2014年1月3日星期五

Featured Avaya certification 3305 exam test questions and answers

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Exam Code: 3305
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Aura® Experience Portal with POM Implementation and Maintenance exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 64 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-03

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NO.1 The Alarm Manager page on Experience Portal Manager shows an Alarm:
Q_ICR62006: User-to-User header is missing from SIP response 183 Session Which Avaya product in
the deployment is not configured correctly?
A. Avaya Aura Communication Manager
B. Avaya Aura Session Manager
C. Intelligent Customer Routing
D. Avaya Aura Experience Portal
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which three are exit reasons in an Intelligent Customer Routing (ICR) CCA Session detail report?
(Choose three)
A. Call completed
B. Call failed
C. Call completed in SSA
D. Call routed
E. Call transferred
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.3 After installing a five server Avaya Aura Experience Portal (AAEP) system you check the port
distribution page only to see the name of the media Processing Platform (MPP) servers in the
system have allocated ports.
Which two are the most probable causes of this issue? (Choose two)
A. The AAEP WebLM license has expired; either it was a temporary license or the client's Enterprise
WebLM server is down
B. One or more MPP system resources are overloaded
C. The specified VoIP gatekeeper or SIP gateway is incorrect
D. The Postgres service on the Experience Portal manager (EPM) is not running
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 On an existing Avaya Proactive Outreach Manager (POM) server, what three are required
when configuring a voice campaign? (Choose three)
A. the IP of the POM server
B. an existing contact strategy
C. the Call Classification Analysis (CCA) timeout to be used
D. an existing contact attribute
E. sufficient voice ports and POM CCA licenses
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.5 You have just installed Proactive Outreach Manager (POM) 2 SP or newer on your Avaya Aura
Experience Portal (AAEP) 6.0. You run your first campaign and the POM monitor appears to shoe an
Active Job, but no outgoing call spears to be made. You notice the following entry in the
CmpMgrService.out log file:
CmpMgrService.out
@2011-10-21-10-24-18|P_POMCM002 | ERROR| POMCM | | | Out call web service returned fault:
user does not have permission to run this Web Service | 192.9.84.93####
Which step must you take to correct the issues and continue with this procedure?
A. Login to Experience Portal Manager (EPM) using a user with an assigned role of "POM Campaign
Manager" and restart the campaign
B. Logging to EPM using a user with an assigned role of "Web Services" and restart theCampaign
C. Login to (EPM) using a user with an assigned role of "Administration" and ensure that the outcall
user name administered in POM Configuration > POM Server > outbound Settings> voice Server link
has the assigned role of "Web Services"
D. Login to EPM using a user with an assigned role of "Administration" and ensure that the outcall
user name administered in POM Configuration > POM Server > Outbound Settings > Voice Server
link has assigned the role of "POM Campaign Manager".
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is the last step that is required after successful installation of intelligent Customer
Routing (ICR) Core?
A. Restart the terracotta service.
B. Restart the ICR Core service.
C. Restart the httpd service.
D. Reboot the machine.
Answer: D

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NO.7 You client reported the multi-server Avaya Aura Experience Portal (AAEP) local PostgreSQL
database has become corrupted and you have determined you must restore the database from a
backup of the system.
After restoring the database from the backup, which three actions must be performed? (Choose
three)
A. Restart the vpms service on the Experience Portal Manager (EPM).
B. Reconnect each Media Processing Platform (MPP) with the EPM.
C. Restart the MPP service from the EPM.
D. Restart the avpSNMPAgentSvc on the EPM.
E. Install a new license file on the EPM.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.8 You have installed an Orchestration Designer application on a Tomcat application server and
try at call to the application. The test call fails.
What is the best way to validate the application installation?
A. Check the Avaya Aura experience Portal (AAEP) System Monitor.
B. Check AAEP administration System Maintenance > Log Viewer
C. Open a browser window and access the application Http:// <host>: <port>/<application
name>/index.html
D. Look at the Application Detail Report in the AAEP administration.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 132-S-712-2
Exam Name: Avaya (Specialist: Avaya Proactive Contact Solutions Design Elective Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 62 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-03

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NO.1 Which tool is new to the Editor Application in the Avaya Proactive Contact Supervisor
software?
A.verification of jobs
B.record selection reports
C.messages files and scripts
D.IVR fields in record selections
Answer:C

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NO.2 The Avaya Proactive Contact access server provides which two functions within the
system? (Choose
two.)
A.connects calls to agents
B.manages the internal LAN
C.serves as a dial-in point for access to the digital switch and CPU
D.is the interface that supervisors and agents use on their computers
Answer:B C

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NO.3 What is Update Time?
A.the time period that begins when the agent greets the customer and ends when the
customer hangs up
B.the time period that begins when the customer hangs up and ends when the agent
releases the
customer record
C.the time period that begins when the agent releases the customer record and ends when
the agent
receives the next call
D.the time period that begins when the customer first tells the agent pertinent information and
the agent
records it and ends when the agent releases the record
Answer:B

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NO.4 Your customer has difficulty sorting through their current system's reports to give
supervisors
information that pertains only to their particular group. Which feature should in Avaya
Proactive Contact
meets the customer's need?
A.Shared Lists
B.Unit Work List
C.List Distribution
D.HierarchyManager
Answer:D

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NO.5 Your customer runs a collections call center. When an inbound call comes in, your
customer wants be
able to keep the customer from being called back on the outbound jobs if payment was
received on the
inbound call. Which feature automatically marks records as uncallable on outbound jobs if the
agent uses
a code indicating an inbound call resulted in a payment from the customer?
A.Do Not Call
B.Sales Verification
C.Generic Postupdate
D.Realtime Campaign Update
Answer:D

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NO.6 Your customer has a group of agents that handle clerical and other duties and who
handle calls only
when needed. A supervisor notifies these agents when they need to answer calls because
calls are
queueing or being abandoned. However, the response is often too late to be of much help
and the result
is many abandoned calls. Which Avaya Proactive Contact feature meets this customer's
needs?
A.Virtual Agent
B.Person to Person
C.Intelligent Call Blending
D.Native Voice & Data Transfer
Answer:B

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NO.7 You are using the Avaya Solution Designer. What is the correct input on the ACD line
on the Predictive
Agent Blend software screen for an Avaya Proactive Contact System using Predictive Agent
Blending
with one ACD?
A.leave line blank
B.type in the number 1
C.leave line at the default (0)
D.type in the ACD brand name
Answer:C

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NO.8 Which feature meets the needs of customers who want to run jobs that play messages
to both phones
answered by live customers and phones answered by answering machines?
A.Autowrap
B.Virtual Agent
C.Agent Blending
D.Managed Dialing
Answer:B

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NO.9 When using the Avaya Solution Designer tool, the License Quantity for Agent
Connections should be
equal to the total number of _____.
A.agents in a typical shift
B.simultaneous headset connections
C.inbound lines purchased by the customer
D.outbound lines purchased by the customer
Answer:B

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NO.10 Which two telemarketing situations would merit greater than a 2:1 line to agent ratio?
(Choose two.)
A.using unconfirmed contact data
B.using one of the call blending solutions
C.using unsolicited calling lists (cold calling individuals)
D.calling customers with multiple contact numbers (home, business, etc.)
Answer:A C

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Exam Code: 6203-1
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Voice Portal Implementation Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-03

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NO.1 A customer is planning to deploy a Voice Portal solution, and wants to make sure they
have considered
all aspects of their implementation design components. As a key component of the
implementation, which
documents are included in the Document Review?
A. Deep Drive Results, Equipment List, Customer List, and SOW
B. Customer Scenario, Equipment List, SOW and Deep Dive Results
C. Customer Scenario, Hardware List, Deep Dive Results and SOW
D. Customer List, Hardware List, SOW and the Equipment List
Answer: B

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NO.2 A customer is using skills-based routing. Which Acaya Aura CM forms must be
administered to map the
requirements to agents/ports?
A. Vector and Agent LoginID forms
B. Hunt Group and Skill forms
C. Skill and Agent LoginID forms
D. Vector and Split forms
Answer: C

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NO.3 Why is the "Hot word" Barge-in mechanism used?
A. to stop the application from playing prompt as soon as the utterance is caught on that
prompt
B. to stop the application from playing prompt as soon as the utterance matches a key word
defined in the
grammar
C. to stop the application from playing prompt as soon as the utterance matches a key word
defined in the
grammar and the decision is defined
D. to stop the application from playing prompt as soon as the utterance matches a key word
defined in the
prompt
Answer: C

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NO.4 A customer has just upgraded Voice Portal to a newer version, but the license is not
upgraded. What is
the grace period provided by the system, for upgrading the license?
A. 3 days
B. 7 days
C. 15 days
D. 30 days
Answer: D

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NO.5 From the VPMS web interface, which menu path should be followed, to view the
current status of all
MPP servers and get detailed information about any alarms they have generated?
A. System Configuration > System Monitor
B. System Configuration > MPP Management
C. Real-Time Monitoring > Monitor System
D. Teal-Time Monitoring > System Monitor
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which statement about Auxiliary VPMS is true?
A. Only one Auxiliary VPMS server can be added per Voice Portal 5.1 or newer system.
B. More than one Auxiliary VPMS server can be added per Voice Portal 5.1 or newer system.
C. Auxiliary VPMS can be installed on a single server Voice Portal system.
D. Auxiliary VPMS can be installed co-resident with MPP server.
Answer: B

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NO.7 A technician cannot see the VPMS web interface. What is the first thing that should be
done?
A. Restart all MPPs that are connected to the VPMS.
B. Reload the VPMS software.
C. Make sure that Axis is running.
D. Make sure that Tomcat is running.
Answer: D

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NO.8 What is the last step to be completed before testing the initialization and configuration?
A. Start the MPPs.
C. Stop the MPPS.
C. Start Applications.
D. Stop Applications.
Answer: A

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NO.9 In addition to the Project Overview, Standard service hours, Call Center Telephony
Review, Call Center
Reporting Review, which other service is included in the Statement of Word (SOW)
component of a
project?
A. Call Center Development Services
B. Call Center Programming Services
C. Call Center Leadership Services
D. Call Center Consultant Services
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which two methods can be used to initiate a Voice Portal 5 x Primary VPMS restore?
(Choose two.)
A. system restore page in VPMS web administration
B. do_RestoreData -f /opt/Avaya/backup
C. restorempplogs.sh
D. do_MntDrv do_RestoreData -f /opt/Avaya/backup/remotesvr
Answer: BD

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2014年1月2日星期四

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Exam Code: 000-553
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Certified Specialist Netezza Performance Software v6.0)
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Total Q&A: 128 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-02

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NO.1 What is the maximum number of columns you can choose as organizing keys for clustered base table?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which CREATE DATABASE attributes are required?
A. The database name.
B. The database name and the redo log file name.
C. The database name and the table space name.
D. The database name and the temporary table space name.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which statement is true regarding any database user?
A. The user has a table space defined.
B. The user can be assigned to more than one group.
C. The user must have a corresponding host account.
D. The user can be removed from the default PUBLIC group.
Answer: B

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NO.4 When are zonemaps initially created for a table?
A. nzbackup
B. nzreclaim
C. CREATE TABLE
D. ALTER TABLE ADD ZONEMAPS
Answer: C

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NO.5 When creating a table, you can specify a column constraint for each individual column of either "NULL"
or "NOT NULL". When column values are later evaluated within a query statement, which of these is true?
A. 0 is equal to null, the empty string ( '' ) is equal to null.
B. 0 is equal to null, the empty string ( '' ) is not equal to null.
C. 0 is not equal to null, the empty string ( '' ) is equal to null.
D. 0 is not equal to null, the empty string ( '' ) is not equal to null.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Using a date column as a distribution key may distribute rows evenly across dataslices, why is this a
poor choice of a distribution key?
A. Queries on the table will invoke compression.
B. Queries on date range may involve processing skew.
C. Queries on date range will utilize only host processing.
D. Queries on the table will invoke compression on the date columns.
Answer: B

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NO.7 What should be considered when you are asked to select the distribution key columns for a very large
fact table?
A. As many columns as possible.
B. Columns that contain many nulls.
C. Columns that contain few unique values.
D. Columns used to join to other large tables.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Why should you avoid using Boolean data types as a distribution key for a table ?
A. Table will not join.
B. Table will not broadcast.
C. Table is likely to be skewed.
D. Table is likely to be evenly spread across data slices.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Click on the exhibit.
Given the following query:
SELECT * FROM TableA, TableB WHERE TableA.c_custkey = TableB.o_custkey;
What type of join processing will occur when the query is executed?
A. Collocation hash join processing
B. Distributed hash join processing
C. Broadcast sort merge join processing
D. Replication sort merge join processing
Answer: A

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NO.10 What is the raw user data space available on a TwinFin 24?
A. 24TB
B. 48TB
C. 64TB
D. 100TB
Answer: C

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NO.11 What is a characteristic of a column that is based on the TIMESTAMP datatype?
A. It includes a date portion.
B. It includes a timezone offset.
C. The value is reevaluated each time the row is selected.
D. The value is initially assigned when the row is first created.
Answer: A

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NO.12 What is the TwinFin host Linux file that must be modified to adjust optimizer settings
permanently?
A. /nz/data/postgresql.conf
B. /nz/data/config/system.cfg
C. /nz/kit/sys/initTopology.cfg
D. /nz/kit/log/sysmgr/sysmgr.log
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which two statistical data points are automatically updated when performing an INSERT on a table?
(Choose two.)
A. The number of rows in the table.
B. The column histogram statistics.
C. The number of NULLs in each column.
D. The number of unique values in each column.
E. The minimum and maximum column value information (excluding text columns).
Answer: A,E

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NO.14 .When working with sequences, which of the following statements will always be true?
A. One-up numbers are generated.
B. Integers (whole numbers) are generated.
C. The first value generated is the number 1.
D. The sequence number assigned will be unique across all tables and databases.
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which statement is true for database users and groups.?
A. All users must belong to admin group.
B. Creation of users and groups is not allowed.
C. Users and groups are local and tied to a particular database.
D. Users and groups are global and not tied to a particular database.
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which statement about the TwinFin Groom feature is true?
A. GROOM TABLE requires space to make a complete copy of the table.
B. GROOM TABLE only operates on tables that include an ORGANIZE ON clause.
C. GROOM TABLE prevents nzload from adding data while GROOM is in progress.
D. GROOM TABLE allows UPDATE, DELETE, and INSERT operations to occur while GROOM is in
progress.
Answer: D

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NO.17 Columns in a table may be zonemapped. How are those columns chosen?
A. They are automatically selected by the system.
B. They are based on the same columns as the table's distribution key.
C. They are added via the ALTER TABLE ADD INDEX(column_name) statement.
D. They are added via the ALTER TABLE ADD ZONEMAP(column_name) statement.
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which two characteristics describe the materialized view on TwinFin. (Choose two.)
A. Materialized views can contain aggregates.
B. Materialized views can contain a HAVING clause.
C. Materialized views can contain a WHERE clause.
D. Materialized views can contain an ORDER BY clause.
E. Materialized views can reference only one base table in the FROM clause.
Answer: D,E

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NO.19 Which clause CANNOT be used with a CREATE VIEW statement?
A. SUM ()
B. GROUP BY
C. ORDER BY
D. OUTER JOIN
Answer: C

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NO.20 After performing a GROOM on a clustered base table, which statement is true?
A. The table is redistributed on the ORGANIZE ON clause.
B. The table is reorganized on the ORGANIZE ON clause.
C. The table is reorganized on the DISTRIBUTE ON clause.
D. The table is redistributed on the DISTRIBUTE ON clause.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-M44
Exam Name: IBM (IBM SUT Advanced Level Technical Sales Mastery v1.0)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-02

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NO.1 Which tool can add SUT subscribers?
A. CMP ?Common Management Portal
B. SBC ?Session Border Controller
C. TDI ?Tivoli Directory Integrator
D. A and C
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which sequence for Initial Provisioning is correct?
A. Configuring settings and attribute mapping section of settings.xml - Running the initial
provisioning process - Importing the csv-output file via CMP.
B. Installing TDI - Configuring settings and attribute mapping section of settings.xml - Running the initial
provisioning process - Importing the csv-output file via CMP.
C. Installing TDI - Configuring setting section of settings.xml - Running the initial provisioning process -
Importing the csv-output file via CMP.
D. Installing TDI - Configuring settings and attribute mapping section of settings.xml - Importing the
csv-output file via CMP.
Answer: B

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NO.3 A Session Boarder Controller can protect against _______________
A. denial of service attacks.
B. excessive phone usage.
C. data loss.
D. loud dial tone volume
Answer: A

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NO.4 What are typical functions of a Session Boarder Controller?
A. Security ?to protect the network against attacks.
B. Connectivity ?NAT in the application layer.
C. Quality of Server ?Prioritization of flows.
D. A, B and C
Answer: D

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NO.5 How are the SUT user privileges for preferred devices managed?
A. Via a hidden config file on the client PC.
B. Via Policy settings on Sametime server.
C. Via registry entries on client PC.
D. Via different software versions of client plug-in.
Answer: B

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NO.6 What parameter of a SUT soft-phone client can you configure?
A. Allowed codecs.
B. Sequence of codecs in a list.
C. Rights to add/modify preferred devices.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Where can redundancy be applied?
A. Entire systems (to all components of system).
B. To the HD.
C. To the NIC.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.8 How many stand-by TAS do you need.?
A. One.
B. At least one per cluster using the same SAN-resources.
C. As many as the active TAS's.
D. None of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which methods are defined to transfer the Billing Data to the Billing Server?
A. Push and Pull Method.
B. Send and Fetch Method.
C. Bring and Take Method.
D. Deliver and Retrieve Method.
Answer: A

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NO.10 What should be considered if a large configuration for TAS is planned?
A. There must be a 1:1 relation TAS to allocated media server.
B. At least one additional server for fail over purposes is required.
C. A maximum of 15000 users is allowed.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-M96
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Unica Enterprise Campaign Technical Mastery Test V1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 91 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-02

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NO.1 Where does a customer obtain a software license key, which is required for Unica Campaign v8.2 or
lower?
A.By contacting admin@us.ibm.com.
B.By contacting the Unica license administrator.
C.By contacting campaignlicense@us.ibm.com.
D.By contacting Unica support.
Answer:D

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NO.2 What utility tool should a customer use if they want to export an XML version of configuration settings
for backup, or to import the settings into a different installation of Unica Marketing Platform?
A.populateDb
B.configTool
C.partitionDb
D.unica_actrg
Answer:B

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NO.3 What is a key tool to use when creating the database and schema for the Unica Campaign system
tables?
A.unica_actrg
B.Unica Campaign database information checklist.
C.unica_svradmin
D.Database native data loaders.
Answer:B

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NO.4 What is a recommended part of the planning process for a customer in order to install Unica Campaign?
A.Hardware and software environment and Unica hardware sizing parameters.
B.Create Campaigns
C.Install Cognos
D.Configure the Unica Marketing platform parameters.
Answer:A

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NO.5 What key concept in Unica Campaign provides a collection or set of one or more tasks, or processes,
that Unica Campaign executes to specify and select the desired target(s) of a customer's marketing
campaign and, optionally, assigns offers, outputs data and tracks responses?
A.Offer
B.Campaign
C.Flowchart
D.Session
Answer:C

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NO.6 What type of data table in Unica Campaign contains information that augments a base table; for
example, demographics, accounts belonging to a customer, order transactions belonging to a customer?
A.Base record table
B.Dimension table
C.General table
D.Active record table
Answer:B

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NO.7 For Unica Campaign, what prefix is used for system tables?
A.UARC_
B.DBO_
C.UA_
D.SYS_
Answer:C

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NO.8 Which Unica Campaign process defines the criteria to locate a set or group, such as a list of customers,
from a customer's marketing data?
A.Select
B.Audience
C.Merge
D.Sample
Answer:A

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NO.9 What do you use in Unica Campaign to create a new variable for querying, segmenting, sorting,
calculating, or providing output to a table?
A.Derived Fields
B.Snapshot Process
C.Extract Process
D.Dimension Hierarchy
Answer:A

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NO.10 If you are using Unica Campaign with more than one partition, what must a customer do to configure
the IBM Cognos Reports Package?
A.The Reports Package does not support multiple partitions.
B.Configure once for all partitions.
C.Install Cognos on a separate server.
D.Configure for each partition.
Answer:A

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NO.11 When working with Unica Campaign Response History Administration, what is a key step before
beginning the work?
A.Configure response processes.
B.Define audience levels.
C.Configure table mappings.
D.Configure audience process.
Answer:B

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NO.12 What templates does a customer need to import if the Unica Marketing Platform and Unica Campaign
system tables databases are of the same database type?
A.None, the system automatically imports the template.
B.SQLServer template
C.Oracle template
D.DB2 template
Answer:A

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NO.13 In Unica Campaign, where do you navigate to access the Advanced Settings that allow you to manage
some Unica Campaign settings and server optimization features.?
A.Go to the Summary tab of the campaign.
B.Open the flowchart in Edit mode and select Options.
C.View the flowchart in View mode and select Run.
D.Open the flowchart in Edit mode and select Admin.
Answer:D

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NO.14 Which Unica Campaign object(s) has no naming restrictions, for instance, using special characters
like ? or >?
A.Audience levels not including audience level field names.
B.Custom attribute display names not including custom attribute internal names.
C.Offer templates
D.All of the above.
Answer:D

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NO.15 When should a user regenerate a strategic segment in Unica Campaign?
A.Never
B.Daily
C.When datasource contents have changed.
D.Whenever a new campaign is created.
Answer:C

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Exam Code: 000-M247
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Cognos Business Intelligence Sales Mastery Test v1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 41 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-02

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NO.1 A professional report author in the IT department has difficulty scaling reports to meet the needs of
various user types across the business. Which feature of IBM Cognos BI would be most helpful to this
author?
A. common business model across data sources
B. flexible one-to-many prompted reports or ability to create ad-hoc reports
C. modern SOA architecture
D. environment-neutral platform
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is NOT a major advantage that IBM Cognos BI products have over the competition?
A. promotion of self-service
B. ability to consume Information In a variety of formats, languages, and devices
C. consistency and accessibility from a wide range of data sources across the entire organization
D. ability to build and automate business processes and share findings through collaboration
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is NOT one of the three basic questions-or three rings-that business analytics answers to help
organizations optimize business strategies?
A. What is happening?
B. Why is it happening?
C. Where is it happening?
D. What is likely to happen?
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which part of driving performance is NOT handled by IBM Cognos 8 BI.?
A. reporting
B. planning
C. analysis
D. scorecarding
Answer: A

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NO.5 According to studies by IBM and Gartner, what do CIOs list as their number one concern?
A. compliance
B. business analytics
C. mobilitysolutions
D. risk management
Answer: D

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