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Exam Code: C-TAW12-731
Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certfied Development Associate-ABAP with SAP NetWeaver 7.31)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-01

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NO.1 START-OF-SELECTION
B. 1. INITIALIZATION
2. AT SELECTION-SCREEN
3. AT SELECTION-SCREEN OUTPUT
4. START-OF-SELECTION
C. 1. INITIALIZATION
2. AT SELECTION-SCREEN OUTPUT
3. AT SELECTION-SCREEN
4. START-OF-SELECTION
D. 1. INITIALIZATION
2. AT SELECTION-SCREEN OUTPUT
3. START-OF-SELECTION
4. AT SELECTION-SCREEN
Answer: C

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2. Which of the following tasks does the BADI implementing class perform?
A. Filtering
B. Sequencing
C. Inserting
D. Deleting
Answer: A

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3. Which boundary conditions lead to improved access time to an internal table? (Choose three)
A. Left justified part of key for sorted tables
B. Fully qualified key for sorted tables
C. Index access for hashed tables
D. Left justified part of key for hashed tables
E. Index access for standard tables
Answer: A,B,E

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4. Which of the following predefined ABAP types is incomplete?
A. F
B. P
C. XSTRING
D. STRING
Answer: B

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5. When should you use a hashed internal table? (Choose two)
A. When accessing mainly single records
B. When accessing by secondary key
C. When accessing using the left-justified part of the key
D. When accessing always by primary key
E. When accessing by index
Answer: A,D

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6. In which modularization units can you use parameters? (Choose three)
A. Event blocks such as START-OF-SELECTION
B. Function modules
C. Subroutines
D. Dialog modules such as PBO modules
E. Methods
Answer: B,C,E

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7. You have implemented a class CL_CUSTOMER in which you defined a private attribute. From
where can you access this attribute directly? (Choose two)
A. From all methods of all subclasses of CL_CUSTOMER
B. From all methods of the class CL_CUSTOMER
C. From all methods of a class to which CL_CUSTOMER grants friendship
D. From any program using the class CL_CUSTOMER
Answer: B,C

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8. You perform an update task using update function modules and detect an error in the
program that
calls the update function modules. Which statement can be used to discard all update requests for
the current SAP LUW? (Choose two)
A. EXIT.
B. ROLLBACK WORK.
C. MESSAGE axxx(nnn).
D. MESSAGE exxx(nnn).
E. DELETE UPDATE.
Answer: B,C

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9. What happens when an authorization check fails?
A. The program is terminated.
B. The system field SY-SUBRC is set to a value other than zero.
C. A type E message is displayed.
D. A CX_AUTH_FAILED type exception is raised.
Answer: B

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10. What is the purpose of implicit enhancement points?
A. To add fields to an SAP database table
B. To add code to a standard SAP program
C. To change code in a standard SAP program
D. To create a secondary index for an SAP database table
Answer: B

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NO.2 INITIALIZATION

NO.3 AT SELECTION-SCREEN

NO.4 An executable ABAP program contains a standard selection screen and uses the event blocks
AT
SELECTION-SCREEN, AT SELECTION-SCREEN OUTPUT, INITIALIZATION, START-OFSELECTION.
In which sequence will ABAP runtime call these event blocks?
A. 1. AT SELECTION-SCREEN OUTPUT

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Exam Code: C-TSCM62-65
Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - Order Fulfillment with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP5)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-01

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NO.1 Based on which of the following dates is the availability check (ATP) carried out?
A. Requested delivery date
B. Replenishment lead date
C. Material availability date
D. Goods issue date
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which SAP NetWeaver component realizes cross-system application processes?
A. SAP Exchange Infrastructure (SAP XI) / SAP Process Integration (SAP PI)
B. SAP Enterprise Portal (SAP EP)
C. SAP Master Data Management (SAP MDM)
D. SAP Business Warehouse (SAP BW)
Answer: A

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NO.3 In which of the following master records can partial delivery agreements be stored? (Choose
two)
A. In the customer material info record
B. In the material master record
C. In the condition master record
D. In the customer master record
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 For what purposes can you use transaction variants? (Choose two)
A. To define values in a selection screen for a report
B. To add new external fields to the sales document
C. To hide fields in a sales order
D. To define default values for data fields
Answer: C,D

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NO.5 Which of the following statements regarding quantity contracts is correct?
A. Quantity contract items will show up in the delivery due list when ready for delivery.
B. Different requested delivery dates are maintained in the schedule lines of the quantity contract.
C. Quantity contracts contain details about the customer's requested delivery dates.
D. Quantity contracts are delivered using a contract release order.
Answer: D

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NO.6 As a member of the project team, you are asked to set up the system so that user has to enter
an
order reason when processing a sales order. It should be possible to save the incomplete order,
but further processing should not be possible until the Order Reason field is filled.
How do you implement this requirement?
A. You define an incompletion procedure with the Order Reason field and mark it as mandatory.
B. You define an incompletion procedure with the Order Reason field and assign a status group in
which the fields General, Delivery, and Billing Document are selected.
C. You define an incompletion procedure with the Order Reason field, assign it to the sales
document type, and set the status to "released for further process steps".
D. You define an incompletion procedure with the Order Reason field and assign it to a sales
document type that has the "Incompletion Message" indicator set.
Answer: B

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NO.7 What can be identified as the most likely reason for a delivery split in a collective delivery run?
A. The shipping conditions of two separate items in the sales order differ from one another.
B. The sales order line items have the same route and the same shipping point, but different shipto
parties.
C. The physical weight of the total line items exceeds the capacity of the truck that is being used to
deliver the product.
D. The loading group of one of the items in the sales order differs from the others.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Using rental contracts, which settings are mandatory for working with periodic billing?
(Choose
two)
A. Maintenance of a factory calendar that is assigned to the customer master
B. Assignment of a billing plan type to the item category of the rental contract item
C. Maintenance of a separate billing type that is assigned to the sales document type of the rental
contract
D. Assignment of the respective billing relevance (order-relevant billing – billing plan) to the item
category of the rental contract item
Answer: B,D

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NO.9 What Service Desk feature provides all the functions to analyze and monitor an entire SAP
solution centrally?
A. Root cause analysis
B. Implementation Roadmap
C. SAP Notes
D. SAP Solution Manager diagnostics
Answer: D

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NO.10 What is used to determine the item category for general value contracts (WK1)?
A. Item category group
B. Value contract material
C. You do not need to determine item categories for value contracts
D. Item usage VCTR
Answer: D

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Exam Code: C-HANATEC131
Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Technology Associate (Edition 2013) - SAP HANA)
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Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-01

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NO.1 How can you delete old data and log backups from both the backup catalog and physically
from the server?
A. Delete all files under $(DIR_GLOBAL)/hdb/log
B. Run "DELETE from m_backup_catalog_files where backup_id = <backup_id>" in the SQL editor
C. Delete all files under $(DIR_INSTANCE)/backup/data and $(DIR_INSTANCE)/backup/log
D. Go to Backup Editor -> Backup Catalog -> Delete Older Backups -> Catalog and backup location
Answer: D

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NO.2 You want to make sure that all data accesses to a specific view will be logged in the audit trail.
As part of an update of the database schema, the view is dropped and recreated under the same
name.
What is the consequence for auditing?
A. The audit log-object references must be reinitialized.
B. Auditing continues to work for the view.
C. The audit policy needs to be reactivated.
D. Auditing needs to be set up again for the recreated view.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following traces is active by default in SAP HANA?
A. SQL trace
B. Performance trace
C. Database trace
D. Expensive statements trace
Answer: C

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NO.4 You want to create a role that grants read-only access to the content of the system and
monitoring views and to statistics services.
Which of the following privileges should the role contain? (Choose two)
A. DATA ADMIN
B. ALTER for SQL schema _SYS_STATISTICS
C. SERVICE ADMIN
D. SELECT for SQL schema _SYS_STATISTICS
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 Which of the following would you use to upgrade an SAP HANA system and keep the
downtime to a minimum?
A. High availability
B. Storage replication
C. Partitioning
D. System replication
Answer: D

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NO.6 How can you make space available inside the log volume in a productive SAP HANA system?
A. Compress the log backups at file system level.
B. Set the log mode to Overwrite.
C. Perform log backups.
D. Delete log backups at the operating system level.
Answer: C

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NO.7 You have to size an SAP HANA system for SAP NetWeaver BW. The SAP NetWeaver BW system
is currently running on a non-SAP RDBMS.
Which of the following factors influences the size of the SAP HANA system?
A. The partitioning of tables
B. The number of indexes
C. The size of aggregates
D. The number of tables in the row store
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following connection types does Direct Extractor Connection (DXC) use to
transfer data to SAP HANA?
A. RFC connection
B. Secondary database connection
C. http connection
D. BICS connection
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which of the following are characteristics of SAP NetWeaver Business Warehouse (SAP
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A. The SAP NetWeaver BW application server can be installed on the SAP HANA hardware.
B. The current SAP NetWeaver BW application server hardware can be re-used.
C. All SAP NetWeaver BW 7.x application versions can be used.
D. The sizing of the current SAP NetWeaver BW application server remains valid.
Answer: B,D

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NO.10 Which Linux kernel parameters need to be adapted during SAP HANA installation depending
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Answer: A

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Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - Production - Planning & Manufacturing with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP6)
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Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-01

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A. Automatically move files from one disk pool to another
B. Define a subgroup of nodes to allow 12000X nodes and 36000X nodes to reside in a single disk pool
C. Force writes into the virtual hard disks.
D. Block manually configured file policies.
Answer: B

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NO.2 For what reasons would you increase the default Ethernet frame MTU on an Isilon cluster? (Choose 3.)
A. To match the frame size of the client system.
B. To improve overall performance.
C. To increase the LUN I/O performance.
D. There is no good reason to change the default Ethernet frame size. It is automatically optimized for
performance.
E. To provide easier trace captures.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.3 What should you name the account that runs the Isilon for vCenter Plug-in? (Choose 1)
A. vapi
B. api
C. vCenter
D. vm
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following best describes a Network Provisioning rule? (Choose 1)
A. You can define one subnet per cluster and one pool per subnet.
B. You can define one subnet per cluster and multiple pools per subnet.
C. You can define multiple subnets per cluster and one pool per subnet.
D. You can define multiple subnets per cluster and multiple pools per subnet.
Answer: C

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NO.5 When setting a new disk pool protection level, what should the administrator do to apply the new
protection level to existing data? (Select the best answer.)
A. The administrator should run the isi protect command to apply the new protection level.
B. The administrator should run the isi migrate command to apply the new protection level.
C. Nothing. The cluster applies the new protection level automatically to existing data.
D. Nothing. You cannot apply new protection level settings until you complete an entire cluster reboot.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following directory services is not supported by an Isilon cluster? (Choose 1)
A. Active Directory
B. LDAP
C. NIS
D. NIS+
E. All are supported.
Answer: D

Isilon   100-045   100-045

NO.7 How do you enable anti-virus scanning service for an Isilon cluster? (Choose 1)
A. Click Enable on the Anti-virus Summary page
B. Install an ICAP server
C. Configure all of the settings on the Anti-virus Summary page
D. Install an ICMP server
Answer: C

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NO.8 The NLM protocol is used in some NFS client connections.
What does the NLM protocol do? (Choose 1)
A. Provides file locks for NFS v2 and 3 clients
B. Provides file locks for CIFS clients
C. Provides file locks for NFS v2, 3, and 4 clients
D. Provides file locks for SMB v1,2, and 3 clients
Answer: A

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NO.9 You are configuring a synchronization between two clusters using SyncIQ. You re root directory is
/ifs/data. You create an include statement for /ifs/data/media and an exclude statement of /ifs/data/public.
What will be synchronized to the other cluster? (Choose 1)
A. Nothing will be synchronized.
B. Everything in the ifs/data folder will be synchronized.
C. Everything in the ifs/data folder except the /ifs/data/public folder will be synchronized.
D. Everything in the /ifs/data/media folder and the /ifs/data/public folder will be synchronized.
E. Everything in the /ifs/data/media folder will be synchronized.
F. Everything in the ifs/data/public folder will be synchronized.
Answer: E

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NO.10 How does an Isilon cluster running OneFS 6.5 enable file level access to Windows clients? (Choose 1)
A. Using SMB only
B. Using CIFS and SMB
C. Using CIFS and Samba
D. Using CIFS only
Answer: A

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NO.11 When representing a cluster protection level as N+M:B, what is B? (Choose 1)
A. The number of recoverable disk failures.
B. The number of data blocks.
C. The number of recoverable node failures.
D. The number of data stripes.
Answer: C

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NO.12 What is the maximum number of nodes supported by an Isilon cluster? (Choose 1)
A. 48
B. 64
C. 96
D. 128
E. 144
Answer: E

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NO.13 What are versions of NFS are enabled by default in an Isilon cluster? (Choose 1)
A. Versions 1 and 2
B. Versions 1, 2, and 3
C. Versions 2 and 3
D. Versions 3 and 4
E. Versions 2, 3, and 4
Answer: C

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NO.14 How are disk pools provisioned? (Choose 1)
A. The cluster automatically creates disk pools.
B. By network provisioning rules.
C. By disk provisioning rules.
D. They must be manually created.
Answer: A

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NO.15 What is the maximum tape block size supported by OneFS 6.5.? (Choose 1)
A. 8 K
B. 64 KB
C. 128 KB
D. 256 KB
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 132-S-1002.3
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Sales Certification Specialist)
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Total Q&A: 49 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-01

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NO.1 Who determines the maintenance renewal strategy when a Partner has previously sold a maintenance
agreement to a non Global / US Named Account? (Choose two.)
A.The Avaya Direct team owns the maintenance renewal strategy.
B.The Avaya Telesales team owns the maintenance renewal strategy.
C.The end-user customer.
D.The Partner owns the maintenance renewal strategy, which may include a Channel Service Agreement,
Partner Support Service / Joint Service Delivery, or Wholesale Maintenance.
Answer:C D

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NO.2 Which is NOT a common business problem addressable by Avaya's IPT solutions?
A.Inability to get the appropriate parties together to make decision
B.Inability to communicate during a major business interruption
C.Multiple disparate systems that are expensive to maintain
D.Disconnected branch offices
Answer:A

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NO.3 A business process consists of a set of steps that an organization typically uses to execute daily
business and is _____.
A.measurable using Key Process Indicators
B.measurable using Key Performance Indicators
C.measurable using Key Process Instances
D.measurable using Key Primary Indicators
Answer:A

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NO.4 A key capability of Avaya's IP Telephony solutions is to extend customer announcements, voicemail
greetings, and other applications from the core to the branches, enabling _____.
A.a higher TCO
B.branch office managers to maintain and administer their own communications systems
C.consistent user experiences
D.each user to have a different, customized experience
Answer:C

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NO.5 In the Contact Center portfolio, how does Avaya solve this customer problem: Inability to make good
decisions on behalf of customers and to provide personalized customer service?
A.Access to actionable customer data through a single database and reporting platform
B.Ability to extend applications outward through the enterprise
C.Access convenient communications capabilities to find and reach people more effectively
D.Best practice use of technology
Answer:A

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NO.6 Partners selling to Global Accounts at the Avaya Direct Account Team's invitation must sell which of the
following?
A.Avaya Services only
B.Avaya products only
C.Avaya content for both products and services where Avaya has an applicable offer
D.Any products or services they choose
Answer:C

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NO.7 Which are the three basic functions of the Communication Manager Software?
A.PBX functionality, Contact Center functionality, Mobility Server
B.PBX functionality, Mobility Server, IP Softphone
C.Mobility Server, Contact Center functionality, DoS Protection Server
D.Contact Center functionality, PBX functionality, SIP Enablement
Answer:A

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NO.8 Which enterprise is defined by having over 1000 users, mulitple locations, are often multinational, and
have complex business models?
A.Very-small-sized
B.Small-sized
C.Mid-sized
D.Large-sized
Answer:D

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NO.9 Avaya will have direct resources assigned for primary coverage for which two of the following account
types? (Choose two.)
A.Non Global / US Named
B.US Named
C.Global
D.All account types
Answer:B C

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NO.10 SIP is a key enabler of intelligent communications because it allows for monitoring of _____.
A.presence
B.metrics
C.call volume
D.process
Answer:A

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Exam Code: 132-S-900
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya IP Telephony Design Elective Exam )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 108 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-01

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NO.1 .The S87xx platform is available as a net new system in which configuration?
A. Voice Bearer over ATM
B. Stand Alone (S87xx only)
C. Traditional G3R without IP
D. Voice Bearer over IP (IP Connect)
Answer: D

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NO.2 .Your customer solution requirements call for a mix of SIP and H.323 endpoints. Which entity in the
SIP Infrastructure can perform routing of sessions invitations, authentications and accounting
functions?
A. SIP Proxy
B. SIP redirect
C. SIP registrar
D. SIP media gateway controller
Answer: A

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NO.3 .A customer has an Avaya S87xx Media Server with an Avaya G650 Media Gateway. They want
the remote site tied-in to the main. The remote site has a DSL line for Internet Access. They
currently have a secure VPN tunnel to the main site and want to implement VoIP over this tunnel.
What is your biggest concern as a designer?
A. NAT issues
B. Implementation issues
C. Security cannot be guaranteed
D. Voice quality cannot be guaranteed
Answer: D

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NO.4 .A client is implementing an S87xx Media Server with several G650 Media Gateways. They are
concerned with overheating in the equipment room, especially in the equipment power units.
Which two conditions cause a G650 power supply to initiate an emergency shutdown? (Choose
two.)
A. Overvoltage
B. Overheating
C. Undervoltage
D. High humidity
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 .You are preparing to design an IP Telephony-based S87xx. You are assisting the client in
determining the type of QoS/CoS they should incorporate on their data network. What do you
recommend? (Choose two.)
A. Routed networks should use IEEE 802.1p/Q.
B. Switched networks should use IEEE 802.1p/Q.
C. Mixed networks should use either DSCP or IEEE 802.1p/Q.
D. Routed networks should useDiffServ Code Points (DSCP).
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 .An RFP for a Interactive Voice Response (IVR) unit and mid-sized communication system has
been released. You are responsible for determining the design solution. The RFP states that the
IVR platform must be engineered to handle 135 25-second messages during the busy hour. You
calculate this requirement to equal 47 ports. If you provide 47 ISDN PRI trunks (two ISDN PRI
facilities), which two traffic concerns must you consider? (Choose two.)
A. No trunk growth is available on the ISDN PRI facilities.
B. 47 active trunks overload the two ISDN PRI facilities, seriously affecting traffic load and call
completions.
C. Considering there is only one channel for signaling, a backup D channel cannot be provided,
affecting traffic if the D channel fails.
D. ISDN PRI facilities direct from the central office limit the caller's ability to connect to the proper
resource, causing increased usage.
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 .The customer has a multi node LAN with connectivity to a 16 location multi-vendor (Juniper, Cisco,
3Com and Avaya) WAN. When implementing VoIP on this network, which two routing protocols
should be implemented? (Choose two.)
A. RIP
B. IGRP
C. ID 10t
D. OSPF
Answer: A,D

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NO.8 A customer wants to use an Avaya S87xx Media Server with Avaya G700 Gateways at remote
locations. Each G700 Gateway will include an S8300 Local Survivable Processor and
approximately 75 IP sets incorporating G.711. What Avaya feature allows IP sets to register with
the S8300 if connectivity to the S87xx is lost?
A. Local CLAN board
B. Alternate Gatekeeper
C. S8300 Auto-Registration
D. Gateway Alternate Redirection
Answer: B

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NO.9 In a distributed S87xx Media Server system with G650 Media Gateways in 3 port networks, what
is the distance concern with the TDM cable length?
A. Due to the length of the TDM cable, the slack must be coiled and secured to the back of the
PN.
B. The TDM cable can be ordered to custom fit the system. The designer must know the PN to
G650 layout.
C. If the incorrect cable length attribute is chosen, it will not allow the associated G650s to connect
to the PN.
D. Due to its limited length, each G650 of a PN must be co-located in the same 19 inch data rack
as the rest of the PN.
Answer: D

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NO.10 .Which three are QoS/CoS recommendations that the Avaya Solution Designer can make to
optimize an all Avaya Converged IP Solution? (Choose three.)
A. Switched networks should use IEEE 802.1p/Q.
B. Routed networks should useDiffServ Code Points.
C. Port priority can also be used to enhance 802.1p/Q andDiffServ.
D. Mixed networks should choose only one (802.1p/Q or DSCP) as a best practice.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.11 .You have a corporate site with an S87xx Media Server in location A, and a remote site with an
G700/S8300 LSP processor in Location B. The WAN connection goes down. In what sequence
will the G700 register with the S8300?
A. Each H.248 gateway will reboot and register with the S8300 LSP when it comes back up.
B. The S8300 LSP processor reboots, and then notifies each H.248 gateway it is now the primary
call processor.
C. The S8300 LSP processor notifies each H.248 gateway in the media controller list that it is now
the primary call processor.
D. Each H.248 gateway will detect that the S87xx Media Server is not available and will reregister
with the next Media Server in the media controller list.
Answer: D

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NO.12 .A customer is looking to add a remote location to the S8730. They will have six IP telephones that
will require PoE, two analog CO lines and require basic survivability. Which of the following would
you recommend?
A. G250 - analog / SLS
B. G250 - analog / LSP
C. G350 - analog / SLS
D. IG550 / SLS
Answer: A

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NO.13 .Which three should be investigated when validating a wireless network design? (Choose three.)
A. Installed ductwork and walls
B. Locations of network servers
C. Other wireless networks in the area
D. Operating system of user machines
E. Environmental, moisture, temperature variations
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.14 .If a customer has multiple systems from different vendors and wants to network them together,
which software should be used?
A. DCS
B. ARS
C. UDP
D. QSIG
Answer: D

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NO.15 .A sales engineer completes an S87xx Media Server/G650 Media Gateway design which includes
IP Telephony, multi-locations, and LAN/WAN integration. One of the deliverables for handoff to the
implementation team is the network region design. What four IP endpoint characteristics may be
included in the network region design document? (Choose four.)
A. Codec set
B. UDP port ranges
C. 802.1p/Q settings
D. VLAN assignments
E. Identification of locations
Answer: A,B,C,E

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NO.16 .Which two design issues relate to increasing security in VoIP converged solutions? (Choose two.)
A. Suggesting upgrading LAN switches to supportQoS
B. Defining VLANs to limit access from specific IP endpoints
C. Considering encryption on IP calls for protection from eavesdropping
D. Considering G.729 compression to protect IP calls from eavesdropping
Answer: B,C

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NO.17 .Within an S8500 Server, 25 IP Telephony endpoints are connected to 10 digital sets, 10 IP sets,
and 5 CO trunks. How many TN2602 Media Processor boards are required if G.729 is
incorporated?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: A

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NO.18 .Your client is considering a VoIP application for their S8500 Media Server and G650 Media
Gateway. Due to the time-sensitive nature of VoIP applications, several issues should be
discussed prior to arriving at a final design. Which two VoIP guidelines should you discuss with the
customer? (Choose two.)
A. VoIP should be implemented on an entirely switched network.
B. VoIP will cause some discourse due to lower voice quality than TDM calls.
C. VoIP endpoints should be placed on separate subnets or VLANs based on communities of
interest.
D. When PCs are attached to IP phones, the uplink to the Ethernet switch should be at least 20
Mbps.
Answer: A,C

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NO.19 .Your client's department store business has 24 locations worldwide. Each location has its own
communications switch and is included in a QSIG network. The stores have standardized on
specific extension numbers representing departments. The client is considering moving to a
single, distributed S8700 system but is concerned with the loss of dial plan functionalities. How do
you address the client's concern?
A. Provide Uniform Dial Plan software
B. Utilize ACM Multi-location Dial Plan software
C. Create unique extensions per location for each application
D. Relate that standard S87xx dial plan software will address the issues
Answer: B

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NO.20 .In discussing an organization's DHCP strategy, you find they distribute IP address assignment for
IP telephones at the branch location via the telephony gateway. Which two gateways are viable
options to support the customer's DHCP strategy? (Choose two.)
A. G250 Media Gateway
B. G350 Media Gateway
C. G650 Media Gateway
D. G700 Media Gateway
Answer: A,B

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