2013年11月1日星期五

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Exam Code: 1Z0-117
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Database 11g Release 2: SQL Tuning Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 125 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-01

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NO.1 Which two are benefits of In-Memory Parallel Execution?
A. Reduction in the duplication of block images across multiple buffer caches
B. Reduction in CPU utilization
C. Reduction in the number of blocks accessed
D. Reduction in physical I/O for parallel queries
E. Ability to exploit parallel execution servers on remote instance
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 Which two types of column filtering may benefit from partition pruning?
A. Equally operates on range-partitioned tables.
B. In-list operators on system-partitioned tables
C. Equality operators on system-partitioned tables
D. Operators on range-partitioned tables
E. Greater than operators on hash-partitioned tables
Answer: A,D

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NO.3 You have enabled DML by issuing: ALTER session ENABLE PARALLEL DML;
The PARELLEL_DEGREE_POLICY initialization parameter is set to AUTO.
Which two options true about DML statements for which parallel execution is requested?
A. Statements for which PDML is requested will execute serially estimated time is less than the
time specified by the PARALLEL_MIN_THRESHOLD parameter.
B. Statements for which PDML is requested will be queued if the number of busy parallel
execution servers greater than PARALLEL_MIN_SERVERS parameter.
C. Statements for which PDML is requested will always execute in parallel if estimated execution
in parallel if estimated execution time is greater than the time specified bythe
PARELLEL_MIN_TIME_THRESHOLD parameter.
D. Statements for which PDML is requested will be queued if the number of busy parallel
execution servers is greater than PARELLEL_SERVERS_TARGET parameter.
E. Statement for which PDML is requested will be queued if the number of busy parallel execution
servers is greater than PARELLEL_DEGREE_LIMIT parameter.
Answer: C,D

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NO.4 Which four statements are correct about communication between parallel execution process?
A. The number of logical pathways between parallel execution producers and consumers depends
on the degree parallelism.
B. The shared pool can be used for parallel execution messages buffers.
C. The large pool can be used for parallel execution messages buffers.
D. The buffer cache can be used for parallel execution message buffers.
E. Communication between parallel execution processes is never required if a query uses full
partition-wise joins.
F. Each parallel execution process has an additional connection to the parallel execution
coordinator.
Answer: A,B,E,F

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NO.5 Which three statements are true about histograms?
A. They capture the distribution of different values in an index for better selectivity estimates.
B. They can be used only with indexed columns.
C. They provide metadata about distribution of and occurrences of values in a table column.
D. They provide improved selectivity estimates in the presence of data skew, resulting in execution
plans with uniform distribution.
E. They help the optimizer in deciding whether to use an index or a full table scan.
F. They help the optimizer to determine the fastest table join order.
Answer: C,E,F

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Exam Code: 1Z1-591
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Business Intelligence Foundation Suite 11g Essentials)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 118 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-01

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NO.1 Which installation option is used to install into an existing Fusion Middleware Home?
A. Software Only Install
B. Simple Install
C. Enterprise Install
D. Cannot install into an existing Fusion Middleware Home
Answer: A

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NO.2 The highest sales amount for this year is $10,000. If you create a rank measure for sales
this year and display it on a report, the value will be .
A. $10,000
B. 0
C. 1
D. Year
Answer: C

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NO.3 The administration tool is the developer's interface to the repository file. It allows the
development of and changes to the metadata repository file. Which statement is true?
A. Changes to the repository can only be carried out in offline mode.
B. Multiple developers can work on one repository at the same time.Results can be
merged later on.
C. All aspects of security are being held in the repository file.
D. Opening the rpd.filein online mode results in performance Issues for the application
user.
Answer: B

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NO.4 What are the two methodologies that are followed within an OBIEE implementation?
A. Do not use prototypes
B. Use an iterative approach
C. Start with a small model and then enhance the repository
D. Start with a big repository and trim it down with the requirements
Answer: B, C

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NO.5 When a customer wants to get sales numbers by day, how is data stored in the Star
Schema, if the data is loaded nightly?
A. The lowest level of aggregation
B. The highest level of aggregation
C. Multiple levels of aggregation
D. Independently from aggregation level
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which two components are required for all OBIEE installations?
A. Admin Server
B. RCU Schema
C. Managed Server
D. Node Manager E.
Oracle 11g
Answer: B, E

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Exam Code: 1Z0-478
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle SOA Suite 11g Essentials)
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Total Q&A: 75 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-01

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NO.1 When more than one policy is attached to a policy subject, the combination of policies needs
to be valid. Which statement is true about the valid combination of policies for a policy subject?
A. Only one MTOM policy can be attached to a policy subject.
B. More than one Reliable Messaging policy can be attached to a policy subject.
C. Both a Reliable Messaging policy and a WS-Addressing policy cannot be attached to the same
policy subject.
D. Only one security policy can be attached to a policy subject.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Note:
*Within a SOA composite application, you must attach the Oracle WS-MTOM policy to service and
reference binding components to receive and send MTOM (MIME binary) attachments within
Oracle SOA Suite.
*Message Transmission Optimization Mechanism (MTOM)
Ensures that attachments are in MTOM format. This format enables binary data to be sent to and
from web services. This reduces the transmission size on the wire.
*ReliabilityPolicy
Supports the WS-Reliable Messaging protocol. This guarantees the end-to-end delivery of
messages.
* Addressing Policy Verifies that simple object access protocol (SOAP) messages include
WS-Addressing headers in conformance with the WS-Addressing specification. Transport-level data
is included in the XML message rather than relying on the network-level transport to convey this
information.

NO.2 Which two features are provided by decision tables?
A. Sets of input data can be bucketed and reviewed for gaps.
B. Data sets can be reviewed for conflicts.
C. Data can be used for only one rule evaluation.
D. A rule evaluation can be used only to enter new output data.
Answer: A,B

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Explanation:
After you create a Decision Table there are operations that you may want to perform on the
Decision Table, including the following:
(A)Find and fix gaps in a Decision Table (B)Finding and resolving conflicts between rules in a
Decision Table Compact or split cells in a Decision Table Merge a condition or split a condition in a
Decision Table
A: *Compact the Decision Table
In this step you compact the rules to merge from eighteen rules to nine rules. This automatically
eliminates the rules that are not needed and preserves the no gap, no conflict properties for the
Decision Table.
*The Conditions area in a Decision Table includes one or more condition rows. Each condition row
has a condition expression and, for each rule, a condition cell. A condition expression is an
expression that you build in Rules Designer. The condition expression is often a fact property or a
function result, but it can be any expression that has a type that can be associated with a bucketset.
B:A Decision Table displays multiple related rules in a single spreadsheet-style view. In Rules
Designer a Decision Table presents a collection of related business rules with condition rows, rules,
and actions presented in a tabular form that is easy to understand. Business users can compare cells
and their values at a glance and can use Decision Table rule analysis features by clicking icons and
selecting values in Rules Designer to help identify and correct conflicting or missing cases.

NO.3 Identify two features of Oracle BAM.
A. Enterprise Manager's monitoring capabilities are central to Oracle BAM's ability to monitor
performance indicators.
B. You can analyze and present Information from activities spanning multiple systems and
applications.
C. Rich browser-based dashboards provide visibility into current values of key performance
indicators (KPIs).
D. There is a built-in trouble ticket system to track assignment and completion of corrective actions.
Answer: A,C

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Explanation:
Note: *Oracle Business Activity Monitoring (Oracle BAM) gives business executives the ability to
monitor their business services and processes in the enterprise, to correlate KPIs down to the actual
business process themselves, and most important, to change business processes quickly or to take
corrective action if the business environment changes.

NO.4 Which two approaches are valid when using dynamic partner links in a BPEL process?
A. A WSDL file, which contains multiple services that use the same portType, is available at design
time, but the decision to determine which service is used can only be made at runtime.
B. When the BPEL process is designed, the endpoint URL of the WSDL file is known but the services
and port types are not known.
C. When the BPEL process is designed, the services and port types of the WSDL file are known but
the endpoint URI is not known.
D. A WSDL file, which contains multiple services that use different portTypes, is available at design
time, but the decision to determine which server us used can only be made at runtime.
Answer: A,C

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Explanation:
A (not D):How To Create a Dynamic Partner Link at Design Time for Use at Runtime
To create a dynamic partner link at design time for use at runtime:
etc
C (not B):The BPEL specification mandates that only the partner endpoint reference (EPR) can be
changed dynamically. In BPEL terms, only the partnerRole of a partner link element can have a new
value assigned. The myRole value doesn't change after the BPEL has been deployed.
Note: *Dynamic Partner Links and Dynamic Addressing During the design-time of an application,
you may need to configure certain services whose endpoints (addresses) are not known beforehand,
or it may be necessary to change an endpoint reference while the application is running. The
Dynamic Partner link feature allows you to dynamically assign an endpoint reference to the partner
link. This means that you can use onepartner link for subsequent calls to different web-services
(provided that the services use the same interface). *For successful deployment of the process, a
partner link should be completely defined. When you deploy the project, the WSDL file for the
partner link should contain and define both the abstract and the concrete information for the
partner link, including address and port, though later the concrete information can be changed
independently from the WSDL file.

NO.5 You expand a business rule component that a colleague added to the BPEL process. You see an
Assign element named Facts_To_Rule_Service.
Which statement is true bout this Assign element?
A. It was added automatically based on entries that your colleague made in the dialog box that
approved when the business rule component was added to the BPEL model.
B. Your colleague manually added this Assign element after adding the business rule component to
the BPEL Model.
C. This Assign element was automatically added when your colleague manually addedthe
corresponding Rule_Service_To_Facts assign to the BPEL model.
D. You can delete this Assign because it was created for documentation purposes only.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Note: *Facts_To_Rule_Service: Assigns the facts to a variable.

NO.6 A partner needs to access services that are defined in one of your Service Composite
Architecture (SCA) applications via a web service interface. Which approach (and accompanying
reasoning) describes a loosely coupled and robust solution?
A. Use Oracle Service Bus to provide an Interface layer over your SCA application. This enables you
to hide the locations of your SCA application, perform load-balancing across those endpoints, and
provide the ability to define service level agreements to help ensure that you are meeting your
contractual obligations to the partner.
B. Use the Mediator component to provide a web service interface to your SCA application. This
arrives you the flexibility of using the industry standard XSLT technology to perform translation and
transformations.
C. Use Oracle Service Bus to provide an interface layer over your SCA application. This enables you
to "skin" your SCA application with a web service interface and still provide a robust experience to
the partner.
D. Allow the partner simply to connect directly to the SCA application. This provides the best
performance and helps keep the partner happy.
Answer: B

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NO.7 In your solution, a web service client needs to invoke a series of three web services in support
of a single transaction. The third web service needs the identity of the original web service client.
Which statement describes how the identity is made available by Oracle Web Services Manager
(OWSM)?
A. The transaction manager accesses an internal table that maintains credentials used to invoke
each individual web service in the chain.
B. Each web service in the chain does its own authentication so the third web service handles its
own identity checking.
C. OWSM sets the user in the Java Authentication and Authorization (JAAS) Subject when the first
web service successfully authenticates, and the Java Subject is used by subsequent web services to
access the identity.
D. OWSM stores a SAML token from the first web service invocation in a database table, and that
table is accessed by subsequent web services in the chain to retrieve identity.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Oracle Web Services Manager is a component of the Oracle Enterprise Manager Fusion Middleware
Control, a run-time framework that provides centralized management and governance of Oracle
SOA Suite environments and applications. You create and configureOracle Web Services Manager
policies in Oracle Enterprise Manager, and those policies are persisted in a policy store (a database
is recommended). Oracle Web Services Manager lets you define policies against an LDAP directory
and generate standard security tokens (such as SAML tokens) to propagate identities across multiple
Web services used in a single transaction.

NO.8 Identify two correct descriptions of Oracle Web Services Manager (OWSM).
A. It enables you to externalize web services security from the applications youbuild.
B. It manages policies in a distributed policy manager that serves as a single policy enforcement
point.
C. Use security and management events, captured by OWSM agents, are displayed using Oracle
BAM.
D. It supplies predefined security policies that enable declarative security and management
definition.
E. It uses Oracle Event Processing (OEP) to determine when security violations have occurred.
Answer: B,C

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Explanation:
Note: *Oracle WSM allows companies to (1) centrally define and store declarative policies applied
to the multiple web services making up a SOA infrastructure, (2) locally enforce security and
management policies through configurable agents, and (3) monitor runtime security events such as
failed authentication or authorization.
*Oracle Web Services Manager offers a comprehensive and easy-to-use solution for policy
management and security of service infrastructure. It provides visibility and control of the policies
through a centralized administration interface offered by Oracle Enterprise Manager.

NO.9 Composite X invokes an outbound DB adapter to write data to a database table. You have
configured JCA at the binding component as follows:
<property name = "jca.retry.count" type = "xs:int" many = "false" override = "may" > 2</property>
<property name = "jca.retry.interval" type = "xs:int" many = "false" override = "may" > 2</property>
You have also modeled a modeled a fault policy to retry the invocation three times in case of
remoteFault as follows:
<retryCount>3<retryCount>
<retryInterval>3<retryInterval>
Which result describes what happens when the database that is being accessed by the above
binding component goes down?
A. The invocation is retrieved for a total of two times every two seconds. Fault policy retries are
ignored.
B. The invocation is retried for a total of six times every three seconds.
C. The invocation is retried for a total of six times every two seconds.
D. The fault policy retries occur within the JCA retries. So two JCA retries are executed two seconds
apart. Within each JCA retry, three fault policy retries are executed three seconds apart.
E. The JCA retries occur within the fault policy retries. So three fault policy retries are executed
three seconds apart. Within each fault policy retry, two JCA retries are executed two seconds apart.
Answer: E

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Explanation:
Note: *Global retries for any error handling are returned to the BPEL Receive activity instance, for
example, or, more generally, to the point at which the transaction started. Such a retry could occur
if there was an error such as a temporary database fault. The default retry count is by default
indefinite, or specified in the jca.retry.count property.
*Properties you can specify in the composite.xml file include:
/jca.retry.count
Specifies the maximum number of retries before rejection. Again, specifying this value is a pre-
requisite to specifying the other property values.
/jca.retry.interval
Specifies the time interval between retries (measured in seconds.)
*A remoteFault is also thrown inside an activity. It is thrown because the invocation fails. For
example, a SOAP fault is returned by the remote service.

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Exam Code: 1Z0-060
Exam Name: Oracle (Upgrade to Oracle Database 12c)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 150 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-01

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NO.1 You notice that the performance of your production 24 /7 Oracle database significantly
degraded. Sometimes you are not able to connect to the instance because it hangs. You do not want
to restart the database instance.
How can you detect the cause of the degraded performance?
A. Enable Memory Access Mode, which reads performance data from SGA.
B. Use emergency monitoring to fetch data directly from SGA analysis.
C. Run Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) to fetch information from the latest
Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) snapshots.
D. Use Active Session History (ASH) data and hang analysis in regular performance monitoring.
E. Run ADDM in diagnostic mode.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
*In most cases, ADDM output should be the first place that a DBA looks when notified of a
performance problem. *Performance degradation of the database occurs when your database was
performing optimally in the past, such as 6 months ago, but has gradually degraded to a point
where it becomes noticeable to the users. The Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) Compare
Periods report enables you to compare database performance between two periods of time.
While an AWR report shows AWR data between two snapshots (or two points in time), the AWR
Compare Periods report shows the difference between two periods (or two AWR reports with a
total of four snapshots). Using the AWR Compare Periods report helps you to identify detailed
performance attributes and configuration settings that differ between two time periods.
Reference:Resolving Performance Degradation Over Time

NO.2 Your multitenant container (CDB) contains two pluggable databases(PDB), HR_PDB and
ACCOUNTS_PDB, both of which use the CDB tablespace. The temp file is called temp01.tmp.
A user issues a query on a table on one of the PDBs and receives the following error:
ERROR at line 1:
ORA-01565: error in identifying file '/u01 /app/oracle/oradata/CDB1 /temp01.tmp'
ORA-27037: unable to obtain file status
Identify two ways to rectify the error.
A. Add a new temp file to the temporary tablespace and drop the temp file that that produced the
error.
B. Shut down the database instance, restore the temp01.tmp file from the backup, and then restart
the database.
C. Take the temporary tablespace offline, recover the missing temp file by applying redo logs, and
then bring the temporary tablespace online.
D. Shutdown the database instance, restore and recover the temp file from the backup, and then
open the database with RESETLOGS.
E. Shut down the database instance and then restart the CDB and PDBs.
Answer: C,E

Oracle test questions   1Z0-060 exam prep   1Z0-060   1Z0-060   1Z0-060 certification training
Explanation:
* Because temp files cannot be backed up and because no redo is ever generated for them, RMAN
never restores or recovers temp files. RMAN does track the names of temp files, but only so that it
can automatically re-create them when needed.
*If you use RMAN in a Data Guard environment, then RMAN transparently converts primary control
files to standby control files and vice versa. RMAN automatically updates file names for data files,
online redo logs, standby redo logs, and temp files when you issue RESTORE and RECOVER.

NO.3 Which statement is true about Oracle Net Listener?
A. It acts as the listening endpoint for the Oracle database instance for all local and non-local user
connections.
B. A single listener can service only one database instance and multiple remote client connections.
C. Service registration with the listener is performed by the process monitor (PMON) process of
each database instance.
D. The listener.ora configuration file must be configured with one or more listening protocol
addresses to allow remote users to connect to a database instance.
E. The listener.ora configuration file must be located in the ORACLE_HOME/network/admin directly.
Answer: C

Oracle original questions   1Z0-060   1Z0-060 exam prep   1Z0-060   1Z0-060
Explanation:
Supported services, that is, the services to which the listener forwards client
requests, can be configured in the listener.ora file or this information can be dynamically
registered with the listener. This dynamic registration feature is called service registration.
The registration is performed by the PMON process-an instance background process-of
each database instance that has the necessary configuration in the database initialization
parameter file. Dynamic service registration does not require any configuration in the
listener.ora file.
Incorrect:
Not B:Service registration reduces the need for the SID_LIST_listener_name parameter
setting, which specifies information about the databases served by the listener, in the
listener.ora file.
Note:
*Oracle Net Listener is a separate process that runs on the database server computer. It
receives incoming client connection requests and manages the traffic of these requests to
the database server.
*A remote listener is a listener residing on one computer that redirects connections to a
database instance on another computer. Remote listeners are typically used in an Oracle
Real Application Clusters (Oracle RAC) environment. You can configure registration to
remote listeners, such as in the case of Oracle RAC, for dedicated server or shared server
environments.

NO.4 Your multitenant container (CDB) containing three pluggable databases (PDBs) is running in
ARCHIVELOG mode. You find that the SYSAUX tablespace is corrupted in the root container.
The steps to recover the tablespace are as follows:
1.Mount the CDB.
2.Close all the PDBs.
3.Open the database.
4.Apply the archive redo logs.
5.Restore the data file.
6.Take the SYSAUX tablespace offline.
7.Place the SYSAUX tablespace offline.
8.Open all the PDBs with RESETLOGS.

NO.5 Examine the followingcommands forredefininga table withVirtual Private Database(VPD)
policies:
Which two statements are true about redefining the table?
A. All the triggers for the table are disabled without changing any of the column names or column
types in the table.
B. The primary key constraint on the EMPLOYEES table is disabled during redefinition.
C. VPD policies are copied from the original table to the new table during online redefinition.
D. You must copy the VPD policies manually from the original table to the new table during online
redefinition.
Answer: B,C

Oracle   1Z0-060   1Z0-060 braindump
Explanation:
C (not D):CONS_VPD_AUTO Used to indicate to copy VPD policies automatically
*DBMS_RLS.ADD_POLICY /The DBMS_RLS package contains the fine-grained access control
administrative interface, which is used to implement Virtual Private Database (VPD).DBMS_RLS is
available with the Enterprise Edition only.
Note: *CONS_USE_PK and CONS_USE_ROWID are constants used as input to the "options_flag"
parameter in both the START_REDEF_TABLE Procedure and CAN_REDEF_TABLE Procedure.
CONS_USE_ROWID is used to indicate that the redefinition should be done using rowids while
CONS_USE_PK implies that the redefinition should be done using primary keys or pseudo-primary
keys (which are unique keys with all component columns having NOT NULL constraints).
*DBMS_REDEFINITION.START_REDEF_TABLE
To achieve online redefinition, incrementally maintainable local materialized views are used. These
logs keep track of the changes to the master tables and are used by the materialized views during
refresh synchronization.
*START_REDEF_TABLE Procedure Prior to calling this procedure, you must manually create an empty
interim table (in the same schema as the table to be redefined) with the desired attributes of the
post-redefinition table, and then call this procedure to initiate the redefinition.

NO.6 Which Oracle Database component is audited by default if the unified Auditing option is
enabled?
A. Oracle Data Pump
B. Oracle Recovery Manager (RMAN)
C. Oracle Label Security
D. Oracle Database Vault
E. Oracle Real Application Security
Answer: E

Oracle practice test   1Z0-060   1Z0-060 certification
Explanation:
Type ofUnifiedauditing:
Standard
Fine Grained Audit
XS
Database Vault(not D)
Label Security(not C)
RMAN AUDIT(not B)
Data Pump(not A)
Note:
*Oracle 12c introduces Unified Auditing, which consolidates database audit records
including :-
DDL, DML, DCL
Fine Grained Auditing (DBMS_FGA)
Oracle Database Real Application Security
Oracle Recovery Manager
Oracle Database Vault
Oracle Label Security
Oracle Data Mining
Oracle Data Pump
Oracle SQL*Loader Direct Load

NO.7 In your multitenant container database (CDB) containing pluggable databases (PDB), users
complain about performance degradation.
How does real-time Automatic database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) check performance
degradation and provide solutions?
A. It collects data from SGA and compares it with a preserved snapshot.
B. It collects data from SGA, analyzes it, and provides a report.
C. It collects data from SGA and compares it with the latest snapshot.
D. It collects data from both SGA and PGA, analyzes it, and provides a report.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Note: *The multitenant architecture enables an Oracle database to function as a multitenant
container database (CDB) that includes zero, one, or many customer-created pluggable databases
(PDBs). A PDB is a portable collection of schemas, schema objects, and nonschema objects that
appears to an Oracle Net client as a non-CDB. All Oracle databases before Oracle Database 12c were
non-CDBs. *The System Global Area (SGA) is a group of shared memory areas that are dedicated to
an Oracle "instance" (an instance is your database programs and RAM).
*The PGA (Program or Process Global Area) is a memory area (RAM) that stores data and control
information for a single process.

NO.8 Which three are true about the large poolfor anOracle database instance that supports
shared server connections?
A. Allocates memory for RMAN backup and restore operations
B. Allocates memory for shared and private SQL areas
C. Contains a cursor area for storing runtime information about cursors
D. Contains stack space
E. Contains a hash area performing hash joins of tables
Answer: A,B,C

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Explanation:
The large pool can provide large memory allocations for the following:
/(B)UGA(User Global Area)for the shared server and the Oracle XA interface (used where
transactions interact with multiple databases)
/Message buffers used in the parallel execution of statements
/(A)Buffers for Recovery Manager (RMAN) I/O slaves
Note:
*large pool
Optional area in the SGA that provides large memory allocations for backup and restore
operations, I/O server processes, and session memory for the shared server and Oracle
XA.
*Oracle XA
An external interface that allows global transactions to be coordinated by a transaction
manager other than Oracle Database.
*UGA
User global area. Session memory that stores session variables, such as logon
information, and can also contain the OLAP pool.
*Configuring the Large Pool
Unlike the shared pool, the large pool does not have an LRU list(not D). Oracle Database
does not attempt to age objects out of the large pool. Consider configuring a large pool if
the database instance uses any of the following Oracle Database features:
*Shared server
In a shared server architecture, the session memory for each client process is included in
the shared pool.
*Parallel query
Parallel query uses shared pool memory to cache parallel execution message buffers.
*Recovery Manager
Recovery Manager (RMAN) uses the shared pool to cache I/O buffers during backup and restore
operations. For I/O server processes, backup, and restore operations, Oracle Database allocates
buffers that are a few hundred kilobytes in size.

NO.9 Open the database with RESETLOGS.

NO.10 Which two statements are true about the use of the procedures listed in the
v$sysaux_occupants.move_procedure column?
A. The procedure may be used for some components to relocate component data to the SYSAUX
tablespace from its current tablespace.
B. The procedure may be used for some components to relocate component data from the SYSAUX
tablespace to another tablespace.
C. All the components may be moved into SYSAUX tablespace.
D. All the components may be moved from the SYSAUX tablespace.
Answer: B,D

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Explanation:
V$SYSAUX_OCCUPANTS displays SYSAUX tablespace occupant information.
MOVE_PROCEDURE:Name of the move procedure; null if not applicable
For example, the tables and indexes that were previously owned by the system user can now be
specified for a SYSAUX tablespace. You can query the v$sysaux_occupants view to find the exact
components stored within the SYSAUX tablespace.

NO.11 You are administering a database stored in Automatic Storage Management (ASM). You
use RMAN to back up the database and the MD_BACKUP command to back up the ASM metadata
regularly. You lost an ASM disk group DG1 due to hardware failure.
In which three ways can you re-create the lost disk group and restore the data?
A. Use the MD_RESTORE command to restore metadata for an existing disk group by passing the
existing disk group name as an input parameter and use RMAN to restore the data.
B. Use the MKDG command to restore the disk group with the same configuration as the backed-up
disk group and data on the disk group.
C. Use the MD_RESTORE command to restore the disk group with the changed disk group
specification, failure group specification, name, and other attributes and use RMAN to restore the
data.
D. Use the MKDG command to restore the disk group with the same configuration as the backed-up
disk group name and same set of disks and failure group configuration, and use RMAN to restore
the data.
E. Use the MD_RESTORE command to restore both the metadata and data for the failed disk group.
F. Use the MKDG command to add a new disk group DG1 with the same or different specifications
for failure group and other attributes and use RMAN to restore the data.
Answer: C,E,F

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Explanation:
Note:
*The md_restore command allows you to restore a disk group from the metadata created
by the md_backup command.
/md_restore Command
Purpose
This command restores a disk group backup using various options that are described in
this section.
/In the restore mode md_restore, it re-create the disk group based on the backup file with
all user-defined templates with the exact configuration as the backuped disk group. There
are several options when restore the disk group
full - re-create the disk group with the exact configuration
nodg - Restores metadata in an existing disk group provided as an input parameter
newdg - Change the configuration like failure group, disk group name, etc..
*The MD_BACKUP command creates a backup file containing metadata for one or more
disk groups. By default all the mounted disk groups are included in the backup file which is
saved in the current working directory. If the name of the backup file is not specified, ASM names
the file AMBR_BACKUP_INTERMEDIATE_FILE.

NO.12 Execute the command SHUTDOWN ABORT.
Which option identifies the correct sequence to recover the SYSAUX tablespace?
A. 6, 5, 4, 7
B. 10, 1, 2, 5, 8
C. 10, 1, 2, 5, 4, 9, 8
D. 10, 1, 5, 8, 10
Answer: C

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Explanation:
* Example:
While evaluating the 12c beta3 I was not able to do the recover while testing "all pdb files
lost".
Cannot close the pdb as the system datafile was missing...
So only option to recover was:
Shutdown cdb(10)
startup mount;(1)
restore pluggable database
recover pluggable databsae
alter database open;
alter pluggable database name open;
Oracle support says: You should be able to close the pdb and restore/recover the system
tablespace of PDB.
*Open the database with the RESETLOGS option after finishing recovery: SQL> ALTER DATABASE
OPEN RESETLOGS;
9. Which three are direct benefits of the multiprocess, multithreaded architecture of Oracle
Database 12c when it is enabled?
A. Reduced logical I/O
B. Reduced virtual memory utilization
C. Improved parallel Execution performance
D. Improved Serial Execution performance
E. Reduced physical I/O
F. Reduced CPU utilization
Answer: C

Oracle   1Z0-060   1Z0-060
Explanation:
*Multiprocess and Multithreaded Oracle Database Systems
Multiprocess Oracle Database (also called multiuser Oracle Database) uses several processes to run
different parts of the Oracle Database code and additional Oracle processes for the users-either one
process for each connected user or one or more processes shared by multiple users. Most databases
are multiuser because a primary advantage of a database is managing data needed by multiple
users simultaneously.
Each process in a database instance performs a specific job. By dividing the work of the database
and applications into several processes, multiple users and applications can connect to an instance
simultaneously while the system gives good performance.
*In previous releases, Oracle processes did not run as threads on UNIX and Linux systems. Starting
in Oracle Database 12c, the multithreaded Oracle Database model enables Oracle processes to
execute as operating system threads in separate address spaces.
10. In order to exploit some new storage tiers that have been provisioned by a storage
administrator, the partitions of a large heap table must be moved to other tablespaces in your
Oracle 12c database?
Both local and global partitioned B-tree Indexes are defined on the table.
A high volume of transactions access the table during the day and a medium volume of transactions
access it at night and during weekends.
Minimal disrupt ion to availability is required.
Which three statements are true about this requirement?
A. The partitions can be moved online to new tablespaces.
B. Global indexes must be rebuilt manually after moving the partitions.
C. The partitions can be compressed in the same tablespaces.
D. The partitions can be compressed in the new tablespaces.
E. Local indexes must be rebuilt manually after moving the partitions.
Answer: A,B,D

Oracle answers real questions   1Z0-060   1Z0-060
Explanation:
A:You can create and rebuild indexes online. Therefore, you can update base tables at the same
time you are building or rebuilding indexes on that table. You can perform DML operations while
the index build is taking place, but DDL operations are not allowed. Parallel execution is not
supported when creating or rebuilding an index online.
B: Note: *Transporting and Attaching Partitions for Data Warehousing Typical enterprise data
warehouses contain one or more large fact tables. These fact tables can be partitioned by date,
making the enterprise data warehouse a historical database. You can build indexes to speed up star
queries. Oracle recommends that you build local indexes for such historically partitioned tables to
avoid rebuilding global indexes every time you drop the oldest partition from the historical database.
D:Moving (Rebuilding) Index-Organized Tables Because index-organized tables are primarily stored
in a B-tree index, you can encounter fragmentation as a consequence of incremental updates.
However, you can use the ALTER TABLE...MOVE statement to rebuild the index and reduce this
fragmentation.

NO.13 You plan to use the In Database Archiving feature of Oracle Database 12c, and store rows that
are inactive for over three months, in Hybrid Columnar Compressed (HCC) format.
Which three storage options support the use of HCC?
A. ASM disk groups with ASM disks consisting of Exadata Grid Disks.
B. ASM disk groups with ASM disks consisting of LUNS on any Storage Area Network array
C. ASM disk groups with ASM disks consisting of any zero padded NFS-mounted files
D. Database files stored in ZFS and accessed using conventional NFS mounts.
E. Database files stored in ZFS and accessed using the Oracle Direct NFS feature
F. Database files stored in any file system and accessed using the Oracle Direct NFS feature
G. ASM disk groups with ASM disks consisting of LUNs on Pillar Axiom Storage arrays
Answer: A,E,G

Oracle test questions   1Z0-060 answers real questions   1Z0-060
Explanation:
HCC requires the use of Oracle Storage - Exadata(A), Pillar Axiom(G)or Sun ZFS Storage Appliance
(ZFSSA).
Note: *Hybrid Columnar Compression, initially only available on Exadata, has been extended to
supportPillar Axiom and Sun ZFS Storage Appliance (ZFSSA) storage when used with Oracle
Database Enterprise Edition 11.2.0.3 and above *Oracle offers the ability to manage NFS using a
feature called Oracle Direct NFS (dNFS). Oracle Direct NFS implements NFS V3 protocol within the
Oracle database kernel itself. Oracle Direct NFS client overcomes many of the challenges associated
with using NFS with the Oracle Database with simple configuration, betterperformance than
traditional NFS clients, and offers consistent configuration across platforms.

NO.14 What are three purposes of the RMAN "FROM" clause?
A. to support PUSH-based active database duplication
B. to support synchronization of a standby database with the primary database in a Data
environment
C. To support PULL-based active database duplication
D. To support file restores over the network in a Data Guard environment
E. To support file recovery over the network in a Data Guard environment
Answer: B,C,E

Oracle   1Z0-060 practice test   1Z0-060 certification   1Z0-060
Explanation:
E:
*With a control file autobackup, RMAN can recover the database even if the current
control file, recovery catalog, and server parameter file are inaccessible.
*RMAN uses a recovery catalog to track filenames for all database files in a Data Guard
environment. A recovery catalog is a database schema used by RMAN to store metadata
about one or more Oracle databases. The catalog also records where the online redo logs,
standby redo logs, tempfiles, archived redo logs, backup sets, and image copies are
created.

NO.15 Your multitenant container database, CDB1, is running in ARCHIVELOG mode and has two
pluggable databases, HR_PDB and ACCOUNTS_PDB. An RMAN backup exists for the database.
You issue the command to open ACCOUNTS_PDB and find that the USERDATA.DBF data file for the
default permanent tablespace USERDATA belonging to ACCOUNTS_PDB is corrupted.
What should you do before executing the commands to restore and recover the data file in
ACCOUNTS_PDB?
A. Place CDB1 in the mount stage and then the USERDATA tablespace offline in ACCOUNTS_PDB.
B. Place CDB1 in the mount stage and issue the ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE accounts_pdb CLOSE
IMMEDIATE command.
C. Issue the ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE accounts_pdb RESTRICTED command.
D. Take the USERDATA tablespace offlineinACCOUNTS_PDB.
Answer: D

Oracle exam prep   1Z0-060   1Z0-060 original questions   1Z0-060 certification   1Z0-060   1Z0-060
Explanation:
*You can take an online tablespace offline so that it is temporarily unavailable for general use. The
rest of the database remains open and available for users to access data. Conversely, you can bring
an offline tablespace online to make the schema objects within the tablespace available to database
users. The database must be open to alter the availability of a tablespace.

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Exam Code: 050-686
Exam Name: Novell (Foundations of novell Networking:netware 6.5)
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Total Q&A: 184 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-01

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NO.1 Which utilities can you use to manage directory and file attributes on a NetWare 6.5 server? (Choose
2.)
A. ICE
B. FLAG
C. iManager
D. iMonitor
E. NDS Manager
F. Remote Manager
Answer: BF

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NO.2 Click the Exhibit button to begin.
Given the explicit right assignments shown, what rights does CGrayson have to the MHoffmann user
object?
A. Supervisor
B. Browse
C. Browse, Create
D. Browse, Create, Delete
E. Browse, Create, Delete, Rename, Inheritable
F. Supervisor, Browse, Create, Delete, Rename
G. Supervisor, Browse, Create, Delete, Rename, Inheritable
H. CGrayson has no rights to the MHoffmann user object.
Answer: B

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NO.3 You're implementing a NetWare 6.5 network for a small business client: Jessica's Bakery. There is only
one server in the network. You've named the server BAKERY1 and installed it into an eDirectory tree
named JESSICASBAKERY-TREE. You've used a random password generator to create a password for
the tree's Admin user. To ease administration, you've located the server next to the Point of Sale system
in the customer area of the bakery. You deployed Universal Password on the server. All workstations have
Novell Client 4.9 installed on them. You created a NFAP share on the server for the SHARED and the
FINANCE directories on the server's DATA volume. Does this configuration meet Novell's security
recommendations?
A. Yes, all Novell security guidelines have been met.
B. No, the server should be placed in a locked closet or room.
C. No, you shouldn't use Universal Password with Novell Client version 4.9.
D. No, you shouldn't use the business name in the server or eDirectory tree names.
E. No, you shouldn't create NFAP shares for directories containing financial information.
F. No, you shouldn't use a random password generator for the Admin password. It's easy to hack.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which describes the role of the Novell Distributed Print Services (NDPS) printer agent?
A. It downloads the correct print driver to the workstation.
B. It responds to queries from clients about the status of a print job.
C. It provides a platform for printer objects that reside on the server.
D. It allows NDPS clients to sent print jobs to printers that are not NDPS-aware.
E. It redirects print jobs to directory on the server while waiting for the printer to become available.
F. It takes application-specific data from the application creating the print job and reformats it to work with
the printer it is being sent to.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which utility can be used to create NSS volumes in NetWare 6.5? (Choose 2.)
A. NSSMU
B. iMonitor
C. NWCONFIG
D. ConsoleOne
E. NDS Manager
F. NetWare Administrator
Answer: AD

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NO.6 Which of the following are system files used by DR-DOS? (Choose 3.)
A. NTLDR
B. IO.SYS
C. MSDOS.SYS
D. IBMBIO.COM
E. IBMDOS.COM
F. COMMAND.COM
G. NTDETECT.COM
H. PAGEFILE.SYS
Answer: DEF

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NO.7 Which web-based services does Virtual Office provide? (Choose 3.)
A. Chat
B. Calendar
C. Bookmarks
D. Spreadsheet
E. Word processor
F. Project management charts
Answer: ABC

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NO.8 Which products does Virtual Office provide web-based access to? (Choose 3.)
A. eGuide
B. iFolder
C. NetStorage
D. WAN Manager
E. Remote Manager
F. Web Search Server
Answer: ABC

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NO.9 Which NSS volume attribute maintains an inventory of all files on the volume that have had their
contents changed at some point since the last backup operation?
A. Backup
B. Salvage
C. Migration
D. Compression
E. Directory Quotas
F. Modified File List
G. User Space Restrictions
H. Flush Files Immediately on Close
Answer: F

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NO.10 Your company's business procedures require the use of triplicate forms. To accommodate this, you
have secured an older dot-matrix printer to deploy in your network. It doesn't have a network interface. It
will be connected directly to one of your server's LPT ports using an IEEE 1284 parallel cable. You use
Novell Distributed Print Services (NDPS) to provide print services to your users. This printer doesn't have
an embedded printer agent. Can you use it with NDPS?
A. Yes, all prerequisite requirements have been met.
B. No, the NDPS manager doesn't support older dot-matrix printers.
C. No, the NDPS broker is incompatible with the IEEE 1284 standard.
D. No, NDPS doesn't support printers that don't have an embedded printer agent.
E. No, a printer agent can't be created for printers that connect to the server with a parallel cable.
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which tasks can be performed with ConsoleOne? (Choose 2.)
A. Manage licensing.
B. Assign rights to objects.
C. Browse very large trees.
D. Configure NDPS Brokers.
E. Change the server's IP address.
Answer: BC

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NO.12 Click the Exhibit button to begin.
The user object RTracy is a member of the FlightOps group. This group has been assigned Read, Write,
Create, Erase, and File Scan file system rights to the SHARED folder. FLIGHTOPS is a subdirectory of
SHARED that contains confidential data. An IRF has been placed on this directory that blocks the Write,
Create, Erase, Modify, and Access Control rights. However, user RTracy needs limited access to these
files. His object has an explicit rights assignment to FLIGHTOPS for the Write, Modify, and Access Control
rights.
What are RTracy's effective rights to the contents of the FLIGHTOPS directory?
A. Supervisor
B. Read, File Scan
C. Read, Write, Modify, Access Control
D. Read, Write, Create, Erase, File Scan
E. Read, Write, Modify, File Scan, Access Control
F. This object has no rights to the directory or its contents.
Answer: E

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NO.13 Your company specializes in the production of digital video products. Your company has been recently
awarded a very large contract that has a very short deadline. Your NetWare 6.5 server currently uses a
single 80 GB IDE hard disk drive. The new contract will require considerably more hard disk storage.
You've purchased and installed a 400 GB RAID5 disk array designed specifically for non-linear video
editing. The array came with a diskette containing NetWare drivers. Which file on your server should you
edit to load these drivers?
A. RAID.NCF
B. SERVER.EXE
C. CONFIG.SYS
D. STARTUP.NCF
E. STARTUP.CFG
F. STORAGE.NCF
G. AUTOEXEC.BAT
H. RAID5 array drivers can only be loaded manually from the server console.
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which NetWare loadable module provides the iPrint service on a NetWare 6.5 server?
A. IPP.NLM
B. IPRINT.NLM
C. NPRINT.NLM
D. IPPSRVR.NLM
E. PSERVER.NLM
F. IPRINTSRVR.NLM
Answer: D

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NO.15 Click the Exhibit button to begin.
What element of this file system design violates Novell's recommendations?
A. The MAIL directory should reside on a volume other than SYS.
B. The QUEUES directory should be placed on a volume other than DATA.
C. The USERS directory and subsequent subdirectories should not reside on SYS.
D. The SYS, DATA, and RESOURCES volume objects should not be placed in the same container.
E. The REPORTS, PROJECTS, QUEUES, APPS, and CORPAPPS directories shouldn't be split between
DATA and RESOURCES.
Answer: C

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NO.16 You've just finished configuring an iPrint system on your NetWare 6.5 server. The server's DNS name is
iprint.widget.com. The Manager object is named IPP-Printer in the SLC.WIDGET container. The Broker
object is named IPP-Broker and is also in SLC.WIDGET. You've used the Maptool.htm file to configure a
map named slcoffice.htm for location-based printing. What URL should you enter in your browser's
Address field to test the iPrint map?
A. http://iprint.widget.com/slcoffice.htm
B. http://iprint.widget.com/Ipp/slcoffice.htm
C. http://iprint.widget.com/Ippdocs/Maptool.htm
D. http://iprint.widget.com/iPrint/slcoffice.htm
E. http://iprint.widget.com/Ippdocs/slcoffice.htm
F. http://iprint.widget.com/Ipp/slcoffice.htm -b=IPP-Broker.SLC.WIDGET
G. http://iprint.widget.com/Ippdocs/slcoffice.htm -m=IPP-Printer.SLC.WIDGET
Answer: E

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NO.17 You're planning the network file system for a NetWare 6.5 server you are going to install. Your server
has a mirrored 40 GB SCSI-3 hard disk drive array. On the array, you've decided to create one NSS
volume named SYS. In addition to the default operating system directories created when NetWare is
installed, you want to create a directory named USERS off the volume root where each user will have his
or her home directory. You also want to create a directory named SPOOL off the volume root where print
jobs waiting to be printed on the network printer will reside. Finally, you want to create a directory named
APPS off the volume root where network-distributed applications will reside. Does this design meet with
Novell guidelines?
A. Yes, all Novell guidelines have been met.
B. No, NSS doesn't support mirrored drive arrays
C. No, NSS doesn't support SCSI-3 hard disk drives.
D. No, the user's home directory should be named HOME.
E. No, only the NetWare operating system should reside on volume SYS.
F. No, volume SYS should be a traditional volume on a NetWare 6.5 server.
G. No, the users' home directories should be placed immediately beneath SYS:\PUBLIC.
Answer: E

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NO.18 You're designing the eDirectory tree for your company. Your company is composed of four distinct
subsidiary organizations. You decide to create four Organization objects at the root of your tree to
represent each. Each subsidiary has its own Vice President who is in charge of the organization. You
decide to create a user object for each Vice President in their respective Organization object. Will this
design work?
A. Yes, all eDirectory rules have been observed.
B. No, user objects can't reside in an Organization object.
C. No, Organization objects can only reside within Country objects.
D. No, there can only be one Organization object within a given tree.
E. No, Organization objects should not be used to represent subsidiaries. Organizational Unit objects
should be used instead.
Answer: A

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NO.19 You've been asked by management to implement Novell's iFolder product throughout the company.
You've installed a new NetWare 6.5 server, named DA28, in the tree to provide iFolder services. The IP
address of DA28 is 192.168.1.28. During the server install, you selected the iFolder patterned deployment.
You now need to configure iFolder on the server. What URL can you use to access the iFolder
Management Console?
A. http://192.168.1.28/vo/Admin
B. http://192.168.1.28:8008/Admin
C. http://192.168.1.28/iFolderAdmin
D. http://192.168.1.28/iFolder/Admin
E. http://192.168.1.28:443/iFolder/Admin
F. http://192.168.1.28/iFolderServer/Admin
G. http://192.168.1.28:631/iFolderServer/Admin
H. http://192.168.1.28/nps/iManager/iFolderAdmin
Answer: F

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NO.20 Which file system attribute indicates that the file has been modified at some point since the last
backup operation?
A. A
B. H
C. P
D. Ci
E. Dc
F. Di
G. Dm
H. Ds
I. Ic
J. Ro
K. Sh
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 050-682
Exam Name: Novell (Advanced Novell Network Management )
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NO.1 .You want to modify your NCS environment by changing node assignment to
resource using ConsoleOne.
Which object's properties page allows you to change node assignments?
A. Any node object
B. The cluster object
C. The master node object
D. The Cluster ADMIN object
E. Any cluster-enabled resource or volume object
Answer: B

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NO.2 .Shown are properties of the DACLUSTER object. There are applications in the
cluster that you want to load before others.
Click on the tab that will allow you to specify the order that applications load within
the cluster.
Answer:

NO.3 .You have just completed installing NCS and are now going to create a shared disk
partition.
Which utility is used to create a shared disk partition?
A. iMonitor
B. iManager
C. ConsoleOne
D. Server Manager
E. NWCONFIG.NLM
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which is a useful troubleshooting step if a server is not communicating?
A. Verify that cache buffers are over 20%.
B. Verify that the server is not out of packet receive buffers.
C. Verify that the DOS=HIGH command is not in CONFIG.SYS.
D. Remove memory managers from loading in AUTOEXEC.NCF.
Answer: B

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NO.5 .Which statements are true about the source server when doing a server migration to
NetWare 6? (Choose two)
A. The source server must be running IP.
B. Any NetWare 3.x server and higher can be migrated to NetWare 6.
C. The source server's volumes must be the same size as the destination server's volumes.
D. If the source server is NetWare 4, the volumes must have long name space support
added.
E. The person performing the migration must have the Supervisor right to the source
server's file system.
Answer: D, E

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NO.6 You just added a second hard drive to your RAID system. Click the area of the graphic
that redistributes data across all RAID devices, including the new hard drive.
Answer:
Explanation: Click on Restripe
page 6-9 Restriping redistributes data across all Raid devices, including the new hard
drive.

NO.7 Using the UAL licensing model, where is it recommended to install user license if the
server object resides in the FLIGHTOPS.DEL.DIGITALAIR container and the user
objects reside in the CUSTSERV.DEL.DIGITALAIR container?
A. In any container.
B. In the Security container.
C. In the DIGITALAIR container.
D. In the CUSTSERV.DEL.DIGITALAIR container.
E. In the CUSTSERV.DEL.DIGITALAIR or DEL.DIGITALAIR containers.
F. In the FLIGHTOPS.DEL.DIGITALAIR or DEL.DIGITALAIR containers.
Answer: E

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NO.8 .What happens during the Finish eDirectory Migration stage of a server migration to
NetWare 6 process? (Choose two)
A. The NICI files are copied.
B. The licenses are installed.
C. The volume objects are updated.
D. The destination server is restarted.
E. The file trustee assignment are restored.
Answer: C, E

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NO.9 .DRAG DROP
Listed are the SET parameters used that instruct the server how to respond to an
abend and the description for each SET parameter.
Drag the parameter to the appropriate description.
Answer:

NO.10 .When performing a migration to a NetWare 6 server, which are valid statements
regarding copying volumes? (Choose two)
A. The volumes cannot be compressed.
B. The source and destination server's volumes must be NSS.
C. You do not need to copy all of the volumes at the same time.
D. The source and destination server's volume size must be the same.
E. The source and destination server's volume names must be the same.
Answer: C, E

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NO.11 After a NetWare 6 server migration, you have noticed that device drivers are not
loading. These drivers need to be placed in the directory where SERVER.EXE
resides.
Where can you copy these drivers from?
A. C:\DRIVERS
B. SYS:SYSTEM
C. STS:ETC\DRIVERS
D. SYS:SYSTEM\DRIVERS
E. C:\NWSERVER\DRIVERS
Answer: E

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NO.12 .There are problems when starting your NetWare 6 server.
Which command helps to identify at which point modules are loading during the server
startup?
A. LIST
B. CONFIG
C. STARTUP
D. MODULES
E. LIST STAGE
Answer: E

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NO.13 Which abend is almost always memory related?
A. Page fault
B. Invalid Opcode
C. Non Maskable Interrupt
D. General Protection Processor Exception
E. Ate Poison Pill in SbdWriteNode Tick given by some other node.
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which RAID levels can be implemented with NSS? (Choose two)
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
F. 5
G. 6
H. 7
Answer: A,B

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NO.15 .If an object is missing a mandatory attribute, how will this object be displayed in
ConsoleOne?
A. As a grayed-out object.
B. As a black-and-white object.
C. As a mark in a circle.
D. As a mar in a square.
E. As two numbers with a dash between them (eg. 9-6).
Answer: C

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NO.16 In a NCS environment, a resource state of ALERT has been placed on a resource.
What is a reason that a resource would be in an ALERT state?
A. The resource is shut down or in an inactive state.
B. The resource is unloading from the server it was running on.
C. The resource is not running and requires administrator intervention.
D. There isn't an assigned node up that the resource can be loaded on.
E. The Start, Failover, or Failback mode for the resource has been set to manual.
Answer: E

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NO.17 Which are tools you can use at the server console prompt to help troubleshoot IP
problems? (Choose two)
A. PING
B. TCPCON
C. NETSTAT
D. TRACERT
E. IPCONFIG
Answer: A, B

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NO.18 When checking the state of a cluster resource, what color will the resource appear as, if it
is unknown?
A. Red
B. Gray
C. Green
D. Yellow
E. Blank (or no color)
Answer: B

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NO.19 .An iFolder user has discovered that new files are not being synchronized to his
server, while at the same time changes to existing files are being synchronized.
What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The conflict bin is too small.
B. Corrupted file maps are dirmaps.
C. The computer does not have sync rights.
D. The server does not have enough disk space.
Answer: B

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NO.20 .You are working in a pure IP environment and the workstation is not
communicating with the server.
Which are some valid troubleshooting steps that can be executed on the workstation to
help identify the problem? (Choose three)
A. Ping the server.
B. Use TRACERT.
C. Verify that DSTRACE is not running.
D. Use CONFIG to verify that the network board is bound.
E. Verify the workstation IP address with the IPCONFIG command.
F. RUN DSTRACE to verify there are no DS communication issues between the
workstation and server.
Answer: A, B, E

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