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Exam Code: ST0-075
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Data Loss Prevention 9.0 (STS))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 105 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-29

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NO.1 A policy manager wants to apply policies only to certain employees with a specific classification level.
Which TrueMatch detection method can help accomplish this?
A.Directory Group Matching (DGM)
B.Exact Data Matching (EDM)
C.Described Content Matching (DCM)
D.Indexed Document Matching (IDM)
ANSWER: A

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NO.2 Why do companies deploy data loss prevention solutions? (Select two.)
A.to protect their perimeters from external threats
B.to help protect their brands and reputations
C.to prevent employee access to undesirable websites
D.to encrypt sensitive data to ensure secure transmission
E.to reduce the likelihood of data breaches and related costs
ANSWER: BE

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NO.3 Where does an incident responder find the exact matches that triggered an incident?
A.Dashboard report
B.Incident Snapshot
C.Incident List
D.System Events report
ANSWER: B

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NO.4 Which three are examples of confidential data? (Select three.)
A.national ID numbers
B.published press releases
C.health information
D.CAD drawings
E.manufacturing plant locations
ANSWER: ACD

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NO.5 Which component of Microsoft Outlook Personal Folder (.pst) files does Network Discover apply filters
to?
A.individual emails in the .pst file
B.the entire .pst file
C.attachments in the .pst file
D.folders in the .pst file
ANSWER: B

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NO.6 Which database does Symantec Data Loss Prevention 9.0 support for incident and policy storage?
A.Oracle 10g version 10.2.0.4
B.any version of Oracle 10g
C.Oracle 10g version 10.2.0.1
D.Microsoft SQL Server
ANSWER: A

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NO.7 Which products run on the same detection server?
A.Network Protect and Network Discover
B.Endpoint Discover and Network Discover
C.Network Monitor and Network Prevent
D.Network Discover and Network Monitor
ANSWER: A

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NO.8 Which product can replace a confidential document residing on a public share with a Marker File
explaining why the document was removed?
A.Network Prevent
B.Network Protect
C.Network Monitor
D.Network Discover
ANSWER: B

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NO.9 Which two products are required for quarantining confidential files residing inappropriately on a public
file share? (Select two.)
A.Network Discover
B.Endpoint Discover
C.Network Monitor
D.Network Prevent
E.Network Protect
ANSWER: AE

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NO.10 Which three are valid Scanned Content filter types for the Discover File System target? (Select three.)
A.Exclude filter
B.File Size filter
C.Read ACL filter
D.File Owner filter
E.File Date filter
ANSWER: ABE

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NO.11 What is a three-tier Symantec Data Loss Prevention 9.0 deployment?
A.two Enforce Servers deployed on the same host as the database
B.three different detection servers deployed on separate hosts
C.Enforce Server and a detection server deployed on the same host as the database
D.Enforce Server, detection servers, and the database deployed on separate hosts
ANSWER: D

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NO.12 Under which high-level node in the left navigation panel can administrators find the System Events
report?
A.Reports
B.Policy
C.System Health
D.Administration
ANSWER: D

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NO.13 What does a data loss prevention solution help an organization identify? (Select three.)
A.employee education opportunities
B.risk of virus infection
C.unprotected content on laptops
D.illegally obtained software on desktops
E.encryption enforcement opportunities
ANSWER: ACE

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NO.14 What must a system administrator do for Network Monitor filter configuration changes to take effect?
A.recycle VontuManager and VontuMonitorController services on Enforce
B.recycle PacketCapture process on the Network Monitor
C.recycle VontuNotifier service to propagate changes to Network Monitor
D.recycle Network Monitor server from the Server Detail page
ANSWER: D

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NO.15 Which product lets an incident responder see who has access to confidential files on a public file
share?
A.Network Protect
B.Network Monitor
C.Network Prevent
D.Network Discover
ANSWER: D

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NO.16 Which three describe an effective data loss prevention (DLP) program? (Select three.)
A.DLP is a company-wide initiative.
B.DLP is primarily driven by Information Security.
C.DLP is primarily driven by the Incident Response Team.
D.Employee participation is important.
E.Business stakeholders are held accountable for risk reduction.
ANSWER: ADE

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NO.17 Under which high-level node in the left navigation panel can administrators find the Discover Targets
page?
A.Policy
B.Reports
C.Administration
D.Data at Rest
ANSWER: A

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NO.18 Which three statements apply to communication between the Enforce Server and detection servers?
(Select three.)
A.By default, the Enforce Server and the detection servers communicate over port 8100.
B.Port 3389 must be open between the Enforce Server and the detection servers.
C.The same port number must be used for all detection servers.
D.The servers can be configured to use any port higher than 1024.
E.IPSec must be configured on the Enforce Server and the detection servers.
ANSWER: ACD

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NO.19 What is a function of the Enforce Server?
A.provides a GUI for policy creation
B.detects incidents
C.writes incidents to all detection servers
D.deploys agents to endpoint computers
ANSWER: A

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NO.20 What are three benefits that data loss prevention solutions provide that other security technologies or
tools do not? (Select three.)
A.give visibility into where sensitive data is stored
B.give insight into capacity planning for sensitive data
C.identify who has access to sensitive data
D.indicate where sensitive data is being sent
E.measure encryption strength for sensitive data
ANSWER: ACD

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Exam Code: ST0-067
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0 (STS))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 118 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-29

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NO.1 Which three are components of the Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0? (Select three.)
A. web portal
B. Evidence database
C. ESM database
D. Cognos
E. application server
Answer: ABE

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NO.2 Which Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0 component is responsible for most inter-component
transactions?
A. Directory Support Service
B. Data Processing Service
C. Information Server Service
D. Application Server Service
Answer: D

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NO.3 When does the RMS Console Configuration Wizard appear? (Select two.)
A. every time a new license has been added
B. the first time that a user opens the console after the installation or the upgrade
C. after a new Credential database has been applied to the user
D. after a bv-Control snap-in installation on the console computer
E. after the user has changed their default information server
Answer: BD

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NO.4 A user-defined report template is created from a predefined report template.
When a user-defined report template is deleted, what happens to the predefined report template?
A. The predefined template is also deleted.
B. The predefined template is automatically updated with the latest changes.
C. The predefined template is unaffected.
D. The predefined template reverts to the original template.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which information is displayed in the Monitor View?
A. jobs and reports
B. jobs and evaluation results
C. tasks and reports
D. data collections and evaluation results
Answer: B

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NO.6 In the context of IT compliance, what are standards?
A. a set of generally accepted best practices
B. a protector against a specific risk or threat
C. statements of goals and objectives
D. a collection of methods to evaluate compliance efforts
Answer: A

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NO.7 Data can be collected using which two data collectors in Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0?
(Select two.)
A. ESM
B. XML
C. ODBC
D. CSV
E. AS400
Answer: AD

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NO.8 Which term refers to rules created by a government in response to legislation?
A. framework
B. standard
C. policy
D. benchmark
E. regulation
Answer: E

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NO.9 Which four bv-Control platforms are supported in Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0 Standards?
(Select four.)
A. Oracle
B. Windows
C. UNIX
D. Exchange
E. SQL
F. NetWare
Answer: ABCE

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NO.10 Which two benefits does the Policy Module provide? (Select two.)
A. determines coverage gaps for multiple, overlapped regulatory, industry-specific, or best practices
frameworks
B. lowers the cost of policy creation and maintenance and measures policy knowledge and retention
C. defines, reviews, and disseminates written policies to end users as mapped to specific measurable
controls
D. integrates the policy compliance process with existing asset management systems
E. identifies problems within policies or internal controls and prevents policy compliance failure or data
breach
Answer: AC

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NO.11 In Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0, if an administrator wants to evaluate assets compared to a
referenced asset, what is used?
A. reference evaluation
B. baseline standard
C. gold standard
D. policy mapping
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0 component is responsible for routing data collection,
evaluation, and reporting jobs?
A. application server
B. collector
C. load balancer
D. Management Service
Answer: C

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NO.13 What needs to be configured in order to collect common fields during a asset import using the default
data collector?
A. ESM data collector
B. CSV data collector
C. Automatic Entitlements Import job
D. a policy with associated assets
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which databases are created by Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0 Reporting and Analytics
during installation?
A. Production, Reporting, Evidence
B. bv, Compliance Manager, Policy Manager
C. Dashboard, Reporting, SMC
D. Evidence, Standards, Policies
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which three functions are provided by Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0? (Select three.)
A. provides the ability to attest to procedural controls
B. uses automated agentless or agent-based capabilities to audit and scan technical controls
C. verifies and confirms risk and posture compliance assessment
D. produces evidence of due care in an IT audit process
E. integrates the remediation process
Answer: ABD

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NO.16 Which three database maintenance tasks must be performed outside of Symantec Control Compliance
Suite 9.0? (Select three.)
A. purge evidence
B. back up the databases
C. purge stale data
D. shrink the databases
E. defragment the databases
Answer: BDE

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NO.17 What is the minimum number of computers required to configure each Data Processing Service role?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: A

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NO.18 Communications between Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0 (CCS 9.0) components rely on a
signed digital certificate.
What is the root certificate authority in the CCS 9.0 environment?
A. Microsoft Certificate Authority Server
B. Certificate Management Console Server
C. CCS Management Service
D. Application Server
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which two are modules of Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0? (Select two.)
A. Standards
B. bv-Control
C. ESM
D. Internet Security
E. Entitlements
Answer: AE

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NO.20 Which term refers to organizational rules or requirements that provide guidance to employees?
A. framework
B. standard
C. policy
D. benchmark
E. regulation
Answer: C

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Exam Code: ST0-29B
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Endpoint Protection 11 MR 4(STS))
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Total Q&A: 65 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-29

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NO.1 Which two features migrate from previous versions of Symantec AntiVirus? (Select two.)
A.Tamper Protection Settings
B.AntiVirus Settings
C.Uninstall Password
D.Client Group Structure
E.Firewall Settings
Answer: B, D

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NO.2 Which file contains the Symantec Endpoint Protection client communication settings?
A. GRC.dat
B. Sylink.xml
C. GRC.xml
D. Sylink.dat
Answer: A

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NO.3 An administrator needs a TruScan Proactive Threat scan that will detect a potential trojan, worm, or
keylogger as quickly as possible. How should the administrator set the scan frequency?
A. set it to continuous
B. set it to scan new processes immediately
C. select the default setting
D. set it to 5 minutes
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which remediation option is available to administrators using the Find Unmanaged Computers
feature?
A. deploy a Symantec Endpoint Protection client package to the unmanaged host
B. monitor and log network traffic observed from the unmanaged host
C. install Microsoft Windows operating system security patches
D. disable network access pending Symantec Endpoint Protection client installation
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is the default replication frequency when adding an additional site to a Symantec Endpoint
Protection deployment?
A. 1 hour
B. 8 hours
C. daily
D. weekly
Answer: C

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NO.6 How many Symantec Endpoint Protection Managers can connect to an embedded database?
A. one
B. two
C. four
D. unlimited
Answer: A

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NO.7 An administrator makes a change in the Active Directory structure, which has been imported into
Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM). By default, when will the change automatically be
reflected in SEPM?
A. as soon as the change is made in Active Directory
B. maximum 1 hour
C. maximum 4 hours
D. maximum 24 hours
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which two actions are available when TruScan Proactive Threat Scan detects a trojan or worm?
(Select two.)
A.delete
B.ignore
C.terminate
D.quarantine
E.clean
Answer: C, D

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NO.9 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection client component must be installed to enable Unmanaged
Detector mode?
A. AntiVirus and AntiSpyware
B. Application and Device Control
C. Network Threat Protection
D. Network Access Control
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which two actions can the Centralized Exception policy perform? (Select two.)
A.exclude a specific folder from AntiVirus and AntiSpyware File System Auto-Protect scanning
B.specify an exclusion to keep a known risk from being scanned
C.specify machines from which the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console cannot be run
D.exclude forwarding of certain log types from the Symantec Endpoint Protection client
E.specify Intrusion Prevention system signatures for exclusion
Answer: A, B

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NO.11 Which feature can be configured to increase or decrease performance of scheduled scans?
A. scan frequency
B. CPU throttling
C. heartbeat interval
D. tuning options
Answer: D

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NO.12 In which client management log can an administrator identify when the client last connected to the
Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager?
A. Control
B. Traffic
C. System
D. Event
Answer: C

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NO.13 Based on Symantec best practices, which two tasks should be performed before migrating from
Symantec AntiVirus Corporate Edition to Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0? (Select two.)
A.disable Auto-Protect
B.disable scheduled scans
C.disable Tamper Protection
D.scan all clients
E.purge the quarantine
Answer: B, C

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NO.14 Immediately after installation, what does a client do upon first contacting Symantec Endpoint Security
Manager?
A. register with the manager
B. download the latest policy
C. update virus definitions
D. launch a full system scan
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which setting can be enabled to report computers without a Symantec Endpoint Protection Agent?
A. LAN Detector
B. Unmanaged Detector
C. Segment Detector
D. Network Detector
Answer: D

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NO.16 What can an administrator do to proactively obtain information about unknown devices on a network?
A. script a network audit using the Find Unmanaged Computers feature
B. create an Unmanaged Computer notification
C. schedule an audit report to send to the administrator
D. schedule regular LDAP synchronization
Answer: B

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NO.17 An administrator has successfully installed Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager onto a Windows
2003 Server using the installation wizard. Which component is deployed to the server at this point in time?
A. AntiVirus/AntiSpyware Protection
B. Proactive Threat Protection
C. Apache Tomcat Server
D. Central Quarantine Server
E. Network Threat Protection
Answer: C

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NO.18 When using the Push Deployment Wizard, which two methods can be used to identify the target
machines to which you want to install the Symantec Endpoint Protection client? (Select two.)
A.browse through Windows networking
B.import a file containing IP addresses
C.specify a UNC path
D.import a file containing MAC addresses
E.import hostnames from an LDAP server
Answer: A, B

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NO.19 A Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager administrator is importing from an Active Directory
environment. The director needs to know which object types are being imported. Which two object types
are imported into Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager from Active Directory? (Select two.)
A.security groups
B.organizational units
C.computers
D.sites
E.domains
Answer: B, C

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NO.20 If a Symantec Endpoint Protection (SEP) client is installed with AntiVirus and AntiSpyware components
only, what must be done to install the SEP Firewall?
A. redeploy the original installation package to the client
B. deploy the firewall license file to the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager
C. deploy a new package including the firewall component
D. deploy a firewall policy to that client through an XML file
Answer: C

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Exam Code: ASC-099
Exam Name: Symantec (ASC Archiving and eDiscovery 2010)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 94 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-29

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NO.1 What should a consultant recommend to a customer as a post-engagement service offering?
A. ongoing tech support
B. review of the configuration report
C. thirty day post deployment guidance
D. periodic assessment
Answer: D

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NO.2 What are two main components of Data Classification Services (DCS)? (Select two.)
A. Microsoft SQL Server
B. Internet Information Services (IIS)
C. Oracle
D. Symantec Data Loss Prevention
E. Automatic Classification Engine
Answer: C,D

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NO.3 Which two prerequisites are required to install the Enterprise Vault Administration Console on a
stand-alone workstation? (Select two.)
A. Microsoft Internet Explorer Web Controls
B. Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5 SP1 or higher
C. Microsoft Windows Administration Tools Pack
D. Microsoft Internet Information Services
E. Microsoft Exchange Management Console
Answer: B,C

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NO.4 In order to back up Enterprise Vault with NetBackup, which Enterprise Vault components require the
NetBackup client?
A. the Exchange Server, the EV Server, and the Discovery Accelerator Server
B. the Exchange Server, the EV Server, and the SQL Server
C. the EV Server and the DA Server
D. the EV Server and the SQL Server
Answer: D

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NO.5 What are two valid names for the scripts provided on the Enterprise Vault media to assist in configuring
the Vault Service Account (VSA)? (Select two.)
A. SetEVServicePermissions.ps1
B. SetEVExchangePermissions.ps1
C. SetEVThrottlingPolicy.ps1
D. SetExchangeThrottlingPolicy.ps1
E. SetEVExchThrottingPermissions.ps1
Answer: B,C

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NO.6 What should a consultant do when configuring the pagefile on a system running the Indexing Service.?
A. The pagefile should be located on volume where active indexes are located for best performance.
B. The pagefile should be set to be managed by the OS.
C. The pagefile should be set to 1x of the RAM.
D. The pagefile should be set to 1.5x of the RAM.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which two are benefits of using Data Classification Services with EV? (Select two.)
A. re-classify content that has already been archived
B. assign retention categories based on the item's content
C. automatically delete emails that are not critical business records
D. automatically place items on E-Discovery legal hold
E. direct integration with the Clearwell E-Discovery Platform
Answer: B,C

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NO.8 Where can a consultant look to find diagnostic logging from an Enterprise Vault server installation?
A. Application Event Log
B. ev_client_log_[timestamp].txt
C. Symantec Enterprise Vault Event Log
D. EVinstall.log
Answer: D

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NO.9 A consultant must calculate the EV archival rate while delivering an assessment service. Which
database should a consultant query to calculate the archival rate?
A. Directory Database
B. Fingerprint Database
C. Vault Store Database
D. FSA Reporting Database
Answer: C

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NO.10 Who will be responsible for post-engagement technical support if a consultant fails to educate the
customer on the support process?
A. the consultant
B. Symantec Support
C. the customer
D. the project manager
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which two ways should a consultant prioritize identifiable project risks as part of a mitigation strategy?
(Select two.)
A. probability of risk
B. sequence of risk occurrence
C. level of inconvenience to the customer
D. impact to the project success
E. visibility to senior management
Answer: A,D

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NO.12 What is the minimum amount of memory required to support 64-bit Indexing?
A. 2GB
B. 4GB
C. 8GB
D. 16GB
Answer: C

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NO.13 How many Index Server Groups can a consultant associate with a Vault Store?
A. one
B. two
C. four
D. eight
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which two Enterprise Vault components require a dedicated SQL database? (Select two.)
A. Vault Store Group
B. Index Server Group
C. Vault Store
D. Index Volume
E. Vault Store partition
Answer: A,C

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NO.15 A consultant just deployed Domino Mailbox Archiving and is about to configure the Enable Mailbox
Message. Which file would need to be edited and placed in the root folder of Enterprise Vault installation?
A. EnableMailboxMessage.nsf
B. EVMessages.nsf
C. EnableMailboxMessageDomino.nsf
D. EVEnableMessage.nsf
Answer: B

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Exam Code: ST0-130
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Management Platform 7.1 Technical Assessment)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 160 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-29

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NO.1 What is a properly configured middleware computer known as?
A. Task Service
B. Subnet Server
C. Site Server
D. Package Server
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which statement is true about the Default Shared Schedules shipping with Notification Server?
A. They cannot be deleted.
B. They cannot be modified.
C. They can override maintenance windows.
D. They cannot be disabled.
Answer: A

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NO.3 How does the Symantec Management Console help keep reports secure and scoped?
A. by enforcing permissions that determine which reports users can view
B. by scoping privileges that determine which reports users can view
C. by using report filters so that only specific report data is displayed
D. by prompting Altiris Agents for log in credentials before viewing reports
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which Symantec Management Platform component processes data sent by the Altiris Agent and stores
it in the Configuration Management Database?
A. Symantec Management Console
B. Software Management Framework
C. Notification Server
D. Site Services
Answer: C

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NO.5 How long are User-based policies cached on a managed computer?
A. one week
B. one month
C. two weeks
D. two months
Answer: A

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NO.6 What is the first point of contact for the Altiris Agent?
A. Notification Server
B. Symantec Management Console
C. Package Service
D. Task Service
Answer: A

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NO.7 Refer to the Exhibit.
The administrator created a report that returns the status of computers. Which menu item should the
administrator choose to compare the status from month to month?
A. Snapshot
B. Web Part
C. Static Filter
D. XML File
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which Symantec Management Platform component initiates policy-based communication?
A. Notification Server
B. Symantec Management Agent
C. Configuration Management Database (CMDB)
D. Symantec Management Console
Answer: B

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NO.9 Refer to the Exhibit.
There is one Notification Server at HQ that manages all desktops and laptops throughout the WAN. What
should be configured to reduce processor load on the Notification Server and move network intensive
services closer to their points of distribution?
A. Organizational Units
B. Replication Management
C. Site Management
D. Security Sites
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which statement describes the relationship between Site Server and Notification Server?
A. Site Server assists Notification Server by providing packages and tasks to the Altiris Agent.
B. Site Server sends information, events, and data from the Inventory Rule Agent to Notification Server.
C. Site Server assists Notification Server by running reports.
D. Site Server takes over all functions for Notification Server.
Answer: A

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NO.11 What is the Symantec recommended method for a Service Desk agent to use to install the Altiris Agent
when visiting a user's cubicle?
A. Manual Pull
B. Manual Push
C. Scheduled Push
D. Agent Upgrade Policy
Answer: A

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NO.12 Why would an administrator want to save a report as a web part?
A. to save the results for later reference
B. to use in a resource target
C. to use in a portal page
D. to be able to e-mail the results
Answer: C

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NO.13 Under which menu option are filters located in the Symantec Management Console?
A. Manage
B. Settings
C. Actions
D. Home
Answer: A

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NO.14 An administrator has joined a computer to a domain managed by Microsoft Active Directory.
Which two items must the administrator enable to automate the installation of the Altiris Agent on this
computer.? (Select two.)
A. Altiris Agent for Windows - Install policy
B. Windows Computers with no Altiris Agent installed filter
C. Microsoft Active Directory import rule
D. Windows Computers with no Altiris Agent installed target
E. Scheduled Push to Computers policy
Answer: C,E

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NO.15 What can the administrator use to have resources assigned to specific sites without administrative
intervention and as they register with the Notification Server?
A. Automation policy
B. Active Directory import policy
C. Inventory policy
D. Custom Inventory policy
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which policies run on Notification Server and are not concerned with agent activity on managed
computers?
A. Automation policies
B. Target-based policies
C. User-based policies
D. Filter-based policies
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which two services can a Site Server provide? (Select two.)
A. Package Service
B. OAB Service
C. Task Service
D. AEXSVC Service
E. Replication Service
Answer: A,C

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NO.18 Which component enables users to view data from the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)?
A. Log Viewer
B. Reports
C. Notification Server
D. Software Management Framework
Answer: B

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NO.19 An administrator needs to review several Symantec Management Console reports daily and would like
to have them in a single view. How can the reports be combined into a single view?
A. create a custom dashboard that merges the reports
B. create a custom portal page that displays each of the reports as web parts
C. export the reports and import them into one custom folder
D. link each of the reports to a single custom sub-menu item
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which component contains the core service of the Symantec Management Platform?
A. Configuration Management Database (CMDB)
B. Altiris Agent
C. Site Service
D. Notification Server
Answer: D

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Exam Code: ST0-153
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec PGP Universal Server 3.2 Technical Assessment)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 67 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-29

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NO.1 How do the encrypt and sign buttons interact with policy?
A.They bypass it
B.They do not bypass it, they use the Standalone chain
C.They only work when the server is online and the Outbound policy rule has been enabled
D.None of the above are true
Answer:D

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8.How do you create an ADK?
A.It is automatically created and added to the server upon installation
B.You purchase one from PGP Corporation
C.From the Organization Keys tab
D.From PGP Desktop
Answer:D

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9.How does a cluster know if a server needs to be updated?
A.Highwatermark
B.Web Messenger replication
C.Smart topology
D.Timestamps
Answer:A

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10.How does the “Prefer Notes native encoding over PGP encoding” feature work?
A.External emails are PGP encrypted but internal ones are Notes encrypted
B.Internal emails are PGP encrypted but external ones are Notes encrypted
C.All emails are Notes encrypted
D.The user is prompted to choose their encryption type
Answer:A

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11.How does Web Messenger replication work?
A.There is no replication
B.Messages can be replicated to all servers or a number of servers or not replicated
C.Messages are stored on all servers or not replicated
D.Messages can only be replicated to a number of servers or not replicated
E.Messages are always replicated on all servers unless it is a DMZ server
Answer: B

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12.How is the private key of the ADK protected?
A.The private key should be split into several shares and given to designated users.
B.The ADK keypair is stored on the server
C.The private key is protected by the Ignition Key
D.The ADK doesn't have a private key
Answer:A

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13.How many backups are kept by default?
A.7
B.30
C.5
D.5, not configurable
Answer:C

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14.If a user belongs to 3 different groups, which one will give this user policy?
A.The first one created on the server if there is no order specified
B.The Excluded group if he belongs to it
C.Wherever LDAP puts them first
D.The Everyone group
Answer:B

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15.If Alice has forgotten the passphrase for her encrypted boot volume, what can her administrator do?
A.Use the WDE-ADMIN group access to authenticate at BootGuard and change the passphrase
B.Check the box for "Automatically decrypt boot disk upon power on" in Consumer Policy
C.Use the Account lockout mechanism to reset her passphrase
D.Use the Whole Disk Recovery Token
E.Reset her passphrase in PGP Universal Server
Answer: D

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16.A user has never dealt with another employee but is able to send them secure email because they
have a PGP Universal Server.This is possible because of:
A.This is an example of the SMIME Web of Trust
B.Manual verification
C.This is not possible with PGP products
D.A trust relationship
Answer:D

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18.If you did not specify network settings during the installation process, which of the following IP
addresses would initially be assigned to your PGP Universal Server?
A.172.16.10.100/24
B.192.168.1.100/24
C.10.1.1.100/24
D.none of the above
Answer:B

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19.If you had to manually type in your PGP Universal Server address to administer it, what would it be?
A.http://Key.domain:443
B.https://Key.domain:9000
C.https://Keys.domain
D.https://Keys.domain:9000
Answer:D

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20.If you move an encrypted file out of a PGP NetShare protected folder and onto your Windows desktop
what happens?
A.The file is decrypted
B.The file remains encrypted
C.The file remains encrypted only if it is protected by the blacklist
D.If advanced user mode is enabled it stays encrypted
E.It is decrypted if the file is data created by an application on the blacklist
Answer: B

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NO.2 How do PGP Universal Server clusters resolve conflicts where a user account is being changed on two
or more servers at the same time?
A.Highwatermark
B.Web Messenger replication
C.Smart topology
D.Timestamps
Answer:D

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NO.3 How could I verify user keys for a partner using SMIME?
A.By placing the partner's CA in the list of Trusted Keys
B.By adding an Organization Certificate to my PGP Universal Server
C.By splitting my ADK
D.PGP Universal Server automatically trusts all non-PGP SMIME servers
Answer:A

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NO.4 How did you add Internal Users to the PGP Universal Server?
A.Receiving email
B.Installing the server
C.Sending email
D.All of the above
Answer:C

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NO.5 Given the following details, which of the answers best describes what a user can do? A user who is not
a PGP NetShare user but is a PGP Desktop user attempts to access a PGP NetShare encrypted folder...
A.The data can be decrypted
B.The user cannot access the share at all
C.The user can read but cannot move, copy or delete the files
D.The NTFS permissions determine what the user can do with the files, but the data remains encrypted
Answer:B

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NO.6 Given the following details, which of the answers best describes what a user can do?A user who is not a
PGP Desktop user accesses a PGP NetShare encrypted folder.
A.The data can be decrypted
B.The user cannot access the share at all
C.The user can read but cannot move, copy or delete the files
D.The NTFS permissions determine what the user can do with the files, but the data remains encrypted
Answer:D

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Exam Code: 250-253
Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Veritas Cluster Server 6.0 for Unix )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 108 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-29

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NO.1 Which two actions can be taken to determine whether an application clustered with Veritas Cluster
Server (VCS) has been successfully started or stopped? (Select two.)
A. examine the online log file
B. examine the engine log file
C. view the Security Log from the VCS Java GUI
D. view the Log Desk from the VCS Java GUI
E. view the Application_A.log file
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 The administrator of a four-node Veritas cluster has configured notifications as highly available for all
notification methods. How many notification manager resources are running when all nodes are
considered?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: A

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NO.3 An additional email address was added to the Veritas Cluster Server notifier resource without any other
actions being taken. All but one user is receiving notifications. How can this problem be solved?
A. refresh the mailbox of the impacted user
B. restart the notifier resource
C. restart the SNMP daemon
D. restart the HAD daemon
Answer: B

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NO.4 You have removed a system from a running Veritas Cluster Server cluster so that the cluster now only
has seven nodes. You need to ensure the cluster will start successfully after a complete cluster shutdown.
Which line should be in the /etc/gabtab file to successfully start the cluster?
A. gabconfig -c -n 7
B. clust start seed=7
C. gabconfig start seed=7
D. clust -c -n 7
Answer: A

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NO.5 While Veritas Cluster Server supports nodes in a cluster using different hardware or operating system
versions, this is potentially undesirable for which two reasons? (Select two.)
A. user security
B. inability to handle load on failover
C. cluster upgrades
D. operational complexity
E. network connectivity
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 Which two resource attributes need to be correctly set to prevent an unplanned outage due to an
improper configuration that might cause a fault during the online process of the new resource? (Select
two.)
A. AutoStart
B. Critical
C. Enabled
D. AutoDisabled
E. MonitorOnly
Answer: B,C

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NO.7 One of the three coordinator disks needs to be repurposed as a data disk. What can the administrator
do to accommodate growth in the data center and still provide SCSI-3 I/O fencing?
A. use gatekeeper LUNs to provide additional coordinator disks
B. replace all coordinator disks with Coordination Point servers
C. remove a coordinator disk from the cluster and replace it with a Coordination Point server
D. use compressed disks to double the space available for coordinator disks to enable future growth
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which type of resources are considered by Veritas Cluster Server when determining whether a service
group is online?
A. OnOnly
B. OnOff
C. Persistent
D. None
Answer: B

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NO.9 What is the first step when upgrading the operating system on a single node in a running multi-node
Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) cluster?
A. offline service groups on the node
B. freeze the service groups
C. migrate parallel service groups
D. shut down VCS on all nodes
Answer: A

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NO.10 In a four-node cluster configuration, main.cf is modified to remove one of the four nodes. That node is
decommissioned, and the remaining cluster configuration is unchanged. A power failure causes all three
remaining nodes to shut down. What happens when all three nodes are powered on.?
A. The three nodes form a cluster.
B. Veritas Cluster Server will need manual intervention to come online.
C. LLT will fail because the fourth node is in the llthosts.
D. Veritas Cluster Server will go into ADMIN_WAIT.
Answer: B

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NO.11 Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator has configured preferred fencing. Cluster communication breaks and separates sym1
from the other cluster nodes. Which node(s) will survive the fencing race?
A. sym1 only
B. sym2 only
C. sym3 only
D. both sym2 and sym3
Answer: D

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NO.12 An administrator is manually adding a node named sym3 to an existing two-node cluster. What must
be done after installing Veritas Cluster Server and configuring cluster communications on the new node?
A. run hastart -add sym3 on any node
B. run hasys -force sym3 on the new node
C. run haclus -addnode sym3 on the new node
D. run hastart on the new node
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which two actions must be taken to upgrade an application under Veritas Cluster Server control?
(Select two.)
A. verify that the application agent supports the new version
B. verify that the new version is supported with haagent verify
C. freeze the application service group
D. freeze the application resources
E. stop the application agent on all systems
Answer: A,C

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NO.14 When architecting Coordination Point (CP) server into a Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) environment,
what should be done to ensure the CP service remains online?
A. configure multiple CP server instances on the same node
B. configure CP server as a resource in a VCS cluster
C. ensure that the CP server is backed up regularly
D. ensure that the CP server is on a reliable network
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which two triggers can only be enabled at the resource level? (Select two.)
A. Resrestart
B. Resadminwait
C. Resfault
D. Resstatechange
E. resnotoff
Answer: B,E

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