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Exam Code: 190-982
Exam Name: Lotus (Administering IBM Lotus Quickr 8.1 Services for WebSphere Po)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 95 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Gregory is configuring the People Finder for his company's Lotus Quickr environment. He is assigning
fields to be shown by the People Finder. In which of the following locations are the fields that correspond
to the attributes defined?
A.qpconfig.xml
B.Member Manager
C.CSEnvironment.properties
D.Person Attribute Service Object
Answer: B

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NO.2 Policies for Lotus Quickr are grouped in which of the following manners?
A.According to alphabetical order
B.According to the types of resources
C.According to who created the policies
D.According to the sort order for the Lotus Quickr libraries
Answer: B

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NO.3 To simplify default role assignments to be propagated to all individual resources through inheritance,
which of the following would you utilize?
A.Role ranges
B.Domain XMLAccess
C.Virtual resources
D.Image propagation
Answer: C

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NO.4 To support Portal Search in a clustered architecture, the search service should be installed in which of
the following?
A.Locally
B.Remotely
C.On each node
D.On the Web server
Answer: B

Lotus   190-982   190-982

NO.5 You have configured multiple instances of Lotus Quickr on a single WebSphere Application Server. To
configure each, you must access Lotus Quickr via a Web browser to a fully qualified domain name,
followed by the port. Which of the following is the default transport port that is created by WebSphere
Application Server?
A.80
B.8088
C.10038
D.18808
Answer: C

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Exam Code: JN0-311
Exam Name: Juniper (WX, Associate(JNCIA-WX))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 123 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which two statements describe the criteria bandwidth detection uses to dynamically alter bandwidth
allocation? (Choose two.)
A. Throughput is raised as latency decreases.
B. Throughput is based on available bandwidth.
C. Throughput is lowered as latency decreases.
D. Latency is measured by SYNs returned for each metapacket.
Answer:AB

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NO.2 Which two configurations are made using the QoS Setup Wizard? (Choose two.)
A. Assign applications to traffic classes.
B. Use ToS/DSCP values for traffic classes.
C. Exclude subnets from QoS management.
D. Select dedicated vs. over-subscribed circuits.
Answer:AD

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NO.3 Which two secure remote access methods are available on the WX platforms? (Choose two.)
A. SSL
B. SSH
C. Telnet
D. HTTP
Answer:AB

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NO.4 Which three statistics does the Executive report summarize? (Choose three.)
A. latency and loss
B. compression results
C. traffic (by application)
D. CRC and alignment errors
E. user access (by username)
Answer: ABC

Juniper   JN0-311 original questions   JN0-311   JN0-311

NO.5 What is NSC's functionality?
A. Web caching
B. sequence caching
C. memory-based compression
D. next-generation compression
Answer: B

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NO.6 What are two ways to view the system log files on a WX device? (Choose two.)
A. Use the CLI and enter show log.
B. Use the CLI and enter show all.
C. Use the CLI and enter show logging.
D. In WebView, choose Admin > Tools > Display System Log.
Answer:AD

Juniper   JN0-311   JN0-311   JN0-311   JN0-311

NO.7 Which three locations in WebView allow you to confirm that the endpoints are configured properly?
(Choose three.)
A. Monitor > Endpoints
B. Acceleration > Endpoints
C. Device Setup > Endpoints
D. Compression > Endpoints
E. Admin > Maintenance > Display Configuration
Answer:ADE

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NO.8 Which statement is true about compression subnets?
A. Compression subnets are turned on by default.
B. Compression subnets advertise remote routes.
C. Compression subnets are usually LAN-side subnets.
D. Compression subnets are usually WAN-side subnets.
Answer: C

Juniper certification   JN0-311   JN0-311 exam

NO.9 Which two patented or patent-pending compression and caching technologies are used for WX/WXC
devices? (Choose two.)
A. Network Sequence Caching (NSC)
B. Molecular Sequence Caching (MSC)
C. Network Sequence Reduction (NSR)
D. Molecular Sequence Reduction (MSR)
Answer:AD

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NO.10 Which two environments would take advantage of TCP Acceleration (AFP)? (Choose two.)
A. satellite networks
B. low-latency networks
C. long-haul link with 95% compressibility.
D. long-haul link with 10% compressibility.
Answer:AC

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Exam Code: 156-215.13
Exam Name: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Security Administrator - GAiA)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 358 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 Message digests use which of the following?
A. SHA-1 and MD5
B. IDEA and RC4
C. SSL and MD4
D. DES and RC4
Answer: C

CheckPoint dumps   156-215.13 test answers   156-215.13

NO.2 Which of the following are available SmartConsole clients which can be installed from the R76
Windows CD? Read all answers and select the most complete and valid list.
A. SmartView Tracker, CPINFO, SmartUpdate
B. SmartView Tracker, SmartDashboard, SmartLSM, SmartView Monitor
C. SmartView Tracker, SmartDashboard, CPINFO, SmartUpdate, SmartView Status
D. Security Policy Editor, Log Viewer, Real Time Monitor GUI
Answer: A

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NO.3 The customer has a small Check Point installation, which includes one SecurePlatform server
working as the SmartConsole, and a second server running Windows 2008 as both Security
Management Server and Security Gateway. This is an example of a(n):
A. Distributed Installation
B. Stand-Alone Installation
C. Hybrid Installation
D. Unsupported configuration
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-215.13   156-215.13 questions   156-215.13

NO.4 Which component functions as the Internal Certificate Authority for R76?
A. Security Gateway
B. Management Server
C. Policy Server
D. SmartLSM
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which SmartConsole component can Administrators use to track changes to the Rule Base?
A. SmartView Monitor
B. SmartReporter
C. WebUI
D. SmartView Tracker
Answer: D

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NO.6 The customer has a small Check Point installation which includes one Windows 2008 server
as the SmartConsole and a second server running SecurePlatform as both Security Management
Server and the Security Gateway. This is an example of a(n):
A. Stand-Alone Installation
B. Distributed Installation
C. Unsupported configuration
D. Hybrid Installation
Answer: A

CheckPoint   156-215.13   156-215.13   156-215.13 questions

NO.7 Which of the following uses the same key to decrypt as it does to encrypt?
A. Asymmetric encryption
B. Symmetric encryption
C. Certificate-based encryption
D. Dynamic encryption
Answer: A

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NO.8 You manage a global network extending from your base in Chicago to Tokyo, Calcutta and
Dallas. Management wants a report detailing the current software level of each Enterprise class
Security Gateway. You plan to take the opportunity to create a proposal outline, listing the most
cost-effective way to upgrade your Gateways. Which two SmartConsole applications will you use to
create this report and outline?
A. SmartLSM and SmartUpdate
B. SmartView Tracker and SmartView Monitor
C. SmartView Monitor and SmartUpdate
D. SmartDashboard and SmartView Tracker
Answer: D

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NO.9 When launching SmartDashboard, what information is required to log into R76?
A. User Name, Management Server IP , certificate fingerprint file
B. User Name, Password, Management Server IP
C. Password, Management Server IP
D. Password, Management Server IP , LDAP Server IP
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-215.13   156-215.13   156-215.13 certification

NO.10 The INSPECT engine inserts itself into the kernel between which two OSI model layers?
A. Physical and Data
B. Session and Transport
C. Data and Network
D. Presentation and Application
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which of the following is a hash algorithm?
A. DES
B. IDEA
C. MD5
D. 3DES
Answer: A

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NO.12 Your bank's distributed R76 installation has Security Gateways up for renewal. Which
SmartConsole application will tell you which Security Gateways have licenses that will expire within
the next 30 days?
A. SmartView Tracker
B. SmartPortal
C. SmartUpdate
D. SmartDashboard
Answer: A

CheckPoint certification   156-215.13 test questions   156-215.13 certification training

NO.13 A digital signature:
A. Provides a secure key exchange mechanism over the Internet.
B. Automatically exchanges shared keys.
C. Guarantees the authenticity and integrity of a message.
D. Decrypts data to its original form.
Answer: B

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NO.14 You believe Phase 2 negotiations are failing while you are attempting to configure a site-to-site
VPN with one of your firm's business partners. Which SmartConsole application should you use to
confirm your suspicions?
A. SmartDashboard
B. SmartView Tracker
C. SmartUpdate
D. SmartView Status
Answer: C

CheckPoint original questions   156-215.13   156-215.13   156-215.13

NO.15 UDP packets are delivered if they are ___________.
A. referenced in the SAM related dynamic tables
B. a valid response to an allowed request on the inverse UDP ports and IP
C. a stateful ACK to a valid SYN-SYN/ACK on the inverse UDP ports and IP
D. bypassing the kernel by the forwarding layer of ClusterXL
Answer: B

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Exam Code: CAT-180
Exam Name: CA (CA Service Desk Manager r12 Professional Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 When you create configuration items (CIs) for notifications, you distinguish special object contacts from
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A. number (#) character
B. percent (%) character
C. ampersand (&) character
D. commercial AT (@) character
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which code calls a web form?
A. Resource ID
B. Resource name
C. Resource pointer
D. Resource reference
Answer: B

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NO.3 When implementing an architecture that includes CA Service Desk rl2 with CA Workflow, which default
port assignments apply? (Choose two)
A. CA Workflow Tomcat Startup: 8090
B. CA Workflow Tomcat Shutdown: 8095
C. CA Service Desk Tomcat Startup: 5250
D. CA Service Desk Tomcat Shutdown: 9085
Answer: A,B

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Exam Code: CAT-200
Exam Name: CA (CA Service Desk Manager r12 Administrator Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 On which tab can you find Incidents related to a Problem?
A. Event Log tab
B. Knowledge tab
C. Attachments tab
D. Attached Incidents tab
Answer: D

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NO.2 What are the components of a notification rule? (Choose three)
A. Services
B. Contacts
C. Constraints
D. Condition macro
E. Message template
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.3 Each CA Service Desk role record MUST be configured with:
A. One form group
B. One service type
C. Three work shifts,
D. Two data partitions.
Answer: A

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NO.4 For the Level 2 Analyst role, which additional My Queue items can you view on the Scoreboard?
(Choose two)
A. My Incidents
B. My Requests
C. My Problems
D. My Change Orders
Answer: C,D

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NO.5 Level 1 CA Service Desk Analysts can use the CA Service Desk Quick Profile page to:
A. Create templates
B. Search knowledge documents for relevant information
C. Search for information about the end user during a support call.
D. Access the end user's computer and resolve the problem during the call.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 0B0-106
Exam Name: BEA (BEA SOA Foundations Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 252 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 What is the purpose of a Reference Architecture?
A. To provide a frame of reference for discussion of enterprise architecture concerns.
B. To provide linkage between the architecture of a given enterprise and certain of the enterprise
architecture frameworks, such as TOGAF or
Zachmann.
C. To define the reference material from which answers to questions about enterprise architecture may be
drawn.
D. To provide a comprehensive enterprise architecture that constitutes the correct, best practices-based
approach to constructing a modern
enterprise.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following provides the best definition of SOA?
A. SOA is a software engineering paradigm that prescribes the creation of loosely coupled interfaces
between the consumers of functionality and
the applications that represent that functionality.
B. SOA is a collection of technologies like enterprise service bus and Web Service management that
facilitate the delivery of enterprise
functionality as a set of services.
C. SOA is an IT strategy that organizes the discrete functions contained in enterprise applications into
interoperable, standards-based services
that can be combined and reused quickly to meet business needs.
D. SOA is a collection of standards, best practices, architectural models, and software development
methodologies, principally based on Web
Services, which may be incorporated into enterprise software engineering to provide information
technology to an enterprise in a
standards-based way.
Answer: C

BEA   0B0-106   0B0-106   0B0-106   0B0-106 original questions

NO.3 The aims of an SOA Program include: (Choose all that apply.)
A. The establishment of governance to standardize the way that functionality is delivered and deployed
for use by the entire enterprise.
B. The delivery of enterprise architecture that facilitates the sharing of functionality as services in a way
that is measurable and manageable and
meets operational goals.
C. The establishment of governance to standardize the way that enterprise information systems are
coded.
D. Providing accountability to the business for the translation of business requirements into information
technology.
E. The synthesis of business strategy and goals and the delivery cycles of projects into a roadmap for the
creation and deployment of shared
services.
F. The development of any service that is to be delivered to the enterprise.
Answer: ABDE

BEA   0B0-106 original questions   0B0-106   0B0-106 pdf   0B0-106 test questions

NO.4 When is SOA NOT an appropriate strategy? (Choose all that apply.)
A. When the applications in a given enterprise are necessarily stand-alone, and thus would not benefit
from a shared services approach.
B. When the political boundaries among lines of business and their related IT functions are
insurmountable, making sharing of functionality as
services impossible.
C. When the information systems in a given enterprise are homogeneous from a technological
perspective and thus the sharing of functionality
among them is essentially built into their construction.
D. When enterprise business processes are widely distributed across the information systems for
separate lines of business and are embedded
in the integration among those systems.
E. When application lifecycles are very short, and thus the effort to share functionality among them cannot
be offset by gains from reuse.
F. When a given enterprise has dozens or hundreds of information systems for which the exposing of
functionality from those systems as
services would be an extremely complex operation.
Answer: ACE

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NO.5 How is SOA different from previous approaches involving the sharing of information assets? (Choose
all that apply.)
A. SOA is an enterprise architecture approach that does not specify a given technology or vendor
solution.
B. SOA embodies the concept of run-time, rather than development-time or code level reuse.
C. SOA provides detailed specifications meant to provide a maximum of assurance of interoperability
among supporting technologies and vendor
solutions.
D. The basis of SOA in XML and other standards provides true platform agnosticism.
Answer: ABD

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Exam Code: 9L0-610
Exam Name: Apple (Xsan Administration v1.1 Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 67 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 RAID Admin LUN mapping and masking features allow you to _______.
A.create folders that map data to a specified LUN or LUNs
B.create LUNs that are available to only one client
C.create LUNs that consist of a single dedicated drive
D.add more disks to a LUN without taking the array offline
Correct:B

Apple   9L0-610   9L0-610

NO.2 What is the recommended topology setting for the Apple Fibre Channel PCI-X card?
A.Automatic
B.Point-to-point
C.Arbitrated loop
D.Switched fabric
Correct:A

Apple   9L0-610   9L0-610

NO.3 Within a storage pool, Xsan stripes data over _______.
A.LUNs
B.volumes
C.disks
D.affinities
Correct:A

Apple   9L0-610   9L0-610

NO.4 Xsan is a _______ file system.
A.local
B.cluster
C.network
D.distributed
Correct:B

Apple   9L0-610   9L0-610

NO.5 Fibre Channel Arbitrated Loop addresses use only the _________ field of Fabric Address Space.
A.Area
B.Domain
C.Loop
D.Port
Correct:D

Apple   9L0-610   9L0-610

NO.6 Which statement is implied by the concept called "information lifecycle management"?
A.All information should be backed up in a weekly cycle.
B.Disk-to-disk backup should be used for archival information.
C.Information should be regularly cycled between backup devices.
D.Storage resources should be allocated according to importance of data.
Correct:D

Apple   9L0-610   9L0-610

NO.7 Which application allows you to monitor the status of disks within Xserve RAID LUNs?
A.Activity Monitor
B.Disk Utility
C.RAID Admin
D.Xsan Admin
Correct:C

Apple   9L0-610   9L0-610

NO.8 To view the WWPNs for an Apple Fibre Channel PCI-X card, use __________.
A.Xsan Admin
B.Fibre Channel Utility
C.RAID Utility
D.cvadmin
Correct:B

Apple   9L0-610   9L0-610

NO.9 When naming an Xsan volume, which TWO statements are true? (Choose TWO.)
A.Any low-ASCII character can be used.
B.Only letters and numbers can be used.
C.Only lowercase letters and numbers can be used.
D.Only uppercase letters and numbers can be used.
E.Volume names can be up to 16 characters in length.
F.Volume names can be up to 70 characters in length.
G.Volume names can be up to 256 characters in length.
Correct:B F

Apple   9L0-610   9L0-610

NO.10 Indicate the correct port settings when you configure an Emulex 355 switch for Xsan.
A.Host machine ports set as "Initiator with Stealth" and storage device ports set as "Target with Stealth."
B.Host machine ports set as "Target with Stealth" and storage device ports set as "Initiator with Stealth."
C.Both host machine ports and storage device ports set as "Initiator with Stealth."
D.Both host machine ports and storage device ports set as "Target with Stealth."
Correct:A

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