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Exam Code: HP0-091
Exam Name: HP (HP-UX System Administration)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 149 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 What does the pvcreate command create?
A.a hard partition
B.a physical volume device file
C.the lvm disk resident structures
D.the physical links
Correct:C

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NO.2 Which file does an HP-UX administrator edit to turn the bootp daemon on at boot?
A./etc/bootp
B./etc/inetd.conf
C./etc/rc.config.d/netconf
D./etc/rc.config.d/netdaemon
Correct:B

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NO.3 What describes the difference between block and character I/O?
A.Block I/O is used to send data to disk and character I/O is not.
B.Character I/O is used to send data to disk and block I/O is not.
C.Block I/O goes through the buffer cache and character I/O does not.
D.Character I/O goes through the buffer cache and block I/O does not.
E.Block I/O is for large data transfers only and character I/O is for small data transferd only.
Correct:C

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NO.4 Which command shows all physical volumes in a volume group?
A.vgdisplay
B.pvdisplay
C.lvdisplay
D.lvmdisplay
Correct:A

HP exam simulations   HP0-091   HP0-091 certification   HP0-091

NO.5 Which command is used to recreate the /stand/system file?
A.system_prep
B.mkkernal
C.vi system
D.frecover
E.sysgen
Correct:A

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NO.6 How do you change a volume group name without unloading the data?
A.It is not possible.
B.vgchange
C.vgexport, mkdir, mknod, vgimport
D.vgremove, mkdir, mknod, vgcreate
Correct:C

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NO.7 Which statement is true regarding a device file's major number?
A.It is determined by its hardware address.
B.It points to the associated kernel driver.
C.It is used to allocate buffer space.
D.It determines the device's interrupt priority.
E.It sets the kernel response timeout in tics.
Correct:B

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NO.8 Which level is used by fbackup to complete a full backup?
A.0
B.1
C.9
D.F
E.V
Correct:A

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NO.9 How do you set up a device swap area and ensure it is active at each system startup?
A.Start device swapping using the swapon command on an existing file system mount point.
B.Start device swapping using the swapon command on a logical volume; add an entry to the /etc/fstab
file.
C.Start device swapping using the swapon command on a logical volume; add an entry to the /etc/sbtab
file.
D.Start device swapping using the swapon command on a logical volume; add an entry to the /etc/vfstab
file.
Correct:B

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NO.10 In which directory does HP-UX supply default templates for the user startup files?
A./usr/home
B./etc/skel
C./home/template
D./etc/tmp
Correct:B

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NO.11 What is the purpose of the lost+found directory?
A.allows fsck to recover orphaned files and directories
B.required on JFS file systems for journaling
C.functions as a trash can for the file system
D.a temporary storage for deleted files
Correct:A

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NO.12 Order the steps required to perform a complete integrity check of a journaled file system.
Correct:
Green choice1---->Yellow Choice4
Green choice3---->Yellow Choice1
Green choice5---->Yellow Choice2
Green choice4---->Yellow Choice5
Green choice7---->Yellow Choice3

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NO.13 What do physical volume links (pv links) provide?
A.access to a spare disk
B.automatic load balancing
C.an alternate path to a disk
D.improved RAID performance
Correct:C

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NO.14 How does root allow an ordinary user to add/remove printers in SAM?
A.not possible
B.edit sam.allow
C.set the UID bit
D.establish a restricted build
Correct:D

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NO.15 Place the steps to install a fibre channel card in the correct order.
Correct:
Green choice1---->Yellow Choice1
Green choice4---->Yellow Choice2
Green choice2---->Yellow Choice5
Green choice3---->Yellow Choice4
Green choice6---->Yellow Choice3

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NO.16 What could possibly solve a paging problem?
A.add more NICs
B.add more CPUs
C.add more memory
D.add more internal disks
E.increase swap space
Correct:C

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NO.17 If /tmp is 100% full, which commands are used to determine its volume location and if free space
is available on that disk?
A.bdf, vgdisplay
B.lvdisplay, diskinfo
C.bdf, lvdisplay, pvdisplay
D.vgdisplay, lvdisplay, diskinfo
Correct:C

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NO.18 You attempt to unmount a file system, /mydata, and get an error stating "device busy". How do
you determine the cause?
A.showmount -a
B.fuser -uc /mydata
C.showmount /mydata
D.mount -v /mydata
E.cat /etc/mnttab
Correct:B

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NO.19 Which commands can be used to create device files? Select TWO.
A.mkdevice
B.insf
C.fsadm
D.mksf
E.devstart
Correct:B D

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NO.20 During a run-state change from run level 1 to run level 2 , which script would be run last?
A./sbin/rc2.d/K900nfs.server
B./sbin/rc2.d/S500inetd
C./sbin/rc2.d/S430nfs.client
D./sbin/rc2.d/K200tps.rc
E./sbin/rc2.d/S620xfs
Correct:E

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Exam Code: HP0-S16
Exam Name: HP (Implementing HP BladeSystem)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 63 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which Onboard Administrator is the primary by default?
A. the left one
B. the right one
C. the active one
D. the first one installed
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is the minimum number of power supplies required in a BladeSystem c-Class when using
threephase
power?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 6
D. 8
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which HP server blade uses the Itanium processor?
A. SB40c
B. BL485c
C. BL685c
D. BL860c
E. BL2x220c
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which HP BladeSystem c-Class server blades support HP-UX? (Select two.)
A. BL465c
B. BL680c
C. BL685c
D. BL860c
E. BL870c
F. BL2x220c
Answer: DE

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NO.5 Which options exist when you enable HP NIC teaming? (Select two.)
A. fault tolerance
B. CISCO Layer 4 teaming
C. socket layered balancing
D. NIC assisted load balancing
E. switch assisted load balancing
Answer: AE

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NO.6 What is the function of ECC memory?
A. It only detects single-bit errors.
B. It detects and corrects single-bit errors.
C. It detects multi-bit errors within a single DRAM chip.
D. It detects and corrects multi-bit errors within a single DRAM chip.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which processors use a 64-bit x86-based architecture? (Select two.)
A. Intel Itanium
B. AMD Opteron
C. Intel Pentium IV
D. Intel Pentium M
E. Intel Xeon Quad Core
Answer: BE

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NO.8 Which storage technology is used with Serial Attached SCSI?
A. NUMA
B. shared bus
C. one-to-many
D. point-to-point
Answer: D

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NO.9 What is the standard HP warranty on optional components such as mezzanines, fans, and power
supplies?
A. 1-1-1 (1 year parts; 1 year labor; 1 year onsite limited global warranty)
B. 3-3-3 (3 year parts; 3 year labor; 3 year onsite limited global warranty)
C. 1-0-0 (1 year parts limited global warranty or the system warranty, whichever is longer)
D. 1-1-0 (1 year parts limited global warranty or the system warranty, whichever is longer; 1 year labor)
Answer: C

HP   HP0-S16   HP0-S16

NO.10 How is BladeSystem Integrated Manager installed by default?
A. as part of a SmartStart installation
B. with the initial installation of HP SIM
C. as an add-on after HP SIM is installed
D. with a separate license key in HP SIM
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP0-J29
Exam Name: HP (Replication Solutions for the HP StorageWorks EVA)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 A.What would you use to obtain a Recovery Point Objective (RPO) of zero in failsafe mode and a low
B.performance impact?
C.a latency less than or equal to 10ms in enhanced asynchronous replication mode
D.a latency less than or equal to 120ms in asynchronous replication mode
E.a 4Gb/s link with low latency in synchronous replication mode
F.an 8Gb/s link with medium to high latency in synchronous replication mode
Correct:C

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NO.2 When building a six-fabric configuration using FC-to-IP, how many dedicated gateways are
required?
A.2
B.8
C.4
D.12
Correct:C

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NO.3 A.Which functionality allows them to maintain a copy of the original Vdisk and, while in a normalized state,
is
B.automatically updated whenever the source Vdisk is updated?
C.synchronized mirrorclones
D.synchronous Continuous Access
E.synchronized containers
F.enhanced asynchronous Continuous Access
Correct:A

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NO.4 When implementing VMware Site Recovery Manager (SRM) in a Continuous Access EVA
environment, what is required in addition to the SRM software?
A.Replication Solution Manager host agent
B.HP EVAx000 VDS1.0 and VDS1.1/VSS Hardware Providers
C.HP StorageWorks EVA Virtualization Adapter
D.HP EVA VDS/VSS 2.0 Hardware Providers
Correct:C

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NO.5 What is meant by the expression replication relationships = 3:1 in the HP StorageWorks
Enterprise Virtual Array Compatibility Reference Guide? (Select two.)
A.Using synchronous replication, a maximum of three hops between any two Enterprise Virtual Arrays is
supported.
B.One Enterprise Virtual Array may have replicated volumes on three other Enterprise Virtual Arrays.
C.Three Enterprise Virtual Arrays may have replicated volumes on a fourth Enterprise Virtual Array.
D.Using asynchronous replication, a maximum of three links between any two Enterprise Virtual Arrays is
supported.
E.One Enterprise Virtual Array may have a single volume replicated to three other Enterprise Virtual
Arrays.
Correct:B C

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NO.6 A Windows server is running Command View and HP Replication Solutions Manager (RSM).
While executing an RSM replication script, it is rebooted by the addition of new security patches
from Microsoft. What happens to that script?
A.System shutdown is delayed until the replication script is finished.
B.Any snapshots and snapclones currently in progress are suspended.
C.Running replication tasks are queued and continued after the reboot.
D.The replication script is aborted and will require a manual restart.
Correct:C

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NO.7 Which capabilities does HP StorageWorks EVA Dynamic Capacity Management Software
provide?
A.the ability to provision storage on the fly
B.the ability to monitor EVA Vdisks and DR groups
C.the ability to monitor Vdisk performance and relocate as required
D.the ability to grow and shrink volumes as required
Correct:D

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NO.8 When designing EVA8100 and EVA4400 in a five-fabric 8-port to 4-port configuration, which ratio
of host ports to replication ports is supported?
A.1:4
B.2:4
C.3:1
D.4:2
Correct:C

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NO.9 What is a demand allocated snapshot also known as?
A.replica snapshot
B.dynamic snapshot
C.instantaneous snapshot
D.virtual snapshot
Correct:D

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NO.10 Implementing N_Port ID virtualization (NPIV) in a SAN provides certain advantages. Which
statements are true about implementing such a solution? (Select two.)
A.NPIV is required if there is 2:1 or greater server-to-uplink ratio on a fully populated enclosure with 16
server blades.
B.You can only take advantage of NPIV when configured with HP Brocade SAN switches in C-Class
blade enclosures.
C.In large fabrics, NPIV helps to avoid exceeding domain count limits with multiple blade enclosures.
D.NPIV makes a single Fibre Channel port appear as multiple virtual ports, each having its own N_Port ID
and virtual WWN.
E.NPIV must be managed separately from the switches. However, it uses the common Fabric OS so that
it can be consistently managed with the
F.
Correct:C D

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Exam Code: 3605
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Ethernet Routing Switch Implementation and Maintenance Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 173 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 The SNMP counters check for authorization failures and other types error conditions. Which of
these SNMP error conditions is displayed in Enterprise Device Manager?
A. PCAP packet capture counters
B. In Bad Community Names counters
C. Fan Failure packet counters
D. Power Supply Failure packet counters
Answer: D

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NO.2 What does Ping snoop identify?
A. The path that IP traffic takes over an MLT or SMLT
B. The rate of IP traffic flow
C. Which port filter is best to use on MLT networks
D. Rate limiting for ICMP traffic
Answer: A

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NO.3 The Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 switch includes a means to fine tune the memory
resources by allowing the record allocations to be allowed. An ERS 8600 running Release 5.0 needs
to be configured to be optimized for multicast traffic. Which command alters the ERS 8600 to
increases the default allocation of Multicast by 50 percent?
A. Config sys set record record reserve MGID + 50
B. Config sys set max-vlan-resource-reservation 4096
C. Config sys set show sys mgid usage
D. Config sys set multicast-resource-reservation 3073
Answer: D

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NO.4 Traceroute allows a route to be traced to a network using an Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS)
8600 CLI command. How could you use it to limit the number of hops the traceroute reports?
A. Configure the -P (base UDP port) to the number of maximum number hops.
B. Configure the -q (number of probes per TTL) to the number maximum number of hops.
C. Configure the -m (maximum TTL value) to the number of maximum number of hops.
D. Configure the -w (wait time per probe) to the number of maximum number of hops.
Answer: C

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NO.5 In a multicast campus, when should an ERS 8600 PIM interface be configured to run in passive
mode?
A. When the interface is used as an edge interface and is aggregating traffic.
B. When the interface is used as a core interface and needs to limit PIM messages to reduce the
system load.
C. When there are no unicast routing paths.
D. When more than one unicast routing protocol is in use.
Answer: A

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NO.6 When configuring a new Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8000 using the default interface, the
attempt to load an ACLI configuration fails because the default interface is the CLI. How is the ACLI
interface obtained?
A. Change the interface type in the config.cfg file.
B. Change the ACLI boot flag and save the boot configuration file.
C. Exit the CLI and choose ACLI at the interface manager prompt.
D. Use the abort command and enter 'no' at the default interface.
Answer: C

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NO.7 What does the trace level 9 3 command accomplish?
A. It captures BGP events at a terse level.
B. It captures packets copied to the CPU at a verbose level.
C. It shows CPU utilization.
D. It captures RCC IP events at verbose level.
Answer: B

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NO.8 A campus network requirement is to introduce Virtual Routing and Forwarding (VRF) in the
existing Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600-based core. The technician has to configure VRF on the
ERS 8600. Which statement represents the order for configuring a new VRF?
A. Creating a new VLAN, add an IP address to the VLAN, create the VRF in the VLAN configuration.
B. Create VRF, change context to the new VRF, add an IP address, create a new VLAN, and move the
VLAN to the new VRF.
C. Create a VRF, change context to the new VRF, create a new VLAN, add an IP address to the VLAN.
D. Create a VRF, create a new VLAN, move the VLAN to the new VRF, change context to the new VRF,
and add an IP Address.
Answer: D

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NO.9 By default the ERS 8000 is configured for warm standby. After installation of a new ERS
solution with dual CPUs, which three actions need to be Perform on the ERS configuration to ensure
high availability mode is enabled and will function correctly? (Choose three)
A. Set the high availability CPU boot flag to true.
B. Set the warm standby CPU hoot flag to false. C. Set the save to standby CPU boot flag to true.
D. Save the boot.cfg conflg file and reset the switch to activate the changes.
E. Install the high availability license file.
Answer: A,D,E

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A. The virtual router identifier is 0.
B. The data center interface is set as a critical IP interface.
C. A real IP address is required for management access not a VRRP address.
D. The virtual router identifier is configured for the VRRP IP address owner.
Answer: C

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NO.1 What is a requirement for a client running the Central Management Console?
A. The Publishing Wizard must be installed
B. All BusinessObjects Enterprise servers must be installed
C. Network connectivity to the Central Management Server (CMS)
D. Network connectivity to the Production Database
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which four servers are involved in processing a scheduled Program object? (Choose four.)
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Program Job Server
D. Destination Job Server
E. Central Management Server
Answer: A, B, C, E

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NO.3 What is the recommended value for the Maximum Simultaneous Report parameter of the Desktop
Intelligence Report Server?
A. Two greater than the Number of Preloaded Report Jobs value
B. Two less than the Number of Preloaded Report Jobs value
C. The same value set for Number of Preloaded Report Jobs
D. No more than fifty per processor
Answer: A

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NO.4 Where does the list of Values (LOV) Job Server store reports when it processes scheduled List of
Value objects?
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Repository Manager
D. Central Management Server (CMS) System Database
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which Crystal Reports Page Server setting should you use to prevent users from running
on-demand reports containing queries that return excessively large record sets?
A. SQuestionL_MAX_ROWS
B. Limit SQuestionL Cursor Fetch Size
C. Preview Sample Data
D. Database Records to Read When Previewing or Refreshing a Report
Answer: D

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NO.6 When you install BusinessObjects Enterprise, what is the minimum disk space required for the drive
holding the TEMP directory?
A. 100 MB
B. 500 MB
C. 700 MB
D. 1000 MB
Answer: C

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NO.7 A user schedules a Crystal Report. What step does the Crystal Reports Job Server take when the
Schedule time is reached?
A. Starts a JobServer thread to run the report
B. Spawns a JobServerChild process to run the report
C. Contacts the Crystal Reports Page Server for the location of the report
D. Runs the report immediately by opening the report from the Input File Repository Server (FRS)
Answer: B

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NO.8 When a scheduled Crystal Report runs successfully, which server notifies the Central Management
Server (CMS) of the instance status?
A. Crystal Reports Page Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Crystal Reports Job Server
D. Web Application Server
Answer: C

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NO.9 When you install BusinessObjects Enterprise, a number of options are available from the initial Install
type screen. Select three of the options that appear on this screen. (Choose three.)
A. Expand
B. New
C. Custom
D. Silent Installation
Answer: A, B, C

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NO.10 Where do you configure the BusinessObjects Enterprise Web Component Adapter (WCA)?
(Choose two.)
A. wcaconfig.ini file in the InfoView directory
B. web.config file in the WebContent directory
C. Central Configuration Manager
D. Central Management Console
Answer: A, B

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NO.11 When does Crystal Reports communicate with the BusinessObjects Enterprise infrastructure?
A. When opening a report from the Enterprise folders
B. When opening a successful report instance sent as an email attachment by the Crystal Reports Job
Server
C. When importing a Crystal Reports from the Input File Repository Server (FRS)
D. When scheduling a Crystal Reports from the Central Management Console (CMC)
Answer: A

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NO.12 Your currently run you BusinessObjects Enterprise system on multiple servers. You want to
add another Crystal Reports Job Server service to the machine running the Crystal Reports
Job Server service. Using the Add Server Wizard in the Central Configuration Manager,
which three tasks must you perform? (Choose three.)
A. Synchronize the server
B. Start the server
C. Create the server
D. Enable the server
Answer: B, C, D

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NO.13 Which four servers are involved in processing a scheduled List of Values (LOV) object? (Choose four.)
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Crystal Reports Job Server
C. Output File Repository Server
D. List of values Job Server
E. Central Management Server
Answer: A, C, D, E

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NO.14 Which two statements describe situations that will benefit from using server groups? (Choose two.)
A. You intend to cluster the Central Management Server (CMS).
B. Datasources are located in geographically dispersed locations.
C. Some processing servers are configured for specific databases.
D. You are using a web farm.
Answer: B, C

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NO.15 Which three statements describe the role of the Web Intelligence Report Server? (Choose three.)
A. Fulfills on demand Web Intelligence report requests
B. Updates the Central Management Server (CMS) with instance status
C. Processes scheduled Web Intelligence report requests
D. Creates report instances for Web Intelligence report reports
Answer: A, C, D

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NO.1 In the RSA enVision UDS process, what is the purpose of performing Data Reduction steps? (Check the
one best answer.)
A.Improve speed and efficiency of data processing
B.Compress unsupported device data prior to storage
C.Apply ISO-approved abbreviations to message text strings
D.Decrease the rate that unsupported device data is collected
Answer:A

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NO.2 In RSA enVision UDS development, Value Maps, Regular Expressions, and Functions are types of
which of the following? (Check the one best answer.)
A.Data Reduction
B.XML Parsing Rules
C.Conditional Variables
D.Summary Data Buckets
Answer:C

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NO.3 What are three steps that are part of the device interpretation process using UDS? (Check the three
best answers.)
A.Configure devices to send log data to RSA enVision
B.Device identification (i.e. vendor, device name, class, sub-class, etc.)
C.Identification of device collection method
D.Message definition
E.List of known vulnerabilities
F.Data parsing
Answer:B D F

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NO.4 How many Remote Collectors (RC) can each Database Server (D-SRV) support? (Check the one best
answer.)
A.Eight (8)
B.Ten (10)
C.Sixteen (16)
D.Thirty two (32)
Answer:C

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NO.5 After creating a customized Report Menu system, which RSA enVision service(s) need to be re-started?
A.Only the NIC Webserver Service
B.The NIC Webserver and NIC Server Services
C.The NIC Webserver, NIC Server and NIC Locator Services
D.The NIC Webserver, NIC Server, NIC Locator, and NIC Packager Services
Answer:A

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NO.6 True or false. If a conflict exists with the default enVision collection port after appliance installation, the
Collector Service can be modified to configure event collection on a different port.
A.True
B.false
Answer:A

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NO.7 When opening a connection in Event Explorer, you can define which of the following features? (Check
the three correct answers.)
A.Devices
B.Event categories
C.Log messages
D.Time frame
E.Local collector
Answer:A B D

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NO.8 If a customer has a specific syslog that they would like to use as part of a demonstration, you can load it
into enVision for reporting and querying using which of the following? (Check the one best answer.)
A.The lsdata utility to import the syslog file
B.Copying the syslog file into the IPDB data directory
C.Using the Data Injector utility to collect data from the syslog file
D.Using the Custom Reports ?View External Data function of the administrative GUI
Answer:C

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NO.9 The administrator can use the RSA enVision's user authentication feature to complete what tasks?
(Check two answers.)
A.Use an existing Microsoft Active Directory authentication server
B.Associate administrative users with an authentication server
C.Require enVision users to change passwords on a periodic basis
D.Enforce a pre-defined set of 'prohibited passwords' based on a dictionary file
E.Utilize existing domain authenticated user accounts as the basis for enVision user accounts
Answer:A E

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NO.10 When creating a new enVision user account, which User Group is the account added to by default?
(Check the one best answer.)
A.Report-users
B.Administrators
C.Temporary-users
D.All-applications-users
Answer:D

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NO.11 When would you expect a difference between the log information captured by RSA enVision and the
log information generated by a device? (Check the one best answer.)
A.When the source IP address of the device is unknown to enVision.
B.When the device is configured to send only certain events to syslog.
C.When "Collect All Logs" is left unchecked in the Manage Devices screen.
D.When the device is a known device and enVision recognizes the events to be non-critical.
Answer:B

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NO.12 What happens if an event source device type is not immediately recognized by RSA enVision? (Check
the one best answer.)
A.It will be defined as "unknown" and for a limited time enVision will collect event data it generates
B.Data from that device will be discarded until the device type can be defined
C.An alert is generated by default to call an administrator's attention to the device
D.The UDS Service will create a parsing XML file for the device and place data in the NIC Parse Cache
Answer:A

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NO.13 What two tasks does UDS complete when the command "uds reate" is executed to create a device?
(Check the two best answers.)
A.Creates the files .ini, client.txt, vendor.txt and msg.xml
B.Immediately starts collecting data from the new device
C.Identifies all associated devices that have been configured
D.Create all directory structures required for the device
E.Lists all devices to verify that the device does not already exist
Answer:A D

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NO.14 When setting up a Check Point firewall device, which of the following is a good practice that should be
completed first? (Check the one best answer.)
A.Stop and restart the Check Point Firewall Service
B.Stop and restart the enVision NIC Collector Service
C.Verify that the Check Point Log Viewer is receiving events
D.Set an 8-character key to establish an authenticated connection
Answer:C

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NO.15 The UDS development process involves which of the following tasks? (Check two answers.)
A.Verifying XML syntax and parsing
B.Using XML to convert device logs to IPDB format
C.Mapping a device name to an existing enVision device
D.Creating an XML file to define header and message information
Answer:A D

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NO.16 When planning an RSA enVision installation, which statements below about the Site Name are
important considerations? (Check two answers.)
A.The Site Name must match an enVision domain name
B.The Site Name must be unique within an enVision domain and cannot be the same as the customer's
NetBIOS domain name
C.The Site Name must not contain any numeric or punctuation characters
D.The Site Name must have the same suffix as the Windows domain in which it resides
E.The Site Name must not match the name of any existing Windows domain in the network
Answer:B E

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NO.17 What does RSA enVision do when it is set to auto-discover new devices? (Check the one best answer.)
A.Adds new supported devices automatically to the list of monitored devices in the Manage Monitored
Devices screen
B.Temporarily holds in the "New Device" cache and begins to collect data after it is approved by an
administrator
C.RSA enVision alerts members of the "administrators" group to add a new device to the list of monitored
devices
D.RSA enVision automatically exports device attributes to an XML file for an administrator to review
Answer:A

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NO.18 When initially setting up a multiple appliance site, only the D-SRV unit is connected to a LAN ?all of the
other units in the site then connect directly to the D-SRV.
A.True
B.False
Answer:B

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NO.19 Which RSA enVision module is used to configure the enVision system as well as to monitor its health
and performance? (Check the one best answer.)
A.Overview module
B.Alerts Module
C.Analysis Module
D.Reports Module
Answer:A

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NO.20 Why would the checkbox of a device type be grayed out On the Manage Device Types screen? (Check
the one best answer.)
A.It's not licensed
B.Device is unknown but data can be collected
C.Device is known but not compatible with enVision
D.Device is associated with a monitored device within the NIC domain
Answer:D

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NO.1 RSA DLP Endpoint Enforce uses the same infrastructure as RSA DLP Endpoint Discovery.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which appliance can be set in scan and tag mode
A. Network Sensor
B. Network Controller
C. Network Interceptor
D. Network ICAPserver
Answer: C

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A. ICAP.cnf
B. ICAP.conf
C. proxy.conf
D. c-ICAP.conf
Answer: D

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A. Span Port
B. Bluecoat Proxy
C. Network Sensor
D. Network Controller
Answer: B

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A. 20 levels of compression
B. 50 levels of compression
C. 75 levels of compression
D. 100 level of compression
Answer: A

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NO.6 The RBC Company is performing datacenter scans on file shares within the corporate network. The
scans are permanent scans. Which of the following would require clearing the results of the previous scan
and performing a new complete scan?
A. New Grid Workers
B. New Grid Scan Group
C. New content blade in policy
D. Change of Operating System
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following is NOT a component of the RSA DLP Suite?
A. Network
B. Endpoint
C. Filesystem
D. Datacenter
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following is NOT available as an option in Incident handling rules for DLP Network or
Datacenter?
A. Quarantine end user action
B. Assign Incident to User or Group
C. Set incident severity to a different setting
D. Automatically close an incident if severity level is low
Answer: A

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NO.9 A Linux based version of the DLP Enterprise Coordinator is installed on the RSA DLP Network
controller.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.10 Incidents that are created as the result of RSA DLP agent scan on an end user's computer will be
categorized as Datacenter Incidents.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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