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Exam Code: HP2-H11
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP Thin Clients)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 51 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which type of key sales information for the HP MultiSeat Computing Solution do these features
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Reduces environmental impact
Has the potential to double computing seats with the same budget
Requires no special IT knowledge
Contains software completely licensed and supported by HP
A. competitive advantages
B. silver bullets
C. opportunity indicators
D. key features
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which benefit is specific to the Academic Edition of the HP MultiSeat Computing Solution? (Select two.)
A. Intel Xeon based host PC
B. Ethernet connection from the access devices to the host PC for greater distance
C. licensing support through Microsoft Volume Licensing
D. support for up to 24 access devices
E. support for access devices running Windows 7 only
Answer: B, E

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NO.3 Which Intel processor type should you recommend for an HP MultiSeat host PC that supports six to ten
access devices, each running high-processing-demand applications such as multimedia?
A. Core 2 Duo
B. Core 2 Quad
C. Core i7
D. Xeon processor 5600 series
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP2-T15
Exam Name: HP (Servicing HP BladeSystem)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 105 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 HP offers two types of mezzanine cards. Which statement is correct?
A. Type I mezzanine cards will fit into type I and type II slots.
B. Type II mezzanine cards can fit into typeI or type II slots.
C. Type I mezzanine cards outperform type II slots.
D. Type II mezzanine cards will only support older SCSI devices.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which task of the HP Troubleshooting Methodology do you accomplish when performing Step 1?
A. Determine which subsystem could cause the problem.
B. Understand the mode of failure.
C. identify the steps necessary to implement each solution,
D. Gather failure information.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which HP cooling technology allows automatic control of the CPU state to reduce power
consumption when application demand is low?
A. active Cool fan-
B. Modular Cooling system
C. HP Power Regulator for ProLiant
D. Static Power Saver
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which Smart Array features are offered in a P410i when using a Cache option, but not offered in a
P410i model without cache? (Select two.)
A. Offline Mirror Splitting
B. Online Drive Flash
C. Drive Erase
D. Disk Write Cache
E. Volume Extension
Answer: A,E

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NO.5 Which blades support the Intel 5500 Chipset processor? (Select two.)
A. HP ProLiant BL460cG6
B. HP ProLiant BL490cG6
C. HP ProLiant BL680cG5
D. HP ProLiant BL685cG6
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 What is the maximum number of BL685c G6 Server Blades that can be directly attached to an HP
Storage Worksheet iifA

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Exam Code: HP2-Z05
Exam Name: HP (Selling the HP ProCurve Portfolio)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 What is a VLAN?
A. a LAN that does not use wires and is enabled by wireless technology
B. a large, geographically dispersed network consisting of two or more LANs
C. a network that allows secure private data to be sent through a public network
D. a logical division within a physical network that divides devices into separate broadcast
domains
Answer: D

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NO.2 A company's private network is divided into several subnets. Which devices can allow traffic to flow
between the subnets? (Select two.)
A. router
B. hub
C. standalone access point
D. Layer 2 switch
E. Layer 3 switch
Answer: A,E

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NO.3 What has HP ProCurve designed in several of its high-speed switches to consolidate the function of
many individual chips, including software, onto a single chip?
A. VoIP
B. ASIC
C. IPS
D. PoE
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which OSI Layer functionality enables a switch to route traffic?
A. Network Layer (Layer 3)
B. Physical Layer (Layer 1)
C. Data Link Layer (Layer 2)
D. Transport Layer (Layer 4}
Answer: A

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NO.5 What enables you to configure HP ProCurve products and create offers and quotations based on those
configurations?
A. HPProCurve Network Design Center
B. HPProCurve Configurator
C. HPProCurve Product Portfolio poster
D. HPProCurve Networking Quick Reference Guide
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP3-031
Exam Name: HP (HP LaserJet 3000 and 3380/90 AIO series)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 28 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 How should you install an HP LaserJet 3015, 3020, 3030, and 3380 all-in-one device self-tapping
screw?
A. First turn the screw counterclockwise to align it with the existing threads. Then turn it clockwise to
tighten.
B. Use a flathead screwdriver to tighten the screw until it is flush against the side of the all-in-one device.
C. Use a #2 Philips head screwdriver to tighten the screw as tightly as you can, Over-tightening of this
type of screw is impossible.
D. Use aTorx head screwdriver to tighten the screw as tightly as you can. Over-tightening of this type of
screw is impossible.
Answer: A

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NO.2 What three areas of the scanning mechanism have been improved to result in faster scan speed?
A. firmware, software, and hardware
B. power save mode, wake-up time, and formatter
C. firmware, HP LaserJet scan software, and scanner bulb warm up time
D. scanner head start position, scanner bulb warm-up time, and firmware
Answer: A

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NO.3 A customer calls because he has been unable to install the software for this all-in-one device. He is
running Windows 2000 as a client.
What do you tell the customer?
A. The all-in-one device does not support Windows 2000.
B. The all-one-device supports only Windows 2000 Server.
C. The all-in-one device must be installed by a member of an IT department.
D. The person installing the all-in-one device must have administrative privileges to install the software.
Answer: D

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NO.4 What allows remote status and diagnostics of HP LaserJet 3055 for multiple users?
A. Toolbox FX
B. Embedded Web Server
C. Printer Driver
D. Send Fax Utility
Answer: A

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NO.5 When should a customer run the scrubber?
A. only with a failed software-first installation
B. only with a failed hardware-first installation
C. for either a failed software-first or hardware-first installation
D. never, for use by authorized personnel only
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP3-C11
Exam Name: HP (HP Scanjet N9120)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 28 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 What is the base warranty offered with the HP Scanjet N9120?
A. 1-1-1
B. 2-1-1
C. 3-3-1
D. 3-3-3
Answer: A

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NO.2 What types of organization are potential customers for the HP Scanjet N9120?
A. ones that scan slides and negatives
B. ones that digitize large format images
C. ones that digitize files and forms
Answer: C

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NO.3 What are some features of the HP Scanjet N9120.? (Select two.)
A. hardware deskew
B. switchable black and white background
C. mechanical duplexing
D. digital sending
E. scan speed 60 ppm
Answer: B,D

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Exam Code: HP0-M31
Exam Name: HP (HP Quality Center 10.0 Software)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 119 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 What is an advantage of using cross project customization?
A. Customizing a template project and applying the customization to Quality Center projects enables you
to standardize policies and procedures across projects.
B. Defining the users who can access the project and determining the types of tasks each user can
perform enables you to control access to the project.
C. Defining the users who can log in to the project and specifying the types of tasks each user can
perform enables you to control access to the project.
D. Customizing a template instance and applying the customization to Quality Center instances enables
you to standardize policies and procedures across instances.
Answer: A

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NO.2 What should you use to gather and display the information in Quality Center? (Select three.)
A. external reports and graphs
B. predefined reports and graphs
C. document generator
D. user-defined reports and graphs
E. custom reports and graphs
F. custom document generator
Answer: BCE

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NO.3 Which graph provides a visual overview of all the tests within a folder in the Test Plan Tree?
A. visual analysis graph
B. live analysis graph
C. trend analysis graph
D. summary graph
Answer: B

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NO.4 The CTO asks you to confirm the version of Quality Center your organization is using. From which
toolbar can you access this information?
A. Tools
B. About Quality Center Software
C. Help
D. HP Support Software
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which submodule enables you to check the number of test instances that still need to run?
A. Cycle
B. Baseline
C. Library
D. Releases
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which requirement type needs to be defined as a custom type?
A. business
B. group
C. functional
D. testing
E. security
Answer: E

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NO.7 What does the term severity refer to?
A. importance level of the defect
B. impact of the defect on the release goals
C. impact of the defect on the test set
D. impact of the defect on system operation
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which submodule enables you to define releases and cycles?
A. Management
B. Libraries
C. Cycles
D. Releases
Answer: D

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NO.9 You need to generate a report to monitor requirements and test coverage. Which report type should
you use to accomplish this? (Select two.)
A. Standard
B. Predefined
C. Non-standard
D. Non-customized
E. Custom
Answer: BE

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NO.10 What does the Management module address? (Select two.)
A. libraries
B. test resources
C. release models
D. dashboards
E. releases
Answer: AE

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NO.11 Which types of attachments are allowed in Quality Center?
A. file, URL, system information, JPG, system attachments
B. JPG, file, URL, snapshot, TXT, clipboard, system attachments
C. file, URL, snapshot, system information, clipboard images
D. file, snapshot, clipboard images, JPG, clipboard snaps
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which module enables you to define graphs and reports?
A. Test Plan
B. Test Resources
C. Dashboard
D. Requirements
Answer: C

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NO.13 Your project manager wants to see a list of test instances and the results. Which type of report should
you create to accomplish this?
A. Cross Test Set
B. Execution
C. Test Plan
D. Execution Status
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which features are specific to the Premier Edition of Quality Center?
A. synchronize, share libraries, share defects, and cross project customization
B. synchronize, share test sets, share requirements, and cross project customization
C. share libraries, synchronize, share projects, and cross project customization
D. synchronize, share libraries, share defects, and cross instance customization
Answer: A

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NO.15 What is a release?
A. a subset of the new features implemented in an application that has undergone a series of test cycles
B. a set of tests designed for a specific purpose such as new feature functionality, security, and
performance
C. a group of test cycles that has been completed within a specific time period and in which all the high
priority defects have been closed
D. a version of an application representing a group of changes that is available for distribution to
customers at the same time
Answer: D

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NO.16 What is a cycle?
A. a subset of the new features implemented in an application that has undergone a series of test cycles
B. a set of tests designed for a specific purpose such as new feature functionality, security, and
performance
C. a set of development and quality assurance efforts that is performed to achieve a common goal based
on the release timeline
D. a version of an application representing a group of changes that is available for distribution to
customers at the same time
Answer: C

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NO.17 Click Next or More to continue.
Click the Task button.
Place the test management process steps in the correct order.
Answer:

NO.18 You want to view the child requirements data related to the tests that the requirements cover. Which
graph type should you use to accomplish this?
A. progress graph
B. trend graph
C. requirements coverage graph
D. summary graph
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which products or components integrate with Quality Center? (Select four.)
A. WinRunner scripts
B. VuGen scripts
C. LoadRunner scenarios
D. QAInspect
E. SiteScope
F. Diagnostic monitors
G. QuickTest Professional scripts
Answer: ACDG

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NO.20 Click Next or More to continue.
Click the Task button.
Identify the steps for creating a Release Tree and place them in the correct order.
Answer:

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Exam Code: ST0-074
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Mgmt Platform 7.0 with Notification Server (STS))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 99 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-29

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NO.1 If you have multiple Notification Servers in your environment how many CMDBs are required?
A. One CMDB for each Notification Server
B. One CMDB for all Notification Servers
C. One CMDB for all Symantec Management Consoles
D. One CMDB for each Symantec Management Console
Answer: A

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NO.2 What troubleshooting tool is used to analyze SQL queries and .NET code blocks running in the
Notification Server and associated processes?
A. Altiris Log Viewer
B. Altiris Profiler
C. Microsoft Perfmon
D. Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio
Answer: B

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NO.3 How are permissions assigned to resources in Notification Server 7?
A. Security Accounts Management (SAM)
B. Organizational Views
C. Access Control List (ACL)
D. Active Directory
Answer: B

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NO.4 What must be enabled for a collection of Notification Servers to share common configuration settings
and data?
A. Hierarchy Feature
B. Inventory Forwarding
C. Client Policy Files
D. Site Maintenance Feature
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which feature characterizes the centralized management model?
A. A single IT management team
B. Language barriers between sites
C. A large company with subsidiaries
D. Several data centers
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which Altiris component is used to move processing off of the Notification Server?
A. Package Server
B. Task Server
C. Site Server
D. PXE Server
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which pair contains Notification Server Event (NSE) queues?
A. Large and Small
B. Priority and Express
C. Fast and Slow
D. Default and System
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which server role will conflict with the Notification Server?
A. Terminal Server
B. PXE Server
C. Domain Controller
D. FTP Server
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which Notification Server 7 process parses the Notification Server Event (NSE) into SQL Statements?
A. DataLoader
B. Dispatcher
C. Event Router
D. Event Queues
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which two items can be stored in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)? (Choose two.)
A. Information related to the configuration of managed computers
B. An inventory of installed applications on managed computers
C. Software packages to install applications on managed computers
D. Symantec Management Platform core application settings
E. Settings and configurations for the ASP.NET web application
Answer: AB

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NO.11 What will occur if a resource is added to a second organizational group when it already belongs to
another organizational group within the same organizational view?
A. A duplicate resource will be created and given a new Globally Unique Identifier (GUID).
B. The resource will be removed from the first organizational group and placed in the second.
C. The resource will be listed twice in any target that includes either organizational group.
D. A resource association record will be created that links the two organizational groups.
Answer: B

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NO.12 What Symantec Management system feature is used to off load processing from a Symantec
Management Platform?
A. Site Server
B. Hierarchy
C. Replication
D. Software Management Framework
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which feature characterizes the decentralized management model?
A. Autonomous groups within your organization
B. A common maintenance schedule
C. A single data center
D. Limited number of remote sites
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which service monitors the event queue?
A. Dispatcher Service
B. Receiver Service
C. Notification Service
D. SQL Service
Answer: A

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NO.15 How does Notification Server handle inventory and event data after reaching the Event Queues?
A. Client Message Dispatcher -> DataLoader -> OLEDB -> CMDB
B. DataLoader -> Client Message Dispatcher -> CMDB
C. Client Message Dispatcher -> NSE Processor -> CMDB
D. DataLoader -> Client Message Dispatcher -> XML -> CMDB
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which Symantec Management system feature is used to reduce Total Cost of Ownership (TCO), that
is, increase the efficiency of a single IT administrator?
A. Site Server
B. Hierarchy
C. Task Service
D. Software Management Framework
Answer: B

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NO.17 What is the source of the information in the Resource Manager?
A. Configuration Management Database
B. Altiris data classes
C. SQL Server Master database
D. Configuration menu
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which item is true when migrating from Notification Server 6 to Notification Server 7?
A. Notification Server 6 and Notification Server 7 can co-exist on the same server
B. Notification Server 6 and Notification Server 7 can co-exist on the same database
C. Additional SQL, operating system, and Notification Server licenses are required
D. .NET 3.5, SQL Server 2005, and Windows 2003 must be installed for the migration to continue
Answer: D

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NO.19 How is resource scoping implemented?
A. By granting the permissions to appropriate Organizational Views and Groups to a security role.
B. By including the appropriate filters and Organizational Views and Groups in a target's rules.
C. By replacing the filters and Organizational Views and Groups in a target with appropriate secure
collections.
D. By creating multiple Organizational Views and Groups, each containing the appropriate subset of
resources.
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which two troubleshooting tools are installed with the Symantec Management Platform? (Choose two.)
A. Altiris Log Viewer
B. Altiris Profiler
C. Remote Altiris Agent Diagnostics
D. Microsoft Perfmon
E. WireShark Network Protocol Analyzer
Answer: AB

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