given responsibility for the non-functional testing of a safety-critical
monitoring &
diagnostics package in the medical area. Which of the following would you least expect to
see addressed
in the test plan? 1 credit
A. Availability
B. Safety
C. Portability
D. Reliability
Answer: C

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NO.2 Consider the typical objectives of testing. Which of the following metrics can be used to
measure the
effectiveness of the testing process in achieving one of those objectives? 1 credit
A. Average number of days between defect discovery and resolution
B. Percentage of requirements covered
C. Lines of code written per developer per day
D. Percentage of test effort spent on regression testing
Answer: B

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NO.3 You are about to release a test progress report to a senior manager, who is not a test
specialist. Which
of the following topics should NOT be included in the test progress report? 1 credit
A. Product risks which have been mitigated and those which are outstanding.
B. Recommendations for taking controlling actions
C. Status compared against the started exit criteria
D. Detailed overview of the risk-based test approach being used to ensure the exit criteria to
be achieved
Answer: D

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NO.4 Since the system is in the medical domain and therefore in the safety critical area,
testing needs to be
rigorous and evidence is required that the system has been adequately tested. Identify
THREE measures
that would typically be part of the test approach in this domain and which are not always
applicable in
other domains! 1 credit
A. High level of documentation
B. Failure Mode and Effect Analysis (FMEA) sessions
C. Traceability to requirements
D. Non-functional testing
E. Master test planning
F. Test design techniques
G. Reviews
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.5 Explain how the above mentioned report may differ from a report that you produce for
the project
manager, who is a test specialist Select TWO items from the following options that can be
used to report
to the project manager and would not be included in a report to senior management. 1 credit
A. Show details on effort spent
B. List of all outstanding defects with their priority and severity
C. Give product risk status
D. Show trend analysis
E. State recommendations for release
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 Considerable attention will be given in this project to defining exit criteria and on
reporting back on their
status. Which combination of TWO exit criteria from the list would be best to use? 1 credit
I. Total number of defects found
II. Percentage of test cases executed
III. Total test effort planned versus total actual test effort spent
IV. Defect trend (number of defects found per test run over time
A. (i) and (ii)
B. (i) and (iv)
C. (ii) and (iii)
D. (ii) and (iv)
Answer: D

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NO.7 As part of the improvement program, the organization is also looking at tool support.
Which type of tool
could be used to ensure higher quality of the code to be reviewed? 1 credit
A. Review tool
B. Test execution tool
C. Static analysis tool
D. Test design tool
Answer: C

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NO.8 What is the main reason why reviews are especially beneficial in the above-mentioned
scenario? 2
credits
A. They ensure a common understanding of the product.
B. They find defects early.
C. They enhance project communication.
D. They can be performed without exercising the code.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Identify the THREE types of formal peer reviews that can be recognized. 1 credit
A. Inspection
B. Management review
C. Walkthrough
D. Audit
E. Technical review
F. Informal review
G. Assessment
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.10 A test log is one of the documents that need to be produced in this domain in order to
provide evidence
of testing. However, the level of detail of test logs can vary. Which of the following is NOT an
influencing
factor for the level of detail of the test logs being produced? 1 credit
A. Level of test execution automation
B. Test level
C. Regulatory requirements
D. Experience level of testers
Answer: D

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Exam Code: CVA
Exam Name: NACVA (Certified Valuation Analyst (CVA))
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Total Q&A: 251 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-01

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NO.1 The definition of specific business interest can be broken down into two broad questions:
1.-Is the valuation to be a valuation of assets or a valuation of securities?
2)-In either case, exactly what assets or what securities are subject to valuation? By securities
in above context, we mean:
A. Ownership interests; such as marketable securities and commercial papers
B. Ownership interests; such as stock, dept and partnership interests
C. Partnership interests
D. Equity or invested capital
Answer: B

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5. Valuation of
must be specified. For example, the assignment might include
language such as” ...engaged to estimate the fair market value of the fixed assets, inventory,
and goodwill, on a going-concern basis of...”
A. Assets
B. Securities
C. Cooperatives
D. Partnerships
Answer: A

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NO.2 S corporations, limited liability corporations, limited liability partnerships, family limited
partnerships, professional corporations, real estate investment trust, investment companies
registered under the investment company act of 1940 and personal holding companies are the
examples of:
A. General and limited partnerships
B. Cooperatives
C. Entities’ structures giving rise to special legal or tax considerations (specified structure)
D. Companies following valuation standards
Answer: C

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NO.3 The United State is by far the world leader in markets for both publicly traded securities and
closely held businesses and business interests. Two factors have combined to accelerate the
spread of U.S technology in financial appraisals and market throughout the world. Which of
the following is/are of those factors?
A. Rapidly increasing international flow of capital
B. Growing privatization of formerly socially owned businesses in almost every country of
the world.
C. Increased inflation in major parts of the world
D. Secondary market securities trading phenomenon
Answer: A, B

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NO.4 When specifying, who is to provide the valuation services, the important distinction is
whether the client is retaining the appraisal firm itself or the individual appraiser employed
by the firm. The common practice is:
A. To retain the individual appraiser rather than the firm
B. To retain the firm rather than individual appraiser, even though the expert witnesses testify
based upon their individual expertise and opinions
C. To retain the individual since the firm is responsible for completing the assignment
regardless of impairment the individual’s capability to perform the work
D. To retain firm as such practice also tends to provide discontinuity in retention of working
papers and related records, marking them accessible if they are needed months or even yearslater
as they frequently are
Answer: B

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